Debunking Acne Myths: Is Itching a Symptom of Acne?

Article Type
Changed
Display Headline
Debunking Acne Myths: Is Itching a Symptom of Acne?

Myth: Itching is not a symptom of acne

Acne vulgaris typically is not considered to be a pruritic disease; however, many patients experience itching, which leads them to scratch their acne lesions, causing secondary bacterial infections and subsequent scarring, hypopigmentation, or hyperpigmentation of the involved skin. Although itching rarely is mentioned as a clinical feature of acne, pruritus can be an important contributory factor to the burden of disability and impaired quality of life in acne patients of all ages, and acne itching may be an important target for therapy.

In a descriptive study of 120 consecutive acne patients in Singapore, itch was found to be a common (70% of patients) and debilitating symptom of acne. The majority of patients (83%) reported itch at noon with severity that was comparable to a mosquito bite, and the most common physical descriptor was tickling (68%). Common aggravating factors included sweat (71%), heat (62%), and stress (31%). Fifty-five percent of patients said itching had a negative impact on their mood, and 52% reported that they had scratched or rubbed the affected area.

A study of 108 adolescents with acne limited to the face yielded half who reported itching within acne lesions. The presence of itching was unrelated to age, gender, where they lived, positive family history, or acne severity. In most patients, pruritus appeared relatively infrequently and for a short period of time: 7.4% reported itching every day, 24.1% on a weekly basis, 29.6% at least once a month, and 37.7% even less frequently. Itch episodes lasted less than 1 minute in most participants. However, 31.5% of participants sought medical treatment to reduce itching. The most important factors aggravating the intensity of itching were sweat, stress, physical effort, heat, fatigue, and dry air, respectively.

Regarding the impact of acne itching on quality of life, 29.6% of participants felt depressed and 1.8% were anxious because of their itching. Some participants also noted that itching caused difficulties in falling asleep and awakening from itching.

The pathogenesis of localized itching in acne could be connected with the change in pH of the microenvironment of the acne follicle, providing an optimal environment for the production of histamine or histaminelike products by Propionibacterium acnes. Pruritus also may be a complication of certain acne therapies. Increased awareness among patients of this potential side effect may be helpful in preventing the unnecessary discontinuation of an otherwise effective acne therapy. Understanding factors that may aggravate itching in acne lesions also may be helpful to patients.

 

References

Lim YL, Chan YH, Yosipovitch G, et al. Pruritus is a common and significant symptom of acne [published online July 8, 2008]. J Eur Acad Dermatol Venereol. 2008;22:1332-1336.

Reich A, Trybucka K, Tracinska A, et al. Acne itch: do acne patients suffer from itching? Acta Derm Venereol. 2008;88:38-42.

Publications
Topics
Sections

Myth: Itching is not a symptom of acne

Acne vulgaris typically is not considered to be a pruritic disease; however, many patients experience itching, which leads them to scratch their acne lesions, causing secondary bacterial infections and subsequent scarring, hypopigmentation, or hyperpigmentation of the involved skin. Although itching rarely is mentioned as a clinical feature of acne, pruritus can be an important contributory factor to the burden of disability and impaired quality of life in acne patients of all ages, and acne itching may be an important target for therapy.

In a descriptive study of 120 consecutive acne patients in Singapore, itch was found to be a common (70% of patients) and debilitating symptom of acne. The majority of patients (83%) reported itch at noon with severity that was comparable to a mosquito bite, and the most common physical descriptor was tickling (68%). Common aggravating factors included sweat (71%), heat (62%), and stress (31%). Fifty-five percent of patients said itching had a negative impact on their mood, and 52% reported that they had scratched or rubbed the affected area.

A study of 108 adolescents with acne limited to the face yielded half who reported itching within acne lesions. The presence of itching was unrelated to age, gender, where they lived, positive family history, or acne severity. In most patients, pruritus appeared relatively infrequently and for a short period of time: 7.4% reported itching every day, 24.1% on a weekly basis, 29.6% at least once a month, and 37.7% even less frequently. Itch episodes lasted less than 1 minute in most participants. However, 31.5% of participants sought medical treatment to reduce itching. The most important factors aggravating the intensity of itching were sweat, stress, physical effort, heat, fatigue, and dry air, respectively.

Regarding the impact of acne itching on quality of life, 29.6% of participants felt depressed and 1.8% were anxious because of their itching. Some participants also noted that itching caused difficulties in falling asleep and awakening from itching.

The pathogenesis of localized itching in acne could be connected with the change in pH of the microenvironment of the acne follicle, providing an optimal environment for the production of histamine or histaminelike products by Propionibacterium acnes. Pruritus also may be a complication of certain acne therapies. Increased awareness among patients of this potential side effect may be helpful in preventing the unnecessary discontinuation of an otherwise effective acne therapy. Understanding factors that may aggravate itching in acne lesions also may be helpful to patients.

 

Myth: Itching is not a symptom of acne

Acne vulgaris typically is not considered to be a pruritic disease; however, many patients experience itching, which leads them to scratch their acne lesions, causing secondary bacterial infections and subsequent scarring, hypopigmentation, or hyperpigmentation of the involved skin. Although itching rarely is mentioned as a clinical feature of acne, pruritus can be an important contributory factor to the burden of disability and impaired quality of life in acne patients of all ages, and acne itching may be an important target for therapy.

In a descriptive study of 120 consecutive acne patients in Singapore, itch was found to be a common (70% of patients) and debilitating symptom of acne. The majority of patients (83%) reported itch at noon with severity that was comparable to a mosquito bite, and the most common physical descriptor was tickling (68%). Common aggravating factors included sweat (71%), heat (62%), and stress (31%). Fifty-five percent of patients said itching had a negative impact on their mood, and 52% reported that they had scratched or rubbed the affected area.

A study of 108 adolescents with acne limited to the face yielded half who reported itching within acne lesions. The presence of itching was unrelated to age, gender, where they lived, positive family history, or acne severity. In most patients, pruritus appeared relatively infrequently and for a short period of time: 7.4% reported itching every day, 24.1% on a weekly basis, 29.6% at least once a month, and 37.7% even less frequently. Itch episodes lasted less than 1 minute in most participants. However, 31.5% of participants sought medical treatment to reduce itching. The most important factors aggravating the intensity of itching were sweat, stress, physical effort, heat, fatigue, and dry air, respectively.

Regarding the impact of acne itching on quality of life, 29.6% of participants felt depressed and 1.8% were anxious because of their itching. Some participants also noted that itching caused difficulties in falling asleep and awakening from itching.

The pathogenesis of localized itching in acne could be connected with the change in pH of the microenvironment of the acne follicle, providing an optimal environment for the production of histamine or histaminelike products by Propionibacterium acnes. Pruritus also may be a complication of certain acne therapies. Increased awareness among patients of this potential side effect may be helpful in preventing the unnecessary discontinuation of an otherwise effective acne therapy. Understanding factors that may aggravate itching in acne lesions also may be helpful to patients.

 

References

Lim YL, Chan YH, Yosipovitch G, et al. Pruritus is a common and significant symptom of acne [published online July 8, 2008]. J Eur Acad Dermatol Venereol. 2008;22:1332-1336.

Reich A, Trybucka K, Tracinska A, et al. Acne itch: do acne patients suffer from itching? Acta Derm Venereol. 2008;88:38-42.

References

Lim YL, Chan YH, Yosipovitch G, et al. Pruritus is a common and significant symptom of acne [published online July 8, 2008]. J Eur Acad Dermatol Venereol. 2008;22:1332-1336.

Reich A, Trybucka K, Tracinska A, et al. Acne itch: do acne patients suffer from itching? Acta Derm Venereol. 2008;88:38-42.

Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Display Headline
Debunking Acne Myths: Is Itching a Symptom of Acne?
Display Headline
Debunking Acne Myths: Is Itching a Symptom of Acne?
Sections
Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Disqus Comments
Default

Emergency Ultrasound: Ultrasound-Guided Arthrocentesis of the Ankle

Article Type
Changed
Display Headline
Emergency Ultrasound: Ultrasound-Guided Arthrocentesis of the Ankle
Point-of-care ultrasound is a valuable tool to evaluate the presence of joint effusion of the ankle and guide aspiration.

Ankle effusions can be quite debilitating, causing band-like swelling and stiffness to the anterior aspect of ankle at the tibiotalar joint. Significant swelling can impair ankle dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. The differential diagnosis for joint effusions is wide, and includes traumatic effusion; gout; osteoarthritis; rheumatoid arthritis; and septic arthritis, which is one of the most important diagnoses for the emergency physician (EP) to identify and initiate prompt treatment to reduce the risk of serious morbidity and mortality. Differentiating these conditions requires joint aspiration and synovial fluid analysis. While a large effusion will be palpable and likely ballotable, smaller effusions are more challenging clinically. In such cases, point-of-care (POC) ultrasound can be a valuable tool in confirming a joint effusion.

Identifying Landmarks and Tibiotalar Joint

To access the tibiotalar joint space, it is important to identify useful landmarks.1 This is best accomplished by having the patient in the supine position, with the affected knee flexed approximately 90° and plantar surface of the foot lying flat on the bed (Figure 1).

Figure 1.
The palpable landmark is the tibialis anterior tendon lateral to the medial malleolus (Figure 2). Immediately lateral and slightly distal to the tibialis anterior is the extensor hallucis longus (EHL) tendon, which extends into the proximal foot.1
Figure 2.
When aspirating the ankle joint space, these landmarks will avoid the dorsalis pedis artery lateral to EHL tendon. The location for aspiration of ankle joint will be medial to tibialis anterior tendon.

Performing the Arthrocentesis

The arthrocentesis is performed under sterile conditions using the high-frequency linear probe. A sterile probe cover is highly recommended if the operator will be using ultrasound to guide the procedure in real time.2 Using the palpable landmarks as a guide, the clinician should align the probe just medial to the tibialis anterior tendon with the probe marker oriented cephalad; scanning should begin superior to the ankle joint. The tibia will appear as a hyperechoic stripe just under a thin soft tissue layer. When the tibia is visible, the clinician should then slide the probe distally. The joint space will demonstrated by visualization of the distal tibia and talus bone (Figure 3).

Figure 3.
Since bone is highly reflective on ultrasound, the cortex will appear as white echogenic line with dark shadow below it. An effusion will appear as an anaechoic (black) fluid collection in the space between the tibia and talus (Figure 4).
Figure 4.
If an effusion is present, the clinician should then center the probe over this space and administer local anesthetic medial to the probe (and tibialis anterior), employing an out-of-plane needle approach. Next, one inserts an 18-gauge needle at an angle of 75° to 80° in relation to the probe (Figure 5).
Figure 5.
Using ultrasound to visualize the needle tip entering the effusion, the clinician should aspirate the fluid slowly while advancing the needle into the joint space.

Pearls and Pitfalls

Point-of-care ultrasound is not only useful to guide arthrocentesis of joint effusions, but also to confirm the presence of an effusion prior to aspiration. At our institution, we have had many cases in which POC ultrasound demonstrated an absence of effusion, and we were able to avoid an unnecessary joint aspiration. Moreover, when an effusion is present, POC ultrasound-guided aspiration avoids complications. The use of POC ultrasound can also increase the confidence of the provider performing arthrocentesis of joints less commonly aspirated.

Summary

Joint aspiration is an important procedural tool for EPs, especially when used to rule out life-threatening conditions such as septic arthritis. Deeper joints and small fluid collections, however, can be difficult to access without image guidance. In the ED setting, POC ultrasound provides a widely available, easy-to-use, low-cost tool to increase the likelihood of success while minimizing damage to adjacent structures.

 

References

1. Nagdev A. Ultrasound-guided ankle arthrocentesis. Highland General Hospital Emergency Medicine Ultrasound Web site. http://highlandultrasound.com/ankle-arthrocentesis. Accessed June 8, 2017.

2. Reichman EF, Simon RR. Arthrocentesis. In: Reichman EF, Simon RR, eds. Emergency Medicine Procedures. 2nd ed. McGraw Hill Education: New York, NY; 2013.

Article PDF
Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Publications
Topics
Page Number
329-331
Sections
Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Article PDF
Article PDF
Point-of-care ultrasound is a valuable tool to evaluate the presence of joint effusion of the ankle and guide aspiration.
Point-of-care ultrasound is a valuable tool to evaluate the presence of joint effusion of the ankle and guide aspiration.

Ankle effusions can be quite debilitating, causing band-like swelling and stiffness to the anterior aspect of ankle at the tibiotalar joint. Significant swelling can impair ankle dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. The differential diagnosis for joint effusions is wide, and includes traumatic effusion; gout; osteoarthritis; rheumatoid arthritis; and septic arthritis, which is one of the most important diagnoses for the emergency physician (EP) to identify and initiate prompt treatment to reduce the risk of serious morbidity and mortality. Differentiating these conditions requires joint aspiration and synovial fluid analysis. While a large effusion will be palpable and likely ballotable, smaller effusions are more challenging clinically. In such cases, point-of-care (POC) ultrasound can be a valuable tool in confirming a joint effusion.

Identifying Landmarks and Tibiotalar Joint

To access the tibiotalar joint space, it is important to identify useful landmarks.1 This is best accomplished by having the patient in the supine position, with the affected knee flexed approximately 90° and plantar surface of the foot lying flat on the bed (Figure 1).

Figure 1.
The palpable landmark is the tibialis anterior tendon lateral to the medial malleolus (Figure 2). Immediately lateral and slightly distal to the tibialis anterior is the extensor hallucis longus (EHL) tendon, which extends into the proximal foot.1
Figure 2.
When aspirating the ankle joint space, these landmarks will avoid the dorsalis pedis artery lateral to EHL tendon. The location for aspiration of ankle joint will be medial to tibialis anterior tendon.

Performing the Arthrocentesis

The arthrocentesis is performed under sterile conditions using the high-frequency linear probe. A sterile probe cover is highly recommended if the operator will be using ultrasound to guide the procedure in real time.2 Using the palpable landmarks as a guide, the clinician should align the probe just medial to the tibialis anterior tendon with the probe marker oriented cephalad; scanning should begin superior to the ankle joint. The tibia will appear as a hyperechoic stripe just under a thin soft tissue layer. When the tibia is visible, the clinician should then slide the probe distally. The joint space will demonstrated by visualization of the distal tibia and talus bone (Figure 3).

Figure 3.
Since bone is highly reflective on ultrasound, the cortex will appear as white echogenic line with dark shadow below it. An effusion will appear as an anaechoic (black) fluid collection in the space between the tibia and talus (Figure 4).
Figure 4.
If an effusion is present, the clinician should then center the probe over this space and administer local anesthetic medial to the probe (and tibialis anterior), employing an out-of-plane needle approach. Next, one inserts an 18-gauge needle at an angle of 75° to 80° in relation to the probe (Figure 5).
Figure 5.
Using ultrasound to visualize the needle tip entering the effusion, the clinician should aspirate the fluid slowly while advancing the needle into the joint space.

Pearls and Pitfalls

Point-of-care ultrasound is not only useful to guide arthrocentesis of joint effusions, but also to confirm the presence of an effusion prior to aspiration. At our institution, we have had many cases in which POC ultrasound demonstrated an absence of effusion, and we were able to avoid an unnecessary joint aspiration. Moreover, when an effusion is present, POC ultrasound-guided aspiration avoids complications. The use of POC ultrasound can also increase the confidence of the provider performing arthrocentesis of joints less commonly aspirated.

Summary

Joint aspiration is an important procedural tool for EPs, especially when used to rule out life-threatening conditions such as septic arthritis. Deeper joints and small fluid collections, however, can be difficult to access without image guidance. In the ED setting, POC ultrasound provides a widely available, easy-to-use, low-cost tool to increase the likelihood of success while minimizing damage to adjacent structures.

 

Ankle effusions can be quite debilitating, causing band-like swelling and stiffness to the anterior aspect of ankle at the tibiotalar joint. Significant swelling can impair ankle dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. The differential diagnosis for joint effusions is wide, and includes traumatic effusion; gout; osteoarthritis; rheumatoid arthritis; and septic arthritis, which is one of the most important diagnoses for the emergency physician (EP) to identify and initiate prompt treatment to reduce the risk of serious morbidity and mortality. Differentiating these conditions requires joint aspiration and synovial fluid analysis. While a large effusion will be palpable and likely ballotable, smaller effusions are more challenging clinically. In such cases, point-of-care (POC) ultrasound can be a valuable tool in confirming a joint effusion.

Identifying Landmarks and Tibiotalar Joint

To access the tibiotalar joint space, it is important to identify useful landmarks.1 This is best accomplished by having the patient in the supine position, with the affected knee flexed approximately 90° and plantar surface of the foot lying flat on the bed (Figure 1).

Figure 1.
The palpable landmark is the tibialis anterior tendon lateral to the medial malleolus (Figure 2). Immediately lateral and slightly distal to the tibialis anterior is the extensor hallucis longus (EHL) tendon, which extends into the proximal foot.1
Figure 2.
When aspirating the ankle joint space, these landmarks will avoid the dorsalis pedis artery lateral to EHL tendon. The location for aspiration of ankle joint will be medial to tibialis anterior tendon.

Performing the Arthrocentesis

The arthrocentesis is performed under sterile conditions using the high-frequency linear probe. A sterile probe cover is highly recommended if the operator will be using ultrasound to guide the procedure in real time.2 Using the palpable landmarks as a guide, the clinician should align the probe just medial to the tibialis anterior tendon with the probe marker oriented cephalad; scanning should begin superior to the ankle joint. The tibia will appear as a hyperechoic stripe just under a thin soft tissue layer. When the tibia is visible, the clinician should then slide the probe distally. The joint space will demonstrated by visualization of the distal tibia and talus bone (Figure 3).

Figure 3.
Since bone is highly reflective on ultrasound, the cortex will appear as white echogenic line with dark shadow below it. An effusion will appear as an anaechoic (black) fluid collection in the space between the tibia and talus (Figure 4).
Figure 4.
If an effusion is present, the clinician should then center the probe over this space and administer local anesthetic medial to the probe (and tibialis anterior), employing an out-of-plane needle approach. Next, one inserts an 18-gauge needle at an angle of 75° to 80° in relation to the probe (Figure 5).
Figure 5.
Using ultrasound to visualize the needle tip entering the effusion, the clinician should aspirate the fluid slowly while advancing the needle into the joint space.

Pearls and Pitfalls

Point-of-care ultrasound is not only useful to guide arthrocentesis of joint effusions, but also to confirm the presence of an effusion prior to aspiration. At our institution, we have had many cases in which POC ultrasound demonstrated an absence of effusion, and we were able to avoid an unnecessary joint aspiration. Moreover, when an effusion is present, POC ultrasound-guided aspiration avoids complications. The use of POC ultrasound can also increase the confidence of the provider performing arthrocentesis of joints less commonly aspirated.

Summary

Joint aspiration is an important procedural tool for EPs, especially when used to rule out life-threatening conditions such as septic arthritis. Deeper joints and small fluid collections, however, can be difficult to access without image guidance. In the ED setting, POC ultrasound provides a widely available, easy-to-use, low-cost tool to increase the likelihood of success while minimizing damage to adjacent structures.

 

References

1. Nagdev A. Ultrasound-guided ankle arthrocentesis. Highland General Hospital Emergency Medicine Ultrasound Web site. http://highlandultrasound.com/ankle-arthrocentesis. Accessed June 8, 2017.

2. Reichman EF, Simon RR. Arthrocentesis. In: Reichman EF, Simon RR, eds. Emergency Medicine Procedures. 2nd ed. McGraw Hill Education: New York, NY; 2013.

References

1. Nagdev A. Ultrasound-guided ankle arthrocentesis. Highland General Hospital Emergency Medicine Ultrasound Web site. http://highlandultrasound.com/ankle-arthrocentesis. Accessed June 8, 2017.

2. Reichman EF, Simon RR. Arthrocentesis. In: Reichman EF, Simon RR, eds. Emergency Medicine Procedures. 2nd ed. McGraw Hill Education: New York, NY; 2013.

Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Page Number
329-331
Page Number
329-331
Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Display Headline
Emergency Ultrasound: Ultrasound-Guided Arthrocentesis of the Ankle
Display Headline
Emergency Ultrasound: Ultrasound-Guided Arthrocentesis of the Ankle
Sections
Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Disqus Comments
Default
Article PDF Media

Heritability of colorectal cancer estimated at 40%

Article Type
Changed

 

Genetic factors accounted for about 40% of variability in the risk of colorectal cancer (CRC) in an analysis of monozygotic and same-sex dizygotic twins from the Nordic Twin Study of Cancer to reported in the August issue of Clinical Gastroenterology and Hepatology (2017 Jan. doi: 10.1016/j.cgh.2016.12.041).

Thus, CRC “has a substantial heritable component, and may be more heritable in women than men,” Rebecca E. Graff, ScD, of the Harvard T.H. Chan School of Public Health, Boston, and the University of California, San Francisco, and her colleagues wrote. “Siblings, and particularly monozygotic cotwins, of individuals with colon or rectal cancer should consider personalized screening,” they added.

©Christian Jasiuk/Thinkstock
Having a first-degree relative with CRC doubles to triples the risk of this disease, the researchers noted. About one in five CRC patients has an affected relative, but less than 10% of inheritance is autosomal dominant, and common risk loci explain only about 8% of CRC heritability. Genomewide association studies have identified more than 50 susceptibility variants for CRC, but these explain only 1%-4% of genetic variation in CRC. Previous studies of twins found that 9%-35% of these cancers were heritable, but Dr. Graff and her associates obtained estimates of about 15% after accounting for censoring and competing risk of death. To better pinpoint CRC heritability by sex and age, the investigators compiled data from 39,990 monozygotic and 61,443 same-sex dizygotic twins from the Nordic Twin Study of Cancer, which included population-based twin registries from Denmark, Finland, Norway, and Sweden. Between 1943 and 2010, a total of 1,861 participants were diagnosed with colon cancer and 1,268 were diagnosed with rectal cancer. If a monozygotic twin developed CRC, his or her twin had about a threefold higher risk of CRC than did the overall cohort (familial risk ratio, 3.1; 95% confidence interval, 2.4-3.8). If a dizygotic twin developed CRC, the same-sex twin had about twice the risk of that of the rest of the cohort (FRR, 2.2; 95% CI, 1.7-2.7). For both monozygotic and same-sex dizygotic twins, the familial risk ratios for colon cancer and rectal cancer were slightly higher (3.3 and 2.6, respectively) than for CRC overall. “These differences could reflect limited power but also could indicate shared genetic factors contributing to both [cancer] sites,” the researchers wrote.

The model that best fits the data accounted for additive genetic and environmental effects, the researchers said. Based on this model, genetic factors explained about 40% (95% CI, 33%-48%) of variation in the risk of CRC. Thus, the heritability of CRC was about 40%. The estimated heritability of colon cancer was 16% and that of rectal cancer was 15%, but confidence intervals were wide, ranging from 0% to 47% or 50%, respectively. Individual environmental factors accounted for most of the remaining risk of colon and rectal cancers.

“Heritability was greater among women than men and greatest when colorectal cancer combining all subsites together was analyzed,” the researchers noted. Monozygotic twins of CRC patients were at greater risk of both colon and rectal cancers than were same-sex dizygotic twins, indicating that both types of cancer might share inherited genetic risk factors, they added. Variants identified by genomewide association studies “do not come close to accounting for the disease’s heritability,” but, in the meantime, twins of affected cotwins “might benefit particularly from diligent screening, given their excess risk relative to the general population.”

Funders included the Ellison Foundation, the Odense University Hospital AgeCare program, the Academy of Finland, and US BioSHaRE-EU, and the European Union’s Seventh Framework Programme, BioSHaRE-EU, the Swedish Ministry for Higher Education, and the Karolinska Institutet, and the National Cancer Institute. Dr. Graff had no conflicts of interest.

Publications
Topics
Sections

 

Genetic factors accounted for about 40% of variability in the risk of colorectal cancer (CRC) in an analysis of monozygotic and same-sex dizygotic twins from the Nordic Twin Study of Cancer to reported in the August issue of Clinical Gastroenterology and Hepatology (2017 Jan. doi: 10.1016/j.cgh.2016.12.041).

Thus, CRC “has a substantial heritable component, and may be more heritable in women than men,” Rebecca E. Graff, ScD, of the Harvard T.H. Chan School of Public Health, Boston, and the University of California, San Francisco, and her colleagues wrote. “Siblings, and particularly monozygotic cotwins, of individuals with colon or rectal cancer should consider personalized screening,” they added.

©Christian Jasiuk/Thinkstock
Having a first-degree relative with CRC doubles to triples the risk of this disease, the researchers noted. About one in five CRC patients has an affected relative, but less than 10% of inheritance is autosomal dominant, and common risk loci explain only about 8% of CRC heritability. Genomewide association studies have identified more than 50 susceptibility variants for CRC, but these explain only 1%-4% of genetic variation in CRC. Previous studies of twins found that 9%-35% of these cancers were heritable, but Dr. Graff and her associates obtained estimates of about 15% after accounting for censoring and competing risk of death. To better pinpoint CRC heritability by sex and age, the investigators compiled data from 39,990 monozygotic and 61,443 same-sex dizygotic twins from the Nordic Twin Study of Cancer, which included population-based twin registries from Denmark, Finland, Norway, and Sweden. Between 1943 and 2010, a total of 1,861 participants were diagnosed with colon cancer and 1,268 were diagnosed with rectal cancer. If a monozygotic twin developed CRC, his or her twin had about a threefold higher risk of CRC than did the overall cohort (familial risk ratio, 3.1; 95% confidence interval, 2.4-3.8). If a dizygotic twin developed CRC, the same-sex twin had about twice the risk of that of the rest of the cohort (FRR, 2.2; 95% CI, 1.7-2.7). For both monozygotic and same-sex dizygotic twins, the familial risk ratios for colon cancer and rectal cancer were slightly higher (3.3 and 2.6, respectively) than for CRC overall. “These differences could reflect limited power but also could indicate shared genetic factors contributing to both [cancer] sites,” the researchers wrote.

The model that best fits the data accounted for additive genetic and environmental effects, the researchers said. Based on this model, genetic factors explained about 40% (95% CI, 33%-48%) of variation in the risk of CRC. Thus, the heritability of CRC was about 40%. The estimated heritability of colon cancer was 16% and that of rectal cancer was 15%, but confidence intervals were wide, ranging from 0% to 47% or 50%, respectively. Individual environmental factors accounted for most of the remaining risk of colon and rectal cancers.

“Heritability was greater among women than men and greatest when colorectal cancer combining all subsites together was analyzed,” the researchers noted. Monozygotic twins of CRC patients were at greater risk of both colon and rectal cancers than were same-sex dizygotic twins, indicating that both types of cancer might share inherited genetic risk factors, they added. Variants identified by genomewide association studies “do not come close to accounting for the disease’s heritability,” but, in the meantime, twins of affected cotwins “might benefit particularly from diligent screening, given their excess risk relative to the general population.”

Funders included the Ellison Foundation, the Odense University Hospital AgeCare program, the Academy of Finland, and US BioSHaRE-EU, and the European Union’s Seventh Framework Programme, BioSHaRE-EU, the Swedish Ministry for Higher Education, and the Karolinska Institutet, and the National Cancer Institute. Dr. Graff had no conflicts of interest.

 

Genetic factors accounted for about 40% of variability in the risk of colorectal cancer (CRC) in an analysis of monozygotic and same-sex dizygotic twins from the Nordic Twin Study of Cancer to reported in the August issue of Clinical Gastroenterology and Hepatology (2017 Jan. doi: 10.1016/j.cgh.2016.12.041).

Thus, CRC “has a substantial heritable component, and may be more heritable in women than men,” Rebecca E. Graff, ScD, of the Harvard T.H. Chan School of Public Health, Boston, and the University of California, San Francisco, and her colleagues wrote. “Siblings, and particularly monozygotic cotwins, of individuals with colon or rectal cancer should consider personalized screening,” they added.

©Christian Jasiuk/Thinkstock
Having a first-degree relative with CRC doubles to triples the risk of this disease, the researchers noted. About one in five CRC patients has an affected relative, but less than 10% of inheritance is autosomal dominant, and common risk loci explain only about 8% of CRC heritability. Genomewide association studies have identified more than 50 susceptibility variants for CRC, but these explain only 1%-4% of genetic variation in CRC. Previous studies of twins found that 9%-35% of these cancers were heritable, but Dr. Graff and her associates obtained estimates of about 15% after accounting for censoring and competing risk of death. To better pinpoint CRC heritability by sex and age, the investigators compiled data from 39,990 monozygotic and 61,443 same-sex dizygotic twins from the Nordic Twin Study of Cancer, which included population-based twin registries from Denmark, Finland, Norway, and Sweden. Between 1943 and 2010, a total of 1,861 participants were diagnosed with colon cancer and 1,268 were diagnosed with rectal cancer. If a monozygotic twin developed CRC, his or her twin had about a threefold higher risk of CRC than did the overall cohort (familial risk ratio, 3.1; 95% confidence interval, 2.4-3.8). If a dizygotic twin developed CRC, the same-sex twin had about twice the risk of that of the rest of the cohort (FRR, 2.2; 95% CI, 1.7-2.7). For both monozygotic and same-sex dizygotic twins, the familial risk ratios for colon cancer and rectal cancer were slightly higher (3.3 and 2.6, respectively) than for CRC overall. “These differences could reflect limited power but also could indicate shared genetic factors contributing to both [cancer] sites,” the researchers wrote.

The model that best fits the data accounted for additive genetic and environmental effects, the researchers said. Based on this model, genetic factors explained about 40% (95% CI, 33%-48%) of variation in the risk of CRC. Thus, the heritability of CRC was about 40%. The estimated heritability of colon cancer was 16% and that of rectal cancer was 15%, but confidence intervals were wide, ranging from 0% to 47% or 50%, respectively. Individual environmental factors accounted for most of the remaining risk of colon and rectal cancers.

“Heritability was greater among women than men and greatest when colorectal cancer combining all subsites together was analyzed,” the researchers noted. Monozygotic twins of CRC patients were at greater risk of both colon and rectal cancers than were same-sex dizygotic twins, indicating that both types of cancer might share inherited genetic risk factors, they added. Variants identified by genomewide association studies “do not come close to accounting for the disease’s heritability,” but, in the meantime, twins of affected cotwins “might benefit particularly from diligent screening, given their excess risk relative to the general population.”

Funders included the Ellison Foundation, the Odense University Hospital AgeCare program, the Academy of Finland, and US BioSHaRE-EU, and the European Union’s Seventh Framework Programme, BioSHaRE-EU, the Swedish Ministry for Higher Education, and the Karolinska Institutet, and the National Cancer Institute. Dr. Graff had no conflicts of interest.

Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Click for Credit Status
Active
Sections
Article Source

FROM CLINICAL GASTROENTEROLOGY AND HEPATOLOGY

Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
CME ID
141858
Vitals

 

Key clinical point: If a monozygotic twin developed colorectal cancer, his or her twin had about a threefold higher risk of CRC than did the overall cohort (familial risk ratio, 3.1; 95% CI, 2.4-3.8).

Major finding: Genetic factors explained about 40% (95% CI, 33%-48%) of variation in the risk of colorectal cancer.

Data source: An analysis of 39,990 monozygotic and 61,443 same-sex dizygotic twins from the Nordic Twin Study of Cancer.

Disclosures: Funders included the Ellison Foundation, the Odense University Hospital AgeCare program, the Academy of Finland, US BioSHaRE-EU, and the European Union’s Seventh Framework Programme, BioSHaRE-EU, the Swedish Ministry for Higher Education, and the Karolinska Institutet, and the National Cancer Institute. Dr. Graff had no conflicts of interest.

Disqus Comments
Default

Endoscopists who took 1 minute longer detected significantly more upper GI neoplasms

Article Type
Changed

 

Endoscopists who took about a minute longer during screening esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) detected significantly more upper gastrointestinal neoplasms than their quicker colleagues, in a retrospective study reported in the August issue of Gastroenterology (doi: 10.1053/j.gastro.2017.05.009).

Body

Screening and surveillance practices remain one of the major indications for performing upper endoscopy in patients to detect esophageal (adenocarcinoma in the West; squamous cell in the East) and gastric cancer (in the East). The goal of the initial endoscopy is to detect precancerous lesions (such as Barrett's esophagus and gastric intestinal metaplasia) and, if detected, to grade them properly and evaluate for the presence of dysplasia and cancer in subsequent surveillance examinations.


Dr. Prateek Sharma
The primary aim of the retrospective study by Park et al. was to determine the association between the duration of upper endoscopy and the rate of upper GI neoplasia cases detected during the procedure. Endoscopists spending more than 3 minutes were more likely to diagnose lesions during esophagogastroduodenoscopy than were those who spent less time during the procedure. While the study has limitations, including its retrospective nature, the performance of an adequate number of biopsies, and the type of endoscopes utilized, it does highlight a more important issue - the role of quality endoscopy for the detection of upper GI neoplasia. Besides the time spent during upper endoscopy (like the colonoscopy withdrawal time), other considerations during index endoscopy, to ensure a quality examination, are careful inspection of the mucosa and detection of lesions during endoscopy. A high-quality examination of the esophageal mucosa can lead to an increase in detection of dysplasia and cancer in patients with Barrett's esophagus. A recent study determined that when endoscopists spent approximately a minute per centimeter extent of Barrett's esophagus, they had a higher detection rate of neoplastic lesions. Such a "quality examination" could be easily implemented and should be the minimal standard in surveillance of patients with Barrett's esophagus. In summary, after the initial attention to quality colonoscopy, we are now in the process of moving to assessing quality in upper endoscopy. Details of endoscopic techniques and duration of endoscopic examination are the first steps. In a specialty driven by evidence-based guidelines, quality indicators become most important to ensure appropriate diagnosis, surveillance, and treatment.   

Prateek Sharma, MD, is a professor of medicine in the division of gastroenterology and hepatology, Veterans Affairs Medical Center, University of Kansas, Kansas City, Mo. He has no conflicts of interest.

Publications
Topics
Sections
Body

Screening and surveillance practices remain one of the major indications for performing upper endoscopy in patients to detect esophageal (adenocarcinoma in the West; squamous cell in the East) and gastric cancer (in the East). The goal of the initial endoscopy is to detect precancerous lesions (such as Barrett's esophagus and gastric intestinal metaplasia) and, if detected, to grade them properly and evaluate for the presence of dysplasia and cancer in subsequent surveillance examinations.


Dr. Prateek Sharma
The primary aim of the retrospective study by Park et al. was to determine the association between the duration of upper endoscopy and the rate of upper GI neoplasia cases detected during the procedure. Endoscopists spending more than 3 minutes were more likely to diagnose lesions during esophagogastroduodenoscopy than were those who spent less time during the procedure. While the study has limitations, including its retrospective nature, the performance of an adequate number of biopsies, and the type of endoscopes utilized, it does highlight a more important issue - the role of quality endoscopy for the detection of upper GI neoplasia. Besides the time spent during upper endoscopy (like the colonoscopy withdrawal time), other considerations during index endoscopy, to ensure a quality examination, are careful inspection of the mucosa and detection of lesions during endoscopy. A high-quality examination of the esophageal mucosa can lead to an increase in detection of dysplasia and cancer in patients with Barrett's esophagus. A recent study determined that when endoscopists spent approximately a minute per centimeter extent of Barrett's esophagus, they had a higher detection rate of neoplastic lesions. Such a "quality examination" could be easily implemented and should be the minimal standard in surveillance of patients with Barrett's esophagus. In summary, after the initial attention to quality colonoscopy, we are now in the process of moving to assessing quality in upper endoscopy. Details of endoscopic techniques and duration of endoscopic examination are the first steps. In a specialty driven by evidence-based guidelines, quality indicators become most important to ensure appropriate diagnosis, surveillance, and treatment.   

Prateek Sharma, MD, is a professor of medicine in the division of gastroenterology and hepatology, Veterans Affairs Medical Center, University of Kansas, Kansas City, Mo. He has no conflicts of interest.

Body

Screening and surveillance practices remain one of the major indications for performing upper endoscopy in patients to detect esophageal (adenocarcinoma in the West; squamous cell in the East) and gastric cancer (in the East). The goal of the initial endoscopy is to detect precancerous lesions (such as Barrett's esophagus and gastric intestinal metaplasia) and, if detected, to grade them properly and evaluate for the presence of dysplasia and cancer in subsequent surveillance examinations.


Dr. Prateek Sharma
The primary aim of the retrospective study by Park et al. was to determine the association between the duration of upper endoscopy and the rate of upper GI neoplasia cases detected during the procedure. Endoscopists spending more than 3 minutes were more likely to diagnose lesions during esophagogastroduodenoscopy than were those who spent less time during the procedure. While the study has limitations, including its retrospective nature, the performance of an adequate number of biopsies, and the type of endoscopes utilized, it does highlight a more important issue - the role of quality endoscopy for the detection of upper GI neoplasia. Besides the time spent during upper endoscopy (like the colonoscopy withdrawal time), other considerations during index endoscopy, to ensure a quality examination, are careful inspection of the mucosa and detection of lesions during endoscopy. A high-quality examination of the esophageal mucosa can lead to an increase in detection of dysplasia and cancer in patients with Barrett's esophagus. A recent study determined that when endoscopists spent approximately a minute per centimeter extent of Barrett's esophagus, they had a higher detection rate of neoplastic lesions. Such a "quality examination" could be easily implemented and should be the minimal standard in surveillance of patients with Barrett's esophagus. In summary, after the initial attention to quality colonoscopy, we are now in the process of moving to assessing quality in upper endoscopy. Details of endoscopic techniques and duration of endoscopic examination are the first steps. In a specialty driven by evidence-based guidelines, quality indicators become most important to ensure appropriate diagnosis, surveillance, and treatment.   

Prateek Sharma, MD, is a professor of medicine in the division of gastroenterology and hepatology, Veterans Affairs Medical Center, University of Kansas, Kansas City, Mo. He has no conflicts of interest.

 

Endoscopists who took about a minute longer during screening esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) detected significantly more upper gastrointestinal neoplasms than their quicker colleagues, in a retrospective study reported in the August issue of Gastroenterology (doi: 10.1053/j.gastro.2017.05.009).

 

Endoscopists who took about a minute longer during screening esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) detected significantly more upper gastrointestinal neoplasms than their quicker colleagues, in a retrospective study reported in the August issue of Gastroenterology (doi: 10.1053/j.gastro.2017.05.009).

Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Click for Credit Status
Ready
Sections
Article Source

FROM GASTROENTEROLOGY

Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Vitals

 

Key clinical point: Adding about 1 minute to an upper endoscopy might significantly increase the detection of upper gastrointestinal neoplasms.

Major finding: Slow endoscopists (with a mean duration for the procedure of 3 minutes and 25 seconds) had a detection rate of 0.28%, while fast endoscopists (2 minutes and 38 seconds) had a detection rate of 0.20% (P = .005).

Data source: A single-center retrospective study of 111,962 individuals who underwent esophagogastroduodenoscopy in Korea between 2009 and 2015.

Disclosures: Funders included the Ministry of Education, Science, and Technology; the Ministry of Science, ICT, and Future Planning; and the Ministry of Health & Welfare, Republic of Korea. The investigators reported having no conflicts of interest.

Disqus Comments
Default

Teen suicide risk significant among screened nonresponders

Article Type
Changed

 

SAN FRANCISCO – Teens who answered “no response” for one or more questions during a standard suicide screening in the ED typically have a risk of suicide nearly on par with those who answered “yes” to at least one question, results of a study showed.

“Risk for suicidality was substantial among both groups,” Tricia Hengehold of the University of Cincinnati reported at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting. “About half of each group fit the medium-risk category, although the yes group had more teens in the high-risk category comparatively.”

Devonyu/Thinkstock
Although suicide is the second leading cause of teen death in the United States and those at risk for suicide present to the ED more often than those who aren’t at risk, most EDs do not routinely screen adolescents for suicide, Ms. Hengehold said.

In their study, she and her coinvestigators compared all teens who answered yes or no response (NR) to any question on the Ask Suicide-Screening Questions (ASQ). A total of 3,386 adolescents, aged 12-17 years, were screened when each presented to the ED with a complaint other than a psychiatric one. The data came from a preexisting study not initially designed for studying nonresponders.

The majority of teens (93%) answered no to all ASQ questions: 5% answered yes to at least one ASQ question, regardless of other answers, and 2% answered no response on at least one of the ASQ questions, but did not answer yes to any of them.

The average age of participants was 14 years among all response groups, but females were overrepresented in the yes and NR groups: 74% of females answered yes to one of the ASQ questions, compared with just 26% of males. Similarly, 79% of females were classified as nonresponders, vs. 21% of males. In the negative screen group, however, females (54%) and males (46%) were much more evenly represented.

Patients who answered yes or NR also were more likely to have Medicaid or Medicare than commercial insurance or a self-pay arrangement. Within the yes group, 56% had public insurance, and 39% had private insurance. In the NR group, 43% had public insurance, and 53% had private insurance.

Any teens who answered yes or NR should have undergone evaluation by a mental health professional, but those answering yes were more likely to get this evaluation than nonresponders. Nearly all (93%) of those answering yes received the evaluation, compared with 79% of nonresponders. Yet half of the nonresponders who were evaluated were recommended for further follow-up, not far behind the 65% recommended from among the yes group.

A clinically significant risk of suicide existed among 93% of those answering yes and 85% of nonresponders, the investigators found. About a third (33%) of the yes group were classified as high risk – suicidal ideation within the past week or no treatment after a previous attempt – while 16% of the nonresponders were.

“The NR group was more often in an earlier stage of change than the yes group, presenting with a greater percentage of teens in the precontemplation category,” Ms. Hengehold said. The precontemplation category, which included 27% of the NR group and 17% of the yes group, referred to teens who did not believe they would benefit from working with a mental health professional.

The contemplation category referred to teens who said they were still thinking about whether to meet with a mental health professional or that they would seek treatment if their suicidality worsened. This category included 9% of yes responders and 14% of nonresponders.

A higher proportion of yes responders (56%) than nonresponders (41%) had reached the preparation stage, which meant they had agreed to set up treatment or had received a referral within a month after their ED visit. A similar percentage of yes responders and nonresponders were currently in treatment, seeing a mental health professional intermittently, or had successfully received therapy.

“The sociodemographic characteristics of teens that endorse a no response are very similar to those of positive endorsers,” she concluded. She noted the potential importance of including an NR option on suicide-screening instruments.

Although nonresponders had clinically significant mental health concerns that indicated a need for further evaluation, these adolescents were less ready to engage in mental health services than those answering yes.

“This may be important when designing suicide risk interventions for each group,” she reported.

The research was funded by the National Institutes of Health. Ms. Hengehold and her associates reported no relevant financial disclosures.

Meeting/Event
Publications
Topics
Sections
Meeting/Event
Meeting/Event

 

SAN FRANCISCO – Teens who answered “no response” for one or more questions during a standard suicide screening in the ED typically have a risk of suicide nearly on par with those who answered “yes” to at least one question, results of a study showed.

“Risk for suicidality was substantial among both groups,” Tricia Hengehold of the University of Cincinnati reported at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting. “About half of each group fit the medium-risk category, although the yes group had more teens in the high-risk category comparatively.”

Devonyu/Thinkstock
Although suicide is the second leading cause of teen death in the United States and those at risk for suicide present to the ED more often than those who aren’t at risk, most EDs do not routinely screen adolescents for suicide, Ms. Hengehold said.

In their study, she and her coinvestigators compared all teens who answered yes or no response (NR) to any question on the Ask Suicide-Screening Questions (ASQ). A total of 3,386 adolescents, aged 12-17 years, were screened when each presented to the ED with a complaint other than a psychiatric one. The data came from a preexisting study not initially designed for studying nonresponders.

The majority of teens (93%) answered no to all ASQ questions: 5% answered yes to at least one ASQ question, regardless of other answers, and 2% answered no response on at least one of the ASQ questions, but did not answer yes to any of them.

The average age of participants was 14 years among all response groups, but females were overrepresented in the yes and NR groups: 74% of females answered yes to one of the ASQ questions, compared with just 26% of males. Similarly, 79% of females were classified as nonresponders, vs. 21% of males. In the negative screen group, however, females (54%) and males (46%) were much more evenly represented.

Patients who answered yes or NR also were more likely to have Medicaid or Medicare than commercial insurance or a self-pay arrangement. Within the yes group, 56% had public insurance, and 39% had private insurance. In the NR group, 43% had public insurance, and 53% had private insurance.

Any teens who answered yes or NR should have undergone evaluation by a mental health professional, but those answering yes were more likely to get this evaluation than nonresponders. Nearly all (93%) of those answering yes received the evaluation, compared with 79% of nonresponders. Yet half of the nonresponders who were evaluated were recommended for further follow-up, not far behind the 65% recommended from among the yes group.

A clinically significant risk of suicide existed among 93% of those answering yes and 85% of nonresponders, the investigators found. About a third (33%) of the yes group were classified as high risk – suicidal ideation within the past week or no treatment after a previous attempt – while 16% of the nonresponders were.

“The NR group was more often in an earlier stage of change than the yes group, presenting with a greater percentage of teens in the precontemplation category,” Ms. Hengehold said. The precontemplation category, which included 27% of the NR group and 17% of the yes group, referred to teens who did not believe they would benefit from working with a mental health professional.

The contemplation category referred to teens who said they were still thinking about whether to meet with a mental health professional or that they would seek treatment if their suicidality worsened. This category included 9% of yes responders and 14% of nonresponders.

A higher proportion of yes responders (56%) than nonresponders (41%) had reached the preparation stage, which meant they had agreed to set up treatment or had received a referral within a month after their ED visit. A similar percentage of yes responders and nonresponders were currently in treatment, seeing a mental health professional intermittently, or had successfully received therapy.

“The sociodemographic characteristics of teens that endorse a no response are very similar to those of positive endorsers,” she concluded. She noted the potential importance of including an NR option on suicide-screening instruments.

Although nonresponders had clinically significant mental health concerns that indicated a need for further evaluation, these adolescents were less ready to engage in mental health services than those answering yes.

“This may be important when designing suicide risk interventions for each group,” she reported.

The research was funded by the National Institutes of Health. Ms. Hengehold and her associates reported no relevant financial disclosures.

 

SAN FRANCISCO – Teens who answered “no response” for one or more questions during a standard suicide screening in the ED typically have a risk of suicide nearly on par with those who answered “yes” to at least one question, results of a study showed.

“Risk for suicidality was substantial among both groups,” Tricia Hengehold of the University of Cincinnati reported at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting. “About half of each group fit the medium-risk category, although the yes group had more teens in the high-risk category comparatively.”

Devonyu/Thinkstock
Although suicide is the second leading cause of teen death in the United States and those at risk for suicide present to the ED more often than those who aren’t at risk, most EDs do not routinely screen adolescents for suicide, Ms. Hengehold said.

In their study, she and her coinvestigators compared all teens who answered yes or no response (NR) to any question on the Ask Suicide-Screening Questions (ASQ). A total of 3,386 adolescents, aged 12-17 years, were screened when each presented to the ED with a complaint other than a psychiatric one. The data came from a preexisting study not initially designed for studying nonresponders.

The majority of teens (93%) answered no to all ASQ questions: 5% answered yes to at least one ASQ question, regardless of other answers, and 2% answered no response on at least one of the ASQ questions, but did not answer yes to any of them.

The average age of participants was 14 years among all response groups, but females were overrepresented in the yes and NR groups: 74% of females answered yes to one of the ASQ questions, compared with just 26% of males. Similarly, 79% of females were classified as nonresponders, vs. 21% of males. In the negative screen group, however, females (54%) and males (46%) were much more evenly represented.

Patients who answered yes or NR also were more likely to have Medicaid or Medicare than commercial insurance or a self-pay arrangement. Within the yes group, 56% had public insurance, and 39% had private insurance. In the NR group, 43% had public insurance, and 53% had private insurance.

Any teens who answered yes or NR should have undergone evaluation by a mental health professional, but those answering yes were more likely to get this evaluation than nonresponders. Nearly all (93%) of those answering yes received the evaluation, compared with 79% of nonresponders. Yet half of the nonresponders who were evaluated were recommended for further follow-up, not far behind the 65% recommended from among the yes group.

A clinically significant risk of suicide existed among 93% of those answering yes and 85% of nonresponders, the investigators found. About a third (33%) of the yes group were classified as high risk – suicidal ideation within the past week or no treatment after a previous attempt – while 16% of the nonresponders were.

“The NR group was more often in an earlier stage of change than the yes group, presenting with a greater percentage of teens in the precontemplation category,” Ms. Hengehold said. The precontemplation category, which included 27% of the NR group and 17% of the yes group, referred to teens who did not believe they would benefit from working with a mental health professional.

The contemplation category referred to teens who said they were still thinking about whether to meet with a mental health professional or that they would seek treatment if their suicidality worsened. This category included 9% of yes responders and 14% of nonresponders.

A higher proportion of yes responders (56%) than nonresponders (41%) had reached the preparation stage, which meant they had agreed to set up treatment or had received a referral within a month after their ED visit. A similar percentage of yes responders and nonresponders were currently in treatment, seeing a mental health professional intermittently, or had successfully received therapy.

“The sociodemographic characteristics of teens that endorse a no response are very similar to those of positive endorsers,” she concluded. She noted the potential importance of including an NR option on suicide-screening instruments.

Although nonresponders had clinically significant mental health concerns that indicated a need for further evaluation, these adolescents were less ready to engage in mental health services than those answering yes.

“This may be important when designing suicide risk interventions for each group,” she reported.

The research was funded by the National Institutes of Health. Ms. Hengehold and her associates reported no relevant financial disclosures.

Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Click for Credit Status
Ready
Sections
Article Source

AT PAS 17

Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Vitals

 

Key clinical point: Adolescents who choose “no response” on suicide-screening questions remain at medium to high risk for suicide.

Major finding: Eighty-five percent of teens who were nonresponders on at least one suicide-screening question had a clinically significant risk of suicide, compared with 93% of those answering yes.

Data source: The findings are based on an analysis of responses from 3,386 adolescents screened for suicidality during a nonpsychiatric emergency department visit.

Disclosures: The research was funded by the National Institutes of Health. Ms. Hengehold and her associates reported no relevant financial disclosures.

Disqus Comments
Default

Case Studies in Toxicology: An Unlikely Cause of Paralysis

Article Type
Changed
Display Headline
Case Studies in Toxicology: An Unlikely Cause of Paralysis
A young man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presented for evaluation of severe bilateral weakness in the upper and lower extremities.

Case

An Asian man in his third decade, with a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and who had recently been involved in a motor vehicle collision (MVC), presented to the ED with a chief complaint of severe bilateral upper and lower extremity weakness. The patient noted that the weakness had begun the previous evening and became progressively worse throughout the night, to the point that he was unable to move any of his extremities on the morning of presentation.

Upon arrival at the ED, the patient was awake, alert, and oriented to self, time, and place; he also spoke in full sentences without distress. He denied fever, chills, difficulty breathing, or preceding viral illness. The patient stated that he was not taking any medications and denied a history of alcohol, tobacco, or drug abuse.

Initial vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 141/50 mm Hg; heart rate, 90 beats/min; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.4°F. Oxygen saturation was 100% on room air. On physical examination, the patient was in no acute distress and had a normal mental status. His pupils were normally reactive and his other cranial nerves were normal. Muscle strength in the upper and lower extremities was 1/5 with 1+ reflexes bilaterally, and there was no sensory deficit. The patient was placed on continuous cardiac monitoring with pulse oximetry.

What is the differential diagnosis for acute extremity weakness or paralysis?

The differential diagnosis for acute symmetrical extremity weakness or paralysis is broad and includes conditions of neurological, inflammatory, and toxic/metabolic etiologies.1 Neurological diagnoses to consider include acute stroke, specifically of the anterior cerebral or middle cerebral artery territories; Guillain-Barré syndrome; myasthenia gravis; spinal cord compression; and tick paralysis. Acute ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke most frequently presents with unilateral upper or lower extremity weakness accompanied by garbled speech and sensory deficits. Patients who have suffered a brainstem or cerebellar stroke commonly present with alterations of consciousness, visual changes, and ataxia. Posterior circulation strokes are also characterized by crossed neurological deficits, such as motor deficits on one side of the body and sensory deficits on the other.

Spinal Cord Pathology. Signs and symptoms of spinal cord compression or inflammation vary widely depending on the level affected. Motor and sensory findings of spinal cord pathology include muscle weakness, spasticity, hyper- or hyporeflexia, and a discrete level below which sensation is absent or reduced.

Guillain-Barré Syndrome. Patients who have Guillain-Barré syndrome (a disease of the myelin sheaths of the peripheral nerves) often present with complaints of numbness or paresthesias in the extremities.2 The condition is characterized by progressive symmetric muscle weakness accompanied by absent or depressed deep tendon reflexes and is typically associated with a recent exposure to an infectious agent such as a viral upper respiratory infection, bacterial infection, or vaccine.

Myasthenia Gravis. Myasthenia gravis is a disease of the neuromuscular junction. It presents with weakness in any muscle group, and the muscles are easily fatigued by repetitive use.

Toxic Exposures. Toxins, such as botulinum, ixovotoxin, nicotine, succinylcholine, and tetrodotoxin, are prominent, though less common, causes of muscular weakness or paralysis. Botulinum toxin acts at the neuromuscular junction. Patients with botulism typically present with a gastrointestinal prodrome of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea followed by cranial nerve dysfunction and descending muscle weakness.3

Tetrodotoxin, nicotine, and curare-like paralytics act at the motor end plate of the neuromuscular junction to produce neuromuscular blockade with subsequent muscular weakness or paralysis. Similarly, ixovotoxin, the toxin responsible for tick paralysis, causes ascending flaccid paralysis by decreasing the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.3

Metabolic and Endocrine Disorders. Conditions such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and periodic paralysis can also present with neurological complaints such as generalized weakness and paresthesias. Of note, it is important to differentiate true neuromuscular weakness from weakness secondary to limited effort.

Case Continuation

Because of the patient’s history of an MVC, cervical cord compression was considered concerning enough to require exclusion through magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spine. However, upon arrival at the MRI suite, the patient became severely tachypneic and tachycardic, and was unable to tolerate lying flat. He was intubated for impending respiratory failure. Laboratory results from blood drawn prior to transport to MRI were reported immediately after the resuscitation and were notable for the following: potassium, <1.5 mEq/L; bicarbonate, 20 mEq/L; creatine kinase, 889 U/L; ethanol, not detected.

 

 

What is hypokalemic periodic paralysis?

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis (HypoKPP) is a syndrome of episodic muscle weakness with concomitant hypokalemia. Familial forms of HypoKPP have been attributed to mutations in genes coding for either calcium or sodium channels.

The nonfamilial form of HypoKPP is attributed to hyperthyroidism and is most often seen in Asian men in the second and third decades of life. The disorder is characterized by acute onset hypokalemia and extremity paralysis with simultaneous hyperthyroid state. It is believed that hypokalemia occurs as a result of intracellular shift of potassium from thyroid-induced hormone sensitization of the Na+/K+-ATPase rather than a depletion of total body potassium. Acute episodes of paralysis are triggered by high-carbohydrate meals, alcohol consumption, emotional stress, and infection. Paralysis can last from 3 to 96 hours and is accompanied by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes with normal sensation and mental status.

In the nonfamilial form of HypoKPP, signs of thyrotoxicosis are often present and include tachycardia, moist skin, and hyperthermia, but it may be difficult to specifically recognize this etiology given the patient’s grave clinical condition.4 Similar to many significant metabolic and electrolyte disturbances, complications of HypoKPP include dysrhythmia, respiratory failure, and sometimes death.5

How should HypoKPP be managed in the ED?

Management of HypoKPP begins with careful assessment of the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation. Once the patient is stabilized, management of consequential effects of hypokalemia, such as respiratory distress and muscular paralysis, should focus on correcting the electrolyte and endocrine derangements.

Propranolol. If the patient exhibits signs of thyrotoxicosis, initial treatment includes propranolol, a nonselective beta-blocker, which both prevents the intracellular shift of potassium and assists in correcting the underlying hyperthyroid and hypermetabolic state. Although there is no standard propranolol dosing protocol for HypoKPP, some authors suggest that an aggressive dose of 2 mg intravenously (IV) every 10 minutes can shorten the patient’s episode of paralysis to 6 hours.6

Potassium Chloride. Administration of potassium chloride to raise the serum potassium to life-sustaining concentrations should be done cautiously through IV infusion of standard doses.7 In correcting hypokalemia with potassium, care should be taken to avoid overcorrection, which may subsequently result in rebound hyperkalemia as the total body potassium redistributes. Lower doses of potassium (ie, <50 mEq per dose), are preferred to achieve adequate repletion while avoiding rebound hyperkalemia.8

Case Conclusion

The results of thyroid studies that had been added on to the original set of laboratory studies revealed profound hyperthyroidism, with an essentially absent concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone.

References

1. Morchi RS. Weakness. In: Rosen P, ed. Rosen’s Emergency Medicine. 8th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier; 2014:124-128.

2. McGillicuddy DC, Walker O, Shapiro NI, Edlow JA. Guillain-Barré syndrome in the emergency department. Ann Emerg Med. 2006;47(4):390-393. doi:10.1016/j.annemergmed.2005.05.008.

3. Rao RB. Neurological principles. In: Hoffman RS, Howland MA, Lewin NA, Nelson LS, Goldfrank LR, eds. Goldfrank’s Toxicologic Emergencies. 10th ed. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill; 2015:315-323.

4. Lam L, Nair RJ, Tingle L. Thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. Proc (Bayl Univ Med Cent). 2006;19(2):126-129.

5. Li X, Yao S, Xiang Y, et al. The clinical and genetic features in a cohort of mainland Chinese patients with thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. BMC Neurol. 2015;15:38. doi:10.1186/s12883-015-0290-8.

6. Birkhahn RH, Gaeta TJ, Melniker L. Thyrotoxic periodic paralysis and intravenous propranolol in the emergency setting. J Emerg Med. 2000;18(2):199-202.

7. Lu KC, Hsu YJ, Chiu JS, Hsu YD, Lin SH. Effects of potassium supplementation on the recovery of thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. Am J Emerg Med. 2004;22(7):544-547.

8. Tassone H, Moulin A, Henderson SO. The pitfalls of potassium replacement in thyrotoxic periodic paralysis: a case report and review of the literature. J Emerg Med. 2004;26(2):157-161. doi:10.1016/j.jemermed.2003.05.004.

Article PDF
Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Publications
Topics
Page Number
325-328
Sections
Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Article PDF
Article PDF
A young man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presented for evaluation of severe bilateral weakness in the upper and lower extremities.
A young man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presented for evaluation of severe bilateral weakness in the upper and lower extremities.

Case

An Asian man in his third decade, with a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and who had recently been involved in a motor vehicle collision (MVC), presented to the ED with a chief complaint of severe bilateral upper and lower extremity weakness. The patient noted that the weakness had begun the previous evening and became progressively worse throughout the night, to the point that he was unable to move any of his extremities on the morning of presentation.

Upon arrival at the ED, the patient was awake, alert, and oriented to self, time, and place; he also spoke in full sentences without distress. He denied fever, chills, difficulty breathing, or preceding viral illness. The patient stated that he was not taking any medications and denied a history of alcohol, tobacco, or drug abuse.

Initial vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 141/50 mm Hg; heart rate, 90 beats/min; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.4°F. Oxygen saturation was 100% on room air. On physical examination, the patient was in no acute distress and had a normal mental status. His pupils were normally reactive and his other cranial nerves were normal. Muscle strength in the upper and lower extremities was 1/5 with 1+ reflexes bilaterally, and there was no sensory deficit. The patient was placed on continuous cardiac monitoring with pulse oximetry.

What is the differential diagnosis for acute extremity weakness or paralysis?

The differential diagnosis for acute symmetrical extremity weakness or paralysis is broad and includes conditions of neurological, inflammatory, and toxic/metabolic etiologies.1 Neurological diagnoses to consider include acute stroke, specifically of the anterior cerebral or middle cerebral artery territories; Guillain-Barré syndrome; myasthenia gravis; spinal cord compression; and tick paralysis. Acute ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke most frequently presents with unilateral upper or lower extremity weakness accompanied by garbled speech and sensory deficits. Patients who have suffered a brainstem or cerebellar stroke commonly present with alterations of consciousness, visual changes, and ataxia. Posterior circulation strokes are also characterized by crossed neurological deficits, such as motor deficits on one side of the body and sensory deficits on the other.

Spinal Cord Pathology. Signs and symptoms of spinal cord compression or inflammation vary widely depending on the level affected. Motor and sensory findings of spinal cord pathology include muscle weakness, spasticity, hyper- or hyporeflexia, and a discrete level below which sensation is absent or reduced.

Guillain-Barré Syndrome. Patients who have Guillain-Barré syndrome (a disease of the myelin sheaths of the peripheral nerves) often present with complaints of numbness or paresthesias in the extremities.2 The condition is characterized by progressive symmetric muscle weakness accompanied by absent or depressed deep tendon reflexes and is typically associated with a recent exposure to an infectious agent such as a viral upper respiratory infection, bacterial infection, or vaccine.

Myasthenia Gravis. Myasthenia gravis is a disease of the neuromuscular junction. It presents with weakness in any muscle group, and the muscles are easily fatigued by repetitive use.

Toxic Exposures. Toxins, such as botulinum, ixovotoxin, nicotine, succinylcholine, and tetrodotoxin, are prominent, though less common, causes of muscular weakness or paralysis. Botulinum toxin acts at the neuromuscular junction. Patients with botulism typically present with a gastrointestinal prodrome of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea followed by cranial nerve dysfunction and descending muscle weakness.3

Tetrodotoxin, nicotine, and curare-like paralytics act at the motor end plate of the neuromuscular junction to produce neuromuscular blockade with subsequent muscular weakness or paralysis. Similarly, ixovotoxin, the toxin responsible for tick paralysis, causes ascending flaccid paralysis by decreasing the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.3

Metabolic and Endocrine Disorders. Conditions such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and periodic paralysis can also present with neurological complaints such as generalized weakness and paresthesias. Of note, it is important to differentiate true neuromuscular weakness from weakness secondary to limited effort.

Case Continuation

Because of the patient’s history of an MVC, cervical cord compression was considered concerning enough to require exclusion through magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spine. However, upon arrival at the MRI suite, the patient became severely tachypneic and tachycardic, and was unable to tolerate lying flat. He was intubated for impending respiratory failure. Laboratory results from blood drawn prior to transport to MRI were reported immediately after the resuscitation and were notable for the following: potassium, <1.5 mEq/L; bicarbonate, 20 mEq/L; creatine kinase, 889 U/L; ethanol, not detected.

 

 

What is hypokalemic periodic paralysis?

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis (HypoKPP) is a syndrome of episodic muscle weakness with concomitant hypokalemia. Familial forms of HypoKPP have been attributed to mutations in genes coding for either calcium or sodium channels.

The nonfamilial form of HypoKPP is attributed to hyperthyroidism and is most often seen in Asian men in the second and third decades of life. The disorder is characterized by acute onset hypokalemia and extremity paralysis with simultaneous hyperthyroid state. It is believed that hypokalemia occurs as a result of intracellular shift of potassium from thyroid-induced hormone sensitization of the Na+/K+-ATPase rather than a depletion of total body potassium. Acute episodes of paralysis are triggered by high-carbohydrate meals, alcohol consumption, emotional stress, and infection. Paralysis can last from 3 to 96 hours and is accompanied by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes with normal sensation and mental status.

In the nonfamilial form of HypoKPP, signs of thyrotoxicosis are often present and include tachycardia, moist skin, and hyperthermia, but it may be difficult to specifically recognize this etiology given the patient’s grave clinical condition.4 Similar to many significant metabolic and electrolyte disturbances, complications of HypoKPP include dysrhythmia, respiratory failure, and sometimes death.5

How should HypoKPP be managed in the ED?

Management of HypoKPP begins with careful assessment of the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation. Once the patient is stabilized, management of consequential effects of hypokalemia, such as respiratory distress and muscular paralysis, should focus on correcting the electrolyte and endocrine derangements.

Propranolol. If the patient exhibits signs of thyrotoxicosis, initial treatment includes propranolol, a nonselective beta-blocker, which both prevents the intracellular shift of potassium and assists in correcting the underlying hyperthyroid and hypermetabolic state. Although there is no standard propranolol dosing protocol for HypoKPP, some authors suggest that an aggressive dose of 2 mg intravenously (IV) every 10 minutes can shorten the patient’s episode of paralysis to 6 hours.6

Potassium Chloride. Administration of potassium chloride to raise the serum potassium to life-sustaining concentrations should be done cautiously through IV infusion of standard doses.7 In correcting hypokalemia with potassium, care should be taken to avoid overcorrection, which may subsequently result in rebound hyperkalemia as the total body potassium redistributes. Lower doses of potassium (ie, <50 mEq per dose), are preferred to achieve adequate repletion while avoiding rebound hyperkalemia.8

Case Conclusion

The results of thyroid studies that had been added on to the original set of laboratory studies revealed profound hyperthyroidism, with an essentially absent concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone.

Case

An Asian man in his third decade, with a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and who had recently been involved in a motor vehicle collision (MVC), presented to the ED with a chief complaint of severe bilateral upper and lower extremity weakness. The patient noted that the weakness had begun the previous evening and became progressively worse throughout the night, to the point that he was unable to move any of his extremities on the morning of presentation.

Upon arrival at the ED, the patient was awake, alert, and oriented to self, time, and place; he also spoke in full sentences without distress. He denied fever, chills, difficulty breathing, or preceding viral illness. The patient stated that he was not taking any medications and denied a history of alcohol, tobacco, or drug abuse.

Initial vital signs at presentation were: blood pressure, 141/50 mm Hg; heart rate, 90 beats/min; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.4°F. Oxygen saturation was 100% on room air. On physical examination, the patient was in no acute distress and had a normal mental status. His pupils were normally reactive and his other cranial nerves were normal. Muscle strength in the upper and lower extremities was 1/5 with 1+ reflexes bilaterally, and there was no sensory deficit. The patient was placed on continuous cardiac monitoring with pulse oximetry.

What is the differential diagnosis for acute extremity weakness or paralysis?

The differential diagnosis for acute symmetrical extremity weakness or paralysis is broad and includes conditions of neurological, inflammatory, and toxic/metabolic etiologies.1 Neurological diagnoses to consider include acute stroke, specifically of the anterior cerebral or middle cerebral artery territories; Guillain-Barré syndrome; myasthenia gravis; spinal cord compression; and tick paralysis. Acute ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke most frequently presents with unilateral upper or lower extremity weakness accompanied by garbled speech and sensory deficits. Patients who have suffered a brainstem or cerebellar stroke commonly present with alterations of consciousness, visual changes, and ataxia. Posterior circulation strokes are also characterized by crossed neurological deficits, such as motor deficits on one side of the body and sensory deficits on the other.

Spinal Cord Pathology. Signs and symptoms of spinal cord compression or inflammation vary widely depending on the level affected. Motor and sensory findings of spinal cord pathology include muscle weakness, spasticity, hyper- or hyporeflexia, and a discrete level below which sensation is absent or reduced.

Guillain-Barré Syndrome. Patients who have Guillain-Barré syndrome (a disease of the myelin sheaths of the peripheral nerves) often present with complaints of numbness or paresthesias in the extremities.2 The condition is characterized by progressive symmetric muscle weakness accompanied by absent or depressed deep tendon reflexes and is typically associated with a recent exposure to an infectious agent such as a viral upper respiratory infection, bacterial infection, or vaccine.

Myasthenia Gravis. Myasthenia gravis is a disease of the neuromuscular junction. It presents with weakness in any muscle group, and the muscles are easily fatigued by repetitive use.

Toxic Exposures. Toxins, such as botulinum, ixovotoxin, nicotine, succinylcholine, and tetrodotoxin, are prominent, though less common, causes of muscular weakness or paralysis. Botulinum toxin acts at the neuromuscular junction. Patients with botulism typically present with a gastrointestinal prodrome of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea followed by cranial nerve dysfunction and descending muscle weakness.3

Tetrodotoxin, nicotine, and curare-like paralytics act at the motor end plate of the neuromuscular junction to produce neuromuscular blockade with subsequent muscular weakness or paralysis. Similarly, ixovotoxin, the toxin responsible for tick paralysis, causes ascending flaccid paralysis by decreasing the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.3

Metabolic and Endocrine Disorders. Conditions such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and periodic paralysis can also present with neurological complaints such as generalized weakness and paresthesias. Of note, it is important to differentiate true neuromuscular weakness from weakness secondary to limited effort.

Case Continuation

Because of the patient’s history of an MVC, cervical cord compression was considered concerning enough to require exclusion through magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spine. However, upon arrival at the MRI suite, the patient became severely tachypneic and tachycardic, and was unable to tolerate lying flat. He was intubated for impending respiratory failure. Laboratory results from blood drawn prior to transport to MRI were reported immediately after the resuscitation and were notable for the following: potassium, <1.5 mEq/L; bicarbonate, 20 mEq/L; creatine kinase, 889 U/L; ethanol, not detected.

 

 

What is hypokalemic periodic paralysis?

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis (HypoKPP) is a syndrome of episodic muscle weakness with concomitant hypokalemia. Familial forms of HypoKPP have been attributed to mutations in genes coding for either calcium or sodium channels.

The nonfamilial form of HypoKPP is attributed to hyperthyroidism and is most often seen in Asian men in the second and third decades of life. The disorder is characterized by acute onset hypokalemia and extremity paralysis with simultaneous hyperthyroid state. It is believed that hypokalemia occurs as a result of intracellular shift of potassium from thyroid-induced hormone sensitization of the Na+/K+-ATPase rather than a depletion of total body potassium. Acute episodes of paralysis are triggered by high-carbohydrate meals, alcohol consumption, emotional stress, and infection. Paralysis can last from 3 to 96 hours and is accompanied by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes with normal sensation and mental status.

In the nonfamilial form of HypoKPP, signs of thyrotoxicosis are often present and include tachycardia, moist skin, and hyperthermia, but it may be difficult to specifically recognize this etiology given the patient’s grave clinical condition.4 Similar to many significant metabolic and electrolyte disturbances, complications of HypoKPP include dysrhythmia, respiratory failure, and sometimes death.5

How should HypoKPP be managed in the ED?

Management of HypoKPP begins with careful assessment of the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation. Once the patient is stabilized, management of consequential effects of hypokalemia, such as respiratory distress and muscular paralysis, should focus on correcting the electrolyte and endocrine derangements.

Propranolol. If the patient exhibits signs of thyrotoxicosis, initial treatment includes propranolol, a nonselective beta-blocker, which both prevents the intracellular shift of potassium and assists in correcting the underlying hyperthyroid and hypermetabolic state. Although there is no standard propranolol dosing protocol for HypoKPP, some authors suggest that an aggressive dose of 2 mg intravenously (IV) every 10 minutes can shorten the patient’s episode of paralysis to 6 hours.6

Potassium Chloride. Administration of potassium chloride to raise the serum potassium to life-sustaining concentrations should be done cautiously through IV infusion of standard doses.7 In correcting hypokalemia with potassium, care should be taken to avoid overcorrection, which may subsequently result in rebound hyperkalemia as the total body potassium redistributes. Lower doses of potassium (ie, <50 mEq per dose), are preferred to achieve adequate repletion while avoiding rebound hyperkalemia.8

Case Conclusion

The results of thyroid studies that had been added on to the original set of laboratory studies revealed profound hyperthyroidism, with an essentially absent concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone.

References

1. Morchi RS. Weakness. In: Rosen P, ed. Rosen’s Emergency Medicine. 8th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier; 2014:124-128.

2. McGillicuddy DC, Walker O, Shapiro NI, Edlow JA. Guillain-Barré syndrome in the emergency department. Ann Emerg Med. 2006;47(4):390-393. doi:10.1016/j.annemergmed.2005.05.008.

3. Rao RB. Neurological principles. In: Hoffman RS, Howland MA, Lewin NA, Nelson LS, Goldfrank LR, eds. Goldfrank’s Toxicologic Emergencies. 10th ed. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill; 2015:315-323.

4. Lam L, Nair RJ, Tingle L. Thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. Proc (Bayl Univ Med Cent). 2006;19(2):126-129.

5. Li X, Yao S, Xiang Y, et al. The clinical and genetic features in a cohort of mainland Chinese patients with thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. BMC Neurol. 2015;15:38. doi:10.1186/s12883-015-0290-8.

6. Birkhahn RH, Gaeta TJ, Melniker L. Thyrotoxic periodic paralysis and intravenous propranolol in the emergency setting. J Emerg Med. 2000;18(2):199-202.

7. Lu KC, Hsu YJ, Chiu JS, Hsu YD, Lin SH. Effects of potassium supplementation on the recovery of thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. Am J Emerg Med. 2004;22(7):544-547.

8. Tassone H, Moulin A, Henderson SO. The pitfalls of potassium replacement in thyrotoxic periodic paralysis: a case report and review of the literature. J Emerg Med. 2004;26(2):157-161. doi:10.1016/j.jemermed.2003.05.004.

References

1. Morchi RS. Weakness. In: Rosen P, ed. Rosen’s Emergency Medicine. 8th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier; 2014:124-128.

2. McGillicuddy DC, Walker O, Shapiro NI, Edlow JA. Guillain-Barré syndrome in the emergency department. Ann Emerg Med. 2006;47(4):390-393. doi:10.1016/j.annemergmed.2005.05.008.

3. Rao RB. Neurological principles. In: Hoffman RS, Howland MA, Lewin NA, Nelson LS, Goldfrank LR, eds. Goldfrank’s Toxicologic Emergencies. 10th ed. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill; 2015:315-323.

4. Lam L, Nair RJ, Tingle L. Thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. Proc (Bayl Univ Med Cent). 2006;19(2):126-129.

5. Li X, Yao S, Xiang Y, et al. The clinical and genetic features in a cohort of mainland Chinese patients with thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. BMC Neurol. 2015;15:38. doi:10.1186/s12883-015-0290-8.

6. Birkhahn RH, Gaeta TJ, Melniker L. Thyrotoxic periodic paralysis and intravenous propranolol in the emergency setting. J Emerg Med. 2000;18(2):199-202.

7. Lu KC, Hsu YJ, Chiu JS, Hsu YD, Lin SH. Effects of potassium supplementation on the recovery of thyrotoxic periodic paralysis. Am J Emerg Med. 2004;22(7):544-547.

8. Tassone H, Moulin A, Henderson SO. The pitfalls of potassium replacement in thyrotoxic periodic paralysis: a case report and review of the literature. J Emerg Med. 2004;26(2):157-161. doi:10.1016/j.jemermed.2003.05.004.

Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Page Number
325-328
Page Number
325-328
Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Display Headline
Case Studies in Toxicology: An Unlikely Cause of Paralysis
Display Headline
Case Studies in Toxicology: An Unlikely Cause of Paralysis
Sections
Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Disqus Comments
Default
Use ProPublica
Article PDF Media

Do sleep interventions prevent atrial fibrillation?

Article Type
Changed

 

– If patients have sleep disordered breathing with obstructive sleep apnea, will its treatment have cardiovascular disease benefits, especially in terms of the incidence or severity of atrial fibrillation?

Observational evidence suggests that apnea interventions may help these patients, but no clear case yet exists to prove that a breathing intervention works, experts say, and, as a result, U.S. practice is mixed when it comes to using treatment for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), specifically continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), to prevent or treat atrial fibrillation.

Dr. Reena Mehra
Results from several retrospective studies all show that, in patients with atrial fibrillation who undergo cardioversion or ablation, those who also have OSA and are treated for their OSA are less likely to have recurrent atrial fibrillation than are patients who are not treated for their OSA. “This has been shown consistently,” with relative risks reduced two- to fourfold in atrial fibrillation patients treated with CPAP, compared with similar, untreated patients, Reena Mehra, MD, a pulmonologist and director of sleep disorders research at the Cleveland Clinic, said in an interview during an international conference of the American Thoracic Society.

Dr. Olaf Oldenburg
“The success of pulmonary vein isolation [for resolving atrial fibrillation] is highly influenced by OSA. You can improve the success of pulmonary vein isolation if you treat OSA patients with CPAP. That’s an established benefit,” agreed Olaf Oldenburg, MD, a cardiologist and sleep disorders physician at the Heart and Diabetes Center of Ruhr University in Bad Oeynhausen, Germany. Dr. Oldenburg also agreed that the application of this approach in routine practice has been very spotty.

“Only a very small number of patients with atrial fibrillation undergo a sleep study,” he said in an interview. “Before I’d send my mother for atrial fibrillation ablation, I would first look for sleep disordered breathing [SDB],” but this generally isn’t happening routinely. Patients with other types of cardiovascular disease who could potentially benefit from sleep disordered breathing diagnosis and treatment are those with hypertension, especially patients who don’t fully respond to three or more antihypertensive drugs and patients with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, he added.

Dr. Oldenburg also echoed Dr. Mehra in saying that the evidence supporting this approach for managing atrial fibrillation is less than conclusive.

“We need more precise phenotyping of patients” to better focus on patients with cardiovascular disease and sleep disordered breathing who clearly benefit from CPAP intervention, he said.

Results from the Sleep Apnea Cardiovascular Endpoints (SAVE) trial, reported in September 2016, especially tarnished the notion that treating sleep disordered breathing in patients with various cardiovascular diseases can help avoid future cardiovascular events. The multicenter trial enrolled 2,717 adults with moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea and cardiovascular disease to receive either CPAP plus optimal routine care or optimal routine care only. After an average follow-up of close to 4 years, the patients treated with CPAP showed no benefit in terms of reduced cardiovascular events (N Engl J Med. 2016 Sept 8;375[10]:919-31).

An editorial that ran with this report suggested that the neutral outcome may have occurred because the average nightly duration of CPAP that patients in the trial self administered was just over 3 hours, arguably an inadequate dose. Other possible reasons for the lack of benefit include the time during their sleep cycle when patients administered CPAP (at the start of sleep rather than later) and that CPAP may have a reduced ability to avert new cardiovascular events in patients with established cardiovascular disease (N Engl J Med. 2016 Sept 8;375[8]:994-6).

Regardless of the reasons, the SAVE results, coupled with the neutral results and suggestion of harm from using adaptive servo-ventilation in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and central sleep apnea in the SERVE-HF trial (N Engl J Med. 2015 Sept 17;373[12]:1095-105), have thrust the management of SDB in patients with cardiovascular disease back to the point where SDB interventions have no well-proven indications for cardiovascular disease patients.

“With the SERVE-HF and SAVE trials not showing benefit, we now have equipoise” for using or not using SDB interventions in these patients, Dr. Mehra said. “It’s not clear that treating OSA improves outcomes. That allows us to randomize patients to a control placebo arm” in future trials.

An important issue in the failure to clearly establish a role for treating OSA in patients with atrial fibrillation or other cardiovascular diseases may have been over reliance on the apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) as the arbiter of OSA severity, Dr. Oldenburg said. “Maybe there are parameters to look at aside from AHI, perhaps hypoxemia burden or desaturation time. AHI is not the whole truth; we need to look at other parameters. AHI may not be the correct metric to look at in patients with various cardiovascular diseases.”

Dr. Tetyana Kendzerska
The superiority of other measures for gauging SDB severity was reinforced by new results reported at the meeting. A review of more than 8,000 patients who were free from any heart arrhythmia and who underwent a sleep study at the University of Toronto during 1994-2010 identified 173 who subsequently developed atrial fibrillation. Analysis of the sleep study findings showed that no cut point for AHI, even a rate of more than 30 sleep disruptions an hour, was significantly linked with later onset of atrial fibrillation, reported Tetyana Kendzerska, MD, a sleep researcher at the the Ottawa Hospital Research Institute. However, when evaluated by the amount of time that patients spent asleep with an oxygen saturation level of less than 90%, those with this level of hypoxemia during at least 30% of their sleep had a 2.5-fold higher rate of later hospitalization for atrial fibrillation, compared with the patients with a lesser burden of nocturnal hypoxemia, in a model that adjusted for several baseline demographic and clinical differences, Dr. Kendzerska said. Among the 8,256 patients she reviewed, 6% fell into this group, with meaningful oxygen desaturation during more than 30% of their time asleep.

Her analysis also showed that patients with at least 10 minutes of sleep time with an oxygen saturation rate of 90% or less had a 64% increased rate of later atrial fibrillation hospitalizations, compared with those with fewer than 10 minutes spent in this state. Nearly a quarter of the patients studied fell into this category.

“Nocturnal oxygen desaturation may be stronger than AHI for predicting atrial fibrillation development,” Dr. Kendzerska concluded. “The severity of OSA-related intermittent hypoxia may be more important than sleep fragmentation in the development of atrial fibrillation. These findings support a relationship between OSA, chronic nocturnal hypoxemia, and new onset atrial fibrillation.”

However, using oxygen desaturation instead of AHI to gauge the severity of OSA won’t solve all the challenges that sleep researchers currently face in trying to determine the efficacy of breathing interventions to prevent or treat cardiovascular disease. In the neutral SAVE trial, researchers used nocturnal oxygen saturation levels to select patients with clinically meaningful OSA.

Dr. Mehra and Dr. Kendzerska had no disclosures. Dr. Oldenburg has received consultant fees, honoraria, and/or research support from ResMed, Respicardia, and Weinmann.
 

 

Meeting/Event
Publications
Topics
Sections
Meeting/Event
Meeting/Event
Related Articles

 

– If patients have sleep disordered breathing with obstructive sleep apnea, will its treatment have cardiovascular disease benefits, especially in terms of the incidence or severity of atrial fibrillation?

Observational evidence suggests that apnea interventions may help these patients, but no clear case yet exists to prove that a breathing intervention works, experts say, and, as a result, U.S. practice is mixed when it comes to using treatment for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), specifically continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), to prevent or treat atrial fibrillation.

Dr. Reena Mehra
Results from several retrospective studies all show that, in patients with atrial fibrillation who undergo cardioversion or ablation, those who also have OSA and are treated for their OSA are less likely to have recurrent atrial fibrillation than are patients who are not treated for their OSA. “This has been shown consistently,” with relative risks reduced two- to fourfold in atrial fibrillation patients treated with CPAP, compared with similar, untreated patients, Reena Mehra, MD, a pulmonologist and director of sleep disorders research at the Cleveland Clinic, said in an interview during an international conference of the American Thoracic Society.

Dr. Olaf Oldenburg
“The success of pulmonary vein isolation [for resolving atrial fibrillation] is highly influenced by OSA. You can improve the success of pulmonary vein isolation if you treat OSA patients with CPAP. That’s an established benefit,” agreed Olaf Oldenburg, MD, a cardiologist and sleep disorders physician at the Heart and Diabetes Center of Ruhr University in Bad Oeynhausen, Germany. Dr. Oldenburg also agreed that the application of this approach in routine practice has been very spotty.

“Only a very small number of patients with atrial fibrillation undergo a sleep study,” he said in an interview. “Before I’d send my mother for atrial fibrillation ablation, I would first look for sleep disordered breathing [SDB],” but this generally isn’t happening routinely. Patients with other types of cardiovascular disease who could potentially benefit from sleep disordered breathing diagnosis and treatment are those with hypertension, especially patients who don’t fully respond to three or more antihypertensive drugs and patients with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, he added.

Dr. Oldenburg also echoed Dr. Mehra in saying that the evidence supporting this approach for managing atrial fibrillation is less than conclusive.

“We need more precise phenotyping of patients” to better focus on patients with cardiovascular disease and sleep disordered breathing who clearly benefit from CPAP intervention, he said.

Results from the Sleep Apnea Cardiovascular Endpoints (SAVE) trial, reported in September 2016, especially tarnished the notion that treating sleep disordered breathing in patients with various cardiovascular diseases can help avoid future cardiovascular events. The multicenter trial enrolled 2,717 adults with moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea and cardiovascular disease to receive either CPAP plus optimal routine care or optimal routine care only. After an average follow-up of close to 4 years, the patients treated with CPAP showed no benefit in terms of reduced cardiovascular events (N Engl J Med. 2016 Sept 8;375[10]:919-31).

An editorial that ran with this report suggested that the neutral outcome may have occurred because the average nightly duration of CPAP that patients in the trial self administered was just over 3 hours, arguably an inadequate dose. Other possible reasons for the lack of benefit include the time during their sleep cycle when patients administered CPAP (at the start of sleep rather than later) and that CPAP may have a reduced ability to avert new cardiovascular events in patients with established cardiovascular disease (N Engl J Med. 2016 Sept 8;375[8]:994-6).

Regardless of the reasons, the SAVE results, coupled with the neutral results and suggestion of harm from using adaptive servo-ventilation in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and central sleep apnea in the SERVE-HF trial (N Engl J Med. 2015 Sept 17;373[12]:1095-105), have thrust the management of SDB in patients with cardiovascular disease back to the point where SDB interventions have no well-proven indications for cardiovascular disease patients.

“With the SERVE-HF and SAVE trials not showing benefit, we now have equipoise” for using or not using SDB interventions in these patients, Dr. Mehra said. “It’s not clear that treating OSA improves outcomes. That allows us to randomize patients to a control placebo arm” in future trials.

An important issue in the failure to clearly establish a role for treating OSA in patients with atrial fibrillation or other cardiovascular diseases may have been over reliance on the apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) as the arbiter of OSA severity, Dr. Oldenburg said. “Maybe there are parameters to look at aside from AHI, perhaps hypoxemia burden or desaturation time. AHI is not the whole truth; we need to look at other parameters. AHI may not be the correct metric to look at in patients with various cardiovascular diseases.”

Dr. Tetyana Kendzerska
The superiority of other measures for gauging SDB severity was reinforced by new results reported at the meeting. A review of more than 8,000 patients who were free from any heart arrhythmia and who underwent a sleep study at the University of Toronto during 1994-2010 identified 173 who subsequently developed atrial fibrillation. Analysis of the sleep study findings showed that no cut point for AHI, even a rate of more than 30 sleep disruptions an hour, was significantly linked with later onset of atrial fibrillation, reported Tetyana Kendzerska, MD, a sleep researcher at the the Ottawa Hospital Research Institute. However, when evaluated by the amount of time that patients spent asleep with an oxygen saturation level of less than 90%, those with this level of hypoxemia during at least 30% of their sleep had a 2.5-fold higher rate of later hospitalization for atrial fibrillation, compared with the patients with a lesser burden of nocturnal hypoxemia, in a model that adjusted for several baseline demographic and clinical differences, Dr. Kendzerska said. Among the 8,256 patients she reviewed, 6% fell into this group, with meaningful oxygen desaturation during more than 30% of their time asleep.

Her analysis also showed that patients with at least 10 minutes of sleep time with an oxygen saturation rate of 90% or less had a 64% increased rate of later atrial fibrillation hospitalizations, compared with those with fewer than 10 minutes spent in this state. Nearly a quarter of the patients studied fell into this category.

“Nocturnal oxygen desaturation may be stronger than AHI for predicting atrial fibrillation development,” Dr. Kendzerska concluded. “The severity of OSA-related intermittent hypoxia may be more important than sleep fragmentation in the development of atrial fibrillation. These findings support a relationship between OSA, chronic nocturnal hypoxemia, and new onset atrial fibrillation.”

However, using oxygen desaturation instead of AHI to gauge the severity of OSA won’t solve all the challenges that sleep researchers currently face in trying to determine the efficacy of breathing interventions to prevent or treat cardiovascular disease. In the neutral SAVE trial, researchers used nocturnal oxygen saturation levels to select patients with clinically meaningful OSA.

Dr. Mehra and Dr. Kendzerska had no disclosures. Dr. Oldenburg has received consultant fees, honoraria, and/or research support from ResMed, Respicardia, and Weinmann.
 

 

 

– If patients have sleep disordered breathing with obstructive sleep apnea, will its treatment have cardiovascular disease benefits, especially in terms of the incidence or severity of atrial fibrillation?

Observational evidence suggests that apnea interventions may help these patients, but no clear case yet exists to prove that a breathing intervention works, experts say, and, as a result, U.S. practice is mixed when it comes to using treatment for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), specifically continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), to prevent or treat atrial fibrillation.

Dr. Reena Mehra
Results from several retrospective studies all show that, in patients with atrial fibrillation who undergo cardioversion or ablation, those who also have OSA and are treated for their OSA are less likely to have recurrent atrial fibrillation than are patients who are not treated for their OSA. “This has been shown consistently,” with relative risks reduced two- to fourfold in atrial fibrillation patients treated with CPAP, compared with similar, untreated patients, Reena Mehra, MD, a pulmonologist and director of sleep disorders research at the Cleveland Clinic, said in an interview during an international conference of the American Thoracic Society.

Dr. Olaf Oldenburg
“The success of pulmonary vein isolation [for resolving atrial fibrillation] is highly influenced by OSA. You can improve the success of pulmonary vein isolation if you treat OSA patients with CPAP. That’s an established benefit,” agreed Olaf Oldenburg, MD, a cardiologist and sleep disorders physician at the Heart and Diabetes Center of Ruhr University in Bad Oeynhausen, Germany. Dr. Oldenburg also agreed that the application of this approach in routine practice has been very spotty.

“Only a very small number of patients with atrial fibrillation undergo a sleep study,” he said in an interview. “Before I’d send my mother for atrial fibrillation ablation, I would first look for sleep disordered breathing [SDB],” but this generally isn’t happening routinely. Patients with other types of cardiovascular disease who could potentially benefit from sleep disordered breathing diagnosis and treatment are those with hypertension, especially patients who don’t fully respond to three or more antihypertensive drugs and patients with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, he added.

Dr. Oldenburg also echoed Dr. Mehra in saying that the evidence supporting this approach for managing atrial fibrillation is less than conclusive.

“We need more precise phenotyping of patients” to better focus on patients with cardiovascular disease and sleep disordered breathing who clearly benefit from CPAP intervention, he said.

Results from the Sleep Apnea Cardiovascular Endpoints (SAVE) trial, reported in September 2016, especially tarnished the notion that treating sleep disordered breathing in patients with various cardiovascular diseases can help avoid future cardiovascular events. The multicenter trial enrolled 2,717 adults with moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea and cardiovascular disease to receive either CPAP plus optimal routine care or optimal routine care only. After an average follow-up of close to 4 years, the patients treated with CPAP showed no benefit in terms of reduced cardiovascular events (N Engl J Med. 2016 Sept 8;375[10]:919-31).

An editorial that ran with this report suggested that the neutral outcome may have occurred because the average nightly duration of CPAP that patients in the trial self administered was just over 3 hours, arguably an inadequate dose. Other possible reasons for the lack of benefit include the time during their sleep cycle when patients administered CPAP (at the start of sleep rather than later) and that CPAP may have a reduced ability to avert new cardiovascular events in patients with established cardiovascular disease (N Engl J Med. 2016 Sept 8;375[8]:994-6).

Regardless of the reasons, the SAVE results, coupled with the neutral results and suggestion of harm from using adaptive servo-ventilation in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and central sleep apnea in the SERVE-HF trial (N Engl J Med. 2015 Sept 17;373[12]:1095-105), have thrust the management of SDB in patients with cardiovascular disease back to the point where SDB interventions have no well-proven indications for cardiovascular disease patients.

“With the SERVE-HF and SAVE trials not showing benefit, we now have equipoise” for using or not using SDB interventions in these patients, Dr. Mehra said. “It’s not clear that treating OSA improves outcomes. That allows us to randomize patients to a control placebo arm” in future trials.

An important issue in the failure to clearly establish a role for treating OSA in patients with atrial fibrillation or other cardiovascular diseases may have been over reliance on the apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) as the arbiter of OSA severity, Dr. Oldenburg said. “Maybe there are parameters to look at aside from AHI, perhaps hypoxemia burden or desaturation time. AHI is not the whole truth; we need to look at other parameters. AHI may not be the correct metric to look at in patients with various cardiovascular diseases.”

Dr. Tetyana Kendzerska
The superiority of other measures for gauging SDB severity was reinforced by new results reported at the meeting. A review of more than 8,000 patients who were free from any heart arrhythmia and who underwent a sleep study at the University of Toronto during 1994-2010 identified 173 who subsequently developed atrial fibrillation. Analysis of the sleep study findings showed that no cut point for AHI, even a rate of more than 30 sleep disruptions an hour, was significantly linked with later onset of atrial fibrillation, reported Tetyana Kendzerska, MD, a sleep researcher at the the Ottawa Hospital Research Institute. However, when evaluated by the amount of time that patients spent asleep with an oxygen saturation level of less than 90%, those with this level of hypoxemia during at least 30% of their sleep had a 2.5-fold higher rate of later hospitalization for atrial fibrillation, compared with the patients with a lesser burden of nocturnal hypoxemia, in a model that adjusted for several baseline demographic and clinical differences, Dr. Kendzerska said. Among the 8,256 patients she reviewed, 6% fell into this group, with meaningful oxygen desaturation during more than 30% of their time asleep.

Her analysis also showed that patients with at least 10 minutes of sleep time with an oxygen saturation rate of 90% or less had a 64% increased rate of later atrial fibrillation hospitalizations, compared with those with fewer than 10 minutes spent in this state. Nearly a quarter of the patients studied fell into this category.

“Nocturnal oxygen desaturation may be stronger than AHI for predicting atrial fibrillation development,” Dr. Kendzerska concluded. “The severity of OSA-related intermittent hypoxia may be more important than sleep fragmentation in the development of atrial fibrillation. These findings support a relationship between OSA, chronic nocturnal hypoxemia, and new onset atrial fibrillation.”

However, using oxygen desaturation instead of AHI to gauge the severity of OSA won’t solve all the challenges that sleep researchers currently face in trying to determine the efficacy of breathing interventions to prevent or treat cardiovascular disease. In the neutral SAVE trial, researchers used nocturnal oxygen saturation levels to select patients with clinically meaningful OSA.

Dr. Mehra and Dr. Kendzerska had no disclosures. Dr. Oldenburg has received consultant fees, honoraria, and/or research support from ResMed, Respicardia, and Weinmann.
 

 

Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Click for Credit Status
Ready
Sections
Article Source

EXPERT ANALYSIS FROM ATS 2017

Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Disqus Comments
Default

Vascular Injury Following a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand

Article Type
Changed
Display Headline
Vascular Injury Following a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand
A 46-year-old man presented for evaluation of an injury to his left elbow after a fall.

A 46-year-old man with a remote history of general tonic-clonic seizures, for which he was taking phenytoin, presented to the ED 30 minutes after sustaining a witnessed mechanical fall. The patient had fallen onto his nondominant left hand, which resulted in an injury to his elbow. He reported neither losing consciousness nor experiencing any seizures following the incident. He denied dislocating the joint or sustaining any other injuries from the fall. He also denied a history of past left elbow injury.

The patient was alert, oriented, and provided a full history of the incident. Regarding medical history, he stated that his last seizure had occurred 10 years prior. Except for the left elbow pain, a review of his systems was negative. The patient appeared in no acute distress, and supported his left upper extremity with a bandana and his right hand.

The patient’s vital signs were normal. The physical examination was negative except for the left elbow, which had significant swelling and limited range of motion without skin break, leading to suspicion for a prehospital dislocation with self-reduction. The joints above, below, and at the injury site were assessed for neurovascular injury.

Figure 1.
The neurological examination was normal; however, the vascular examination was abnormal for a nonpalpable left brachial pulse and a weak radial pulse, which was only detected by bedside Doppler. A radiograph of the left upper extremity revealed a small avulsion of the medial condyle and significant soft tissue swelling (Figure 1).

Computed tomography angiography of the left upper extremity showed a brachial artery occlusion above the elbow, with reconstitution below the joint (Figure 2).
Figure 2.
Vascular surgery services was immediately contacted, and the patient was taken to the operating room for exploration and repair of the injured vessel. Orthopedic services was also consulted, and the orthopedic surgeon on call stabilized the joint after vascular repair. During surgery, the patient was found to have transected the brachial artery, brachial vein, and basilic vein. The veins were ligated, and the brachial artery was repaired using a saphenous vein graft from the left thigh. The patient did well postoperatively and was discharged the next day with full neurovascular function.

Discussion

There is a paucity of information on vascular injury from elbow dislocation in the emergency medicine literature. A recent literature search referenced orthopedic pitfalls in the ED,1 but most data appear in the orthopedic and vascular literature. A case report from the orthopedic literature in Brazil cites a vascular injury after ED relocation of a dislocated elbow following an assault.2

The elbow is the second most commonly dislocated joint (not including the patella) after the shoulder.3 Posterior dislocations make up the majority of these injuries. Simple versus complex injuries can be differentiated by the presence or absence of fracture.4 Simple complications include stiffness; loss of mobility, especially with full extension; neurovascular injuries; and compartment syndrome. Complex injuries involve fractures and potential neurovascular injuries, stiffness, pain, and loss of mobility.

Soft tissue injuries, fractures, and neurovascular complaints represent the majority of ED encounters, and are commonly related to falls. The elbow is the articulation of the humerus, ulna, and radius bones. Range of motion includes, but is not limited to, flexion, extension, supination, and pronation. Tears in the lateral ulnar ligament, joint capsule, and medial collateral ligament lead to instability of the joint and increase risk of dislocation.

Fractures make up to 20% of injuries to the elbow. These include fractures of the radial head and neck (most common), olecranon, and distal humerus.5 Open elbow fractures are rare, as are vascular injuries (5%-13% of cases).6 When present, vascular elbow injuries usually involve the brachial artery, and display abnormal palpable and Doppler assessment of the brachial and radial arteries.6

Nerve injuries may include injury to the radial nerve. Manifestations of radial nerve injury include abnormal sensation to the dorsum of the hand, trouble straightening the arm, and wrist-drop. Ulnar nerve injury typically presents with abnormal sensation to the fourth and fifth digits and decreased grip strength.

Conclusion

Vascular abnormalities are rare complications following elbow injuries. Our patient sustained a lacerated brachial artery, which was repaired via saphenous graft; brachial and basilic vein lacerations, which were ligated; and an avulsion fracture with an unstable joint, which was stabilized with external fixation and stabilization. He was discharged the following day with full neurovascular function.

 

 

A methodical approach to assessing patients presenting with elbow injury is essential to making the correct diagnosis. This should include a careful evaluation of the joints above and below the area of injury, as well as attention to the neurovascular examination, with a heightened suspicion for a vascular abnormality in complex injuries. Doppler and ultrasound evaluation with multiple rechecks can assist with the diagnosis. Our patient was rapidly assessed with a concern for a vascular injury, and was emergently referred to vascular surgery for repair of the brachial artery and stabilization of the joint.

References

1. Carter SJ, Germann CA, Dacus AA, Sweeney TW, Perron AD. Orthopedic pitfalls in the ED: neurovascular injury associated with posterior elbow dislocations. Am J Emerg Med. 2010;28(8):960-965. doi:10.1016/j.ajem.2009.05.024.

2. Miyazaki AN, Fregoneze M, Santos PD, do Val Sella G, Checchia CS, Checchia SL. Brachial artery injury due to closed posterior elbow dislocation: case report. Rev Bras Ortop. 2016;51(2):239-243. doi:10.1016/j.rboe.2016.02.007.

3. Beingessner J, Pollock W, King GJW. Elbow fractures and dislocations. In: Court-Brown CM, Heckman JD, McQueen MM, Ricci WM, Tornetta P, eds. Rockwood and Green’s Fractures in Adults. Vol 1. 8th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health; 2015:1179-1228.

4. McCabe MP, Savoie FH 3rd. Simple elbow dislocations: evaluation, management, and outcomes. Phys Sportsmed. 2012;40(1):62-71. doi:10.3810/psm.2012.02.1952.

5. Jungbluth P, Hakimi M, Linhart W, Windolf J. Current concepts: simple and complex elbow dislocations—acute and definitive treatment. Eur J Trauma Emerg Surg. 2008;34(2):120-130. doi:10.1007/s00068-008-8033-9.

6. Marcheix B, Chaufour X, Ayel J, et al. Transection of the brachial artery after closed posterior elbow dislocation. J Vasc Surg. 2005;42(6):1230-1232. doi:10.1016/j.jvs.2005.07.046.

Article PDF
Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Publications
Topics
Page Number
321-323
Sections
Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Author and Disclosure Information

Authors’ Disclosure Statement: The authors report no actual or potential conflict of interest in relation to this article.

Article PDF
Article PDF
A 46-year-old man presented for evaluation of an injury to his left elbow after a fall.
A 46-year-old man presented for evaluation of an injury to his left elbow after a fall.

A 46-year-old man with a remote history of general tonic-clonic seizures, for which he was taking phenytoin, presented to the ED 30 minutes after sustaining a witnessed mechanical fall. The patient had fallen onto his nondominant left hand, which resulted in an injury to his elbow. He reported neither losing consciousness nor experiencing any seizures following the incident. He denied dislocating the joint or sustaining any other injuries from the fall. He also denied a history of past left elbow injury.

The patient was alert, oriented, and provided a full history of the incident. Regarding medical history, he stated that his last seizure had occurred 10 years prior. Except for the left elbow pain, a review of his systems was negative. The patient appeared in no acute distress, and supported his left upper extremity with a bandana and his right hand.

The patient’s vital signs were normal. The physical examination was negative except for the left elbow, which had significant swelling and limited range of motion without skin break, leading to suspicion for a prehospital dislocation with self-reduction. The joints above, below, and at the injury site were assessed for neurovascular injury.

Figure 1.
The neurological examination was normal; however, the vascular examination was abnormal for a nonpalpable left brachial pulse and a weak radial pulse, which was only detected by bedside Doppler. A radiograph of the left upper extremity revealed a small avulsion of the medial condyle and significant soft tissue swelling (Figure 1).

Computed tomography angiography of the left upper extremity showed a brachial artery occlusion above the elbow, with reconstitution below the joint (Figure 2).
Figure 2.
Vascular surgery services was immediately contacted, and the patient was taken to the operating room for exploration and repair of the injured vessel. Orthopedic services was also consulted, and the orthopedic surgeon on call stabilized the joint after vascular repair. During surgery, the patient was found to have transected the brachial artery, brachial vein, and basilic vein. The veins were ligated, and the brachial artery was repaired using a saphenous vein graft from the left thigh. The patient did well postoperatively and was discharged the next day with full neurovascular function.

Discussion

There is a paucity of information on vascular injury from elbow dislocation in the emergency medicine literature. A recent literature search referenced orthopedic pitfalls in the ED,1 but most data appear in the orthopedic and vascular literature. A case report from the orthopedic literature in Brazil cites a vascular injury after ED relocation of a dislocated elbow following an assault.2

The elbow is the second most commonly dislocated joint (not including the patella) after the shoulder.3 Posterior dislocations make up the majority of these injuries. Simple versus complex injuries can be differentiated by the presence or absence of fracture.4 Simple complications include stiffness; loss of mobility, especially with full extension; neurovascular injuries; and compartment syndrome. Complex injuries involve fractures and potential neurovascular injuries, stiffness, pain, and loss of mobility.

Soft tissue injuries, fractures, and neurovascular complaints represent the majority of ED encounters, and are commonly related to falls. The elbow is the articulation of the humerus, ulna, and radius bones. Range of motion includes, but is not limited to, flexion, extension, supination, and pronation. Tears in the lateral ulnar ligament, joint capsule, and medial collateral ligament lead to instability of the joint and increase risk of dislocation.

Fractures make up to 20% of injuries to the elbow. These include fractures of the radial head and neck (most common), olecranon, and distal humerus.5 Open elbow fractures are rare, as are vascular injuries (5%-13% of cases).6 When present, vascular elbow injuries usually involve the brachial artery, and display abnormal palpable and Doppler assessment of the brachial and radial arteries.6

Nerve injuries may include injury to the radial nerve. Manifestations of radial nerve injury include abnormal sensation to the dorsum of the hand, trouble straightening the arm, and wrist-drop. Ulnar nerve injury typically presents with abnormal sensation to the fourth and fifth digits and decreased grip strength.

Conclusion

Vascular abnormalities are rare complications following elbow injuries. Our patient sustained a lacerated brachial artery, which was repaired via saphenous graft; brachial and basilic vein lacerations, which were ligated; and an avulsion fracture with an unstable joint, which was stabilized with external fixation and stabilization. He was discharged the following day with full neurovascular function.

 

 

A methodical approach to assessing patients presenting with elbow injury is essential to making the correct diagnosis. This should include a careful evaluation of the joints above and below the area of injury, as well as attention to the neurovascular examination, with a heightened suspicion for a vascular abnormality in complex injuries. Doppler and ultrasound evaluation with multiple rechecks can assist with the diagnosis. Our patient was rapidly assessed with a concern for a vascular injury, and was emergently referred to vascular surgery for repair of the brachial artery and stabilization of the joint.

A 46-year-old man with a remote history of general tonic-clonic seizures, for which he was taking phenytoin, presented to the ED 30 minutes after sustaining a witnessed mechanical fall. The patient had fallen onto his nondominant left hand, which resulted in an injury to his elbow. He reported neither losing consciousness nor experiencing any seizures following the incident. He denied dislocating the joint or sustaining any other injuries from the fall. He also denied a history of past left elbow injury.

The patient was alert, oriented, and provided a full history of the incident. Regarding medical history, he stated that his last seizure had occurred 10 years prior. Except for the left elbow pain, a review of his systems was negative. The patient appeared in no acute distress, and supported his left upper extremity with a bandana and his right hand.

The patient’s vital signs were normal. The physical examination was negative except for the left elbow, which had significant swelling and limited range of motion without skin break, leading to suspicion for a prehospital dislocation with self-reduction. The joints above, below, and at the injury site were assessed for neurovascular injury.

Figure 1.
The neurological examination was normal; however, the vascular examination was abnormal for a nonpalpable left brachial pulse and a weak radial pulse, which was only detected by bedside Doppler. A radiograph of the left upper extremity revealed a small avulsion of the medial condyle and significant soft tissue swelling (Figure 1).

Computed tomography angiography of the left upper extremity showed a brachial artery occlusion above the elbow, with reconstitution below the joint (Figure 2).
Figure 2.
Vascular surgery services was immediately contacted, and the patient was taken to the operating room for exploration and repair of the injured vessel. Orthopedic services was also consulted, and the orthopedic surgeon on call stabilized the joint after vascular repair. During surgery, the patient was found to have transected the brachial artery, brachial vein, and basilic vein. The veins were ligated, and the brachial artery was repaired using a saphenous vein graft from the left thigh. The patient did well postoperatively and was discharged the next day with full neurovascular function.

Discussion

There is a paucity of information on vascular injury from elbow dislocation in the emergency medicine literature. A recent literature search referenced orthopedic pitfalls in the ED,1 but most data appear in the orthopedic and vascular literature. A case report from the orthopedic literature in Brazil cites a vascular injury after ED relocation of a dislocated elbow following an assault.2

The elbow is the second most commonly dislocated joint (not including the patella) after the shoulder.3 Posterior dislocations make up the majority of these injuries. Simple versus complex injuries can be differentiated by the presence or absence of fracture.4 Simple complications include stiffness; loss of mobility, especially with full extension; neurovascular injuries; and compartment syndrome. Complex injuries involve fractures and potential neurovascular injuries, stiffness, pain, and loss of mobility.

Soft tissue injuries, fractures, and neurovascular complaints represent the majority of ED encounters, and are commonly related to falls. The elbow is the articulation of the humerus, ulna, and radius bones. Range of motion includes, but is not limited to, flexion, extension, supination, and pronation. Tears in the lateral ulnar ligament, joint capsule, and medial collateral ligament lead to instability of the joint and increase risk of dislocation.

Fractures make up to 20% of injuries to the elbow. These include fractures of the radial head and neck (most common), olecranon, and distal humerus.5 Open elbow fractures are rare, as are vascular injuries (5%-13% of cases).6 When present, vascular elbow injuries usually involve the brachial artery, and display abnormal palpable and Doppler assessment of the brachial and radial arteries.6

Nerve injuries may include injury to the radial nerve. Manifestations of radial nerve injury include abnormal sensation to the dorsum of the hand, trouble straightening the arm, and wrist-drop. Ulnar nerve injury typically presents with abnormal sensation to the fourth and fifth digits and decreased grip strength.

Conclusion

Vascular abnormalities are rare complications following elbow injuries. Our patient sustained a lacerated brachial artery, which was repaired via saphenous graft; brachial and basilic vein lacerations, which were ligated; and an avulsion fracture with an unstable joint, which was stabilized with external fixation and stabilization. He was discharged the following day with full neurovascular function.

 

 

A methodical approach to assessing patients presenting with elbow injury is essential to making the correct diagnosis. This should include a careful evaluation of the joints above and below the area of injury, as well as attention to the neurovascular examination, with a heightened suspicion for a vascular abnormality in complex injuries. Doppler and ultrasound evaluation with multiple rechecks can assist with the diagnosis. Our patient was rapidly assessed with a concern for a vascular injury, and was emergently referred to vascular surgery for repair of the brachial artery and stabilization of the joint.

References

1. Carter SJ, Germann CA, Dacus AA, Sweeney TW, Perron AD. Orthopedic pitfalls in the ED: neurovascular injury associated with posterior elbow dislocations. Am J Emerg Med. 2010;28(8):960-965. doi:10.1016/j.ajem.2009.05.024.

2. Miyazaki AN, Fregoneze M, Santos PD, do Val Sella G, Checchia CS, Checchia SL. Brachial artery injury due to closed posterior elbow dislocation: case report. Rev Bras Ortop. 2016;51(2):239-243. doi:10.1016/j.rboe.2016.02.007.

3. Beingessner J, Pollock W, King GJW. Elbow fractures and dislocations. In: Court-Brown CM, Heckman JD, McQueen MM, Ricci WM, Tornetta P, eds. Rockwood and Green’s Fractures in Adults. Vol 1. 8th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health; 2015:1179-1228.

4. McCabe MP, Savoie FH 3rd. Simple elbow dislocations: evaluation, management, and outcomes. Phys Sportsmed. 2012;40(1):62-71. doi:10.3810/psm.2012.02.1952.

5. Jungbluth P, Hakimi M, Linhart W, Windolf J. Current concepts: simple and complex elbow dislocations—acute and definitive treatment. Eur J Trauma Emerg Surg. 2008;34(2):120-130. doi:10.1007/s00068-008-8033-9.

6. Marcheix B, Chaufour X, Ayel J, et al. Transection of the brachial artery after closed posterior elbow dislocation. J Vasc Surg. 2005;42(6):1230-1232. doi:10.1016/j.jvs.2005.07.046.

References

1. Carter SJ, Germann CA, Dacus AA, Sweeney TW, Perron AD. Orthopedic pitfalls in the ED: neurovascular injury associated with posterior elbow dislocations. Am J Emerg Med. 2010;28(8):960-965. doi:10.1016/j.ajem.2009.05.024.

2. Miyazaki AN, Fregoneze M, Santos PD, do Val Sella G, Checchia CS, Checchia SL. Brachial artery injury due to closed posterior elbow dislocation: case report. Rev Bras Ortop. 2016;51(2):239-243. doi:10.1016/j.rboe.2016.02.007.

3. Beingessner J, Pollock W, King GJW. Elbow fractures and dislocations. In: Court-Brown CM, Heckman JD, McQueen MM, Ricci WM, Tornetta P, eds. Rockwood and Green’s Fractures in Adults. Vol 1. 8th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health; 2015:1179-1228.

4. McCabe MP, Savoie FH 3rd. Simple elbow dislocations: evaluation, management, and outcomes. Phys Sportsmed. 2012;40(1):62-71. doi:10.3810/psm.2012.02.1952.

5. Jungbluth P, Hakimi M, Linhart W, Windolf J. Current concepts: simple and complex elbow dislocations—acute and definitive treatment. Eur J Trauma Emerg Surg. 2008;34(2):120-130. doi:10.1007/s00068-008-8033-9.

6. Marcheix B, Chaufour X, Ayel J, et al. Transection of the brachial artery after closed posterior elbow dislocation. J Vasc Surg. 2005;42(6):1230-1232. doi:10.1016/j.jvs.2005.07.046.

Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Issue
Emergency Medicine - 49(7)
Page Number
321-323
Page Number
321-323
Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Display Headline
Vascular Injury Following a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand
Display Headline
Vascular Injury Following a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand
Sections
Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Disqus Comments
Default
Article PDF Media

What's Eating You? Sticktight Flea Revisited

Article Type
Changed
Display Headline
What's Eating You? Sticktight Flea Revisited

Identifying Characteristics

The sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea) earns its name by embedding its head in the host's skin using broad and serrated laciniae and can feed at one site for up to 19 days.1 It differs in morphology from dog (Ctenocephalides canis) and cat (Ctenocephalides felis) fleas, lacking genal (mustache area) and promotal (back of the head) ctenidia (combs), and is half the size of the cat flea. It has 2 pairs of setae (hairs) behind the antennae with an anteriorly flattened head (Figure). 

Sticktight flea anatomy.

Disease Transmission

Although its primary host is poultry and it also is known as the stickfast or chicken flea, the sticktight flea has been found in many species of birds and mammals, including humans. It is becoming more common in dogs in many parts of the world, including the United States,2-5 and has been found to be the most common flea on dogs in areas of South Africa.6 Other noted hosts of E gallinacea are rodents, cottontail rabbits, cats, ground squirrels, and pigs.7-14 Human infestation occurs from exposure to affected animals.15 As blood feeders, fleas have long been known to serve as vectors for many diseases, including bubonic plague, typhus, and tularemia, as well as an intermediate host of the dog tapeworm (Dipylidium caninum).5 Rickettsia felis, belonging to the spotted fever group, is an emerging infectious disease in humans commonly found in the cat flea (C felis) but also has been detected in E gallinacea.7 Echidnophaga gallinacea is found worldwide in the tropics, subtropics, and temperate zones, and it is the only representative of the genus found in the United States.1 Given the wide range of wild and domestic animal hosts and wide geographic distribution for E gallinacea, it represents an increasing risk for humans.

Echidnophaga gallinacea favors feeding from fleshy areas without thick fur or plumage. In birds, the area around the eyes, comb, and wattles is included; in dogs, it can be the eyes, in between the toes, and in the genital area.1 Flea bites cause irritation and itching for hosts including humans, typically resulting in clusters of firm, pruritic, erythematous papules with a central punctum.15 Severe bites also may lead to bullous lesions. In birds, symptoms can be extreme, with infestation around the eyes leading to swelling and blindness, a decline in egg production, weight loss, and death in young birds.1 Similar to other fleas, E gallinacea is wingless and depends on jumping onto a host for transmission, which can be from the ground, carpeting and flooring, furniture, or another host. Fleas are champion jumpers (relative to body size) and can jump 100 times their length.16

Management

Treating sticktight fleas can be tricky, as they embed tightly into the host's skin. Animals should be treated by a qualified veterinarian. Removal of attached fleas in humans requires grasping the flea firmly with tweezers and pulling from the skin. If the infestation is considerable, malathion 5% liquid or gel can be applied. Patients can treat itching with topical steroids and antipruritic creams, and oral antihistamines can be used to relieve symptoms and reduce the likelihood of damaged skin as well as the potential for secondary infection. The flea-infested environment should be treated with insecticides. For treatment of hard surfaces, dichlorvos and propetamphos are effective. Organophosphates work well on fabric and carpeting. Domestic pets and livestock may be treated by a veterinarian with agents such as fipronil, selamectin, imidacloprid, metaflumizone, nitenpyram, lufenuron, methoprene, and pyriproxyfen.
 

References
  1. Gyimesi ZS, Hayden ER, Greiner EC. Sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea) infestation in a Victoria crowned pigeon (Goura victoria). J Zoo Wildl Med. 2007;38:594-596.
  2. Kalkofen UP, Greenberg J. Echidnophaga gallinacea infestation in dogs. J Am Vet Med Assoc. 1974;165:447-448.
  3. Harman DW, Halliwell RE, Greiner EC. Flea species from dogs and cats in north-central Florida. Vet Parasitol. 1987;23:135-140.
  4. Boughton RK, Atwell JW, Schoech SJ. An introduced generalist parasite, the sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea), and its pathology in the threatened Florida scrub-jay (Aphelocoma coerulescens). J Parasitol. 2006;92:941-948.
  5. Durden LA, Judy TN, Martin JE, et al. Fleas parasitizing domestic dogs in Georgia, USA: species composition and seasonal abundance. Vet Parasitol. 2005;130:157-162.
  6. Rautenbach GH, Boomker J, de Villiers IL. A descriptive study of the canine population in a rural town in southern Africa. J S Afr Vet Assoc. 1991;62:158-162.
  7. Leulmi H, Socolovschi C, Laudisoit A, et al. Detection of Rickettsia felis, Rickettsia typhi, Bartonella species and Yersinia pestis in fleas (Siphonaptera) from Africa. PLoS Negl Trop Dis. 2014;8:e3152.
  8. Guernier V, Lagadec E, LeMinter G, et al. Fleas of small mammals on Reunion Island: diversity, distribution and epidemiological consequences. PLoS Negl Trop Dis. 2014;8:e3129.
  9. Cantó GJ, Guerrero RI, Olvera-Ramírez AM, et al. Prevalence of fleas and gastrointestinal parasites in free-roaming cats in central Mexico [published online April 3, 2013]. PLoS One. 2013;8:e60744.
  10. Akucewich LH, Philman K, Clark A, et al. Prevalence of ectoparasites in a population of feral cats from north central Florida during the summer. Vet Parasitol. 2002;109:129-139.
  11. Linardi PM, Gomes AF, Botelho JR, et al. Some ectoparasites of commensal rodents from Huambo, Angola. J Med Entomol. 1994;31:754-756.
  12. Pfaffenberger GS, Valencia VB. Ectoparasites of sympatric cottontails (Sylvilagus audubonii Nelson) and jack rabbits (Lepus californicus Mearns) from the high plains of eastern New Mexico. J Parasitol. 1988;74:842-846.
  13. Hubbart JA, Jachowski DS, Eads DA. Seasonal and among-site variation in the occurrence and abundance of fleas on California ground squirrels (Otospermophilus beecheyi). J Vector Ecol. 2011;36:117-123.
  14. Braae UC, Ngowi HA, Johansen MV. Smallholder pig production: prevalence and risk factors of ectoparasites. Vet Parasitol. 2013;196:241-244.
  15. Carlson JC, Fox MS. A sticktight flea removed from the cheek of a two-year-old boy from Los Angeles. Dermatol Online J. 2009;15:4.
  16. Rothschild M, Schlein Y, Parker K, et al. The flying leap of the flea. Scientific American. 1973;229:92.
Article PDF
Author and Disclosure Information

Dr. Salgado is from the Department of Dermatology and Pathology, Rutgers New Jersey Medical School, Newark. Dr. Elston is from the Department of Dermatology and Dermatologic Surgery, Medical University of South Carolina, Charleston.

The authors report no conflict of interest.

Correspondence: Dirk M. Elston, MD, Department of Dermatology and Dermatologic Surgery, Medical University of South Carolina, MSC 578, 135 Rutledge Ave, 11th Floor, Charleston, SC 29425-5780 ([email protected]).

Issue
Cutis - 100(1)
Publications
Topics
Page Number
40, 49
Sections
Author and Disclosure Information

Dr. Salgado is from the Department of Dermatology and Pathology, Rutgers New Jersey Medical School, Newark. Dr. Elston is from the Department of Dermatology and Dermatologic Surgery, Medical University of South Carolina, Charleston.

The authors report no conflict of interest.

Correspondence: Dirk M. Elston, MD, Department of Dermatology and Dermatologic Surgery, Medical University of South Carolina, MSC 578, 135 Rutledge Ave, 11th Floor, Charleston, SC 29425-5780 ([email protected]).

Author and Disclosure Information

Dr. Salgado is from the Department of Dermatology and Pathology, Rutgers New Jersey Medical School, Newark. Dr. Elston is from the Department of Dermatology and Dermatologic Surgery, Medical University of South Carolina, Charleston.

The authors report no conflict of interest.

Correspondence: Dirk M. Elston, MD, Department of Dermatology and Dermatologic Surgery, Medical University of South Carolina, MSC 578, 135 Rutledge Ave, 11th Floor, Charleston, SC 29425-5780 ([email protected]).

Article PDF
Article PDF
Related Articles

Identifying Characteristics

The sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea) earns its name by embedding its head in the host's skin using broad and serrated laciniae and can feed at one site for up to 19 days.1 It differs in morphology from dog (Ctenocephalides canis) and cat (Ctenocephalides felis) fleas, lacking genal (mustache area) and promotal (back of the head) ctenidia (combs), and is half the size of the cat flea. It has 2 pairs of setae (hairs) behind the antennae with an anteriorly flattened head (Figure). 

Sticktight flea anatomy.

Disease Transmission

Although its primary host is poultry and it also is known as the stickfast or chicken flea, the sticktight flea has been found in many species of birds and mammals, including humans. It is becoming more common in dogs in many parts of the world, including the United States,2-5 and has been found to be the most common flea on dogs in areas of South Africa.6 Other noted hosts of E gallinacea are rodents, cottontail rabbits, cats, ground squirrels, and pigs.7-14 Human infestation occurs from exposure to affected animals.15 As blood feeders, fleas have long been known to serve as vectors for many diseases, including bubonic plague, typhus, and tularemia, as well as an intermediate host of the dog tapeworm (Dipylidium caninum).5 Rickettsia felis, belonging to the spotted fever group, is an emerging infectious disease in humans commonly found in the cat flea (C felis) but also has been detected in E gallinacea.7 Echidnophaga gallinacea is found worldwide in the tropics, subtropics, and temperate zones, and it is the only representative of the genus found in the United States.1 Given the wide range of wild and domestic animal hosts and wide geographic distribution for E gallinacea, it represents an increasing risk for humans.

Echidnophaga gallinacea favors feeding from fleshy areas without thick fur or plumage. In birds, the area around the eyes, comb, and wattles is included; in dogs, it can be the eyes, in between the toes, and in the genital area.1 Flea bites cause irritation and itching for hosts including humans, typically resulting in clusters of firm, pruritic, erythematous papules with a central punctum.15 Severe bites also may lead to bullous lesions. In birds, symptoms can be extreme, with infestation around the eyes leading to swelling and blindness, a decline in egg production, weight loss, and death in young birds.1 Similar to other fleas, E gallinacea is wingless and depends on jumping onto a host for transmission, which can be from the ground, carpeting and flooring, furniture, or another host. Fleas are champion jumpers (relative to body size) and can jump 100 times their length.16

Management

Treating sticktight fleas can be tricky, as they embed tightly into the host's skin. Animals should be treated by a qualified veterinarian. Removal of attached fleas in humans requires grasping the flea firmly with tweezers and pulling from the skin. If the infestation is considerable, malathion 5% liquid or gel can be applied. Patients can treat itching with topical steroids and antipruritic creams, and oral antihistamines can be used to relieve symptoms and reduce the likelihood of damaged skin as well as the potential for secondary infection. The flea-infested environment should be treated with insecticides. For treatment of hard surfaces, dichlorvos and propetamphos are effective. Organophosphates work well on fabric and carpeting. Domestic pets and livestock may be treated by a veterinarian with agents such as fipronil, selamectin, imidacloprid, metaflumizone, nitenpyram, lufenuron, methoprene, and pyriproxyfen.
 

Identifying Characteristics

The sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea) earns its name by embedding its head in the host's skin using broad and serrated laciniae and can feed at one site for up to 19 days.1 It differs in morphology from dog (Ctenocephalides canis) and cat (Ctenocephalides felis) fleas, lacking genal (mustache area) and promotal (back of the head) ctenidia (combs), and is half the size of the cat flea. It has 2 pairs of setae (hairs) behind the antennae with an anteriorly flattened head (Figure). 

Sticktight flea anatomy.

Disease Transmission

Although its primary host is poultry and it also is known as the stickfast or chicken flea, the sticktight flea has been found in many species of birds and mammals, including humans. It is becoming more common in dogs in many parts of the world, including the United States,2-5 and has been found to be the most common flea on dogs in areas of South Africa.6 Other noted hosts of E gallinacea are rodents, cottontail rabbits, cats, ground squirrels, and pigs.7-14 Human infestation occurs from exposure to affected animals.15 As blood feeders, fleas have long been known to serve as vectors for many diseases, including bubonic plague, typhus, and tularemia, as well as an intermediate host of the dog tapeworm (Dipylidium caninum).5 Rickettsia felis, belonging to the spotted fever group, is an emerging infectious disease in humans commonly found in the cat flea (C felis) but also has been detected in E gallinacea.7 Echidnophaga gallinacea is found worldwide in the tropics, subtropics, and temperate zones, and it is the only representative of the genus found in the United States.1 Given the wide range of wild and domestic animal hosts and wide geographic distribution for E gallinacea, it represents an increasing risk for humans.

Echidnophaga gallinacea favors feeding from fleshy areas without thick fur or plumage. In birds, the area around the eyes, comb, and wattles is included; in dogs, it can be the eyes, in between the toes, and in the genital area.1 Flea bites cause irritation and itching for hosts including humans, typically resulting in clusters of firm, pruritic, erythematous papules with a central punctum.15 Severe bites also may lead to bullous lesions. In birds, symptoms can be extreme, with infestation around the eyes leading to swelling and blindness, a decline in egg production, weight loss, and death in young birds.1 Similar to other fleas, E gallinacea is wingless and depends on jumping onto a host for transmission, which can be from the ground, carpeting and flooring, furniture, or another host. Fleas are champion jumpers (relative to body size) and can jump 100 times their length.16

Management

Treating sticktight fleas can be tricky, as they embed tightly into the host's skin. Animals should be treated by a qualified veterinarian. Removal of attached fleas in humans requires grasping the flea firmly with tweezers and pulling from the skin. If the infestation is considerable, malathion 5% liquid or gel can be applied. Patients can treat itching with topical steroids and antipruritic creams, and oral antihistamines can be used to relieve symptoms and reduce the likelihood of damaged skin as well as the potential for secondary infection. The flea-infested environment should be treated with insecticides. For treatment of hard surfaces, dichlorvos and propetamphos are effective. Organophosphates work well on fabric and carpeting. Domestic pets and livestock may be treated by a veterinarian with agents such as fipronil, selamectin, imidacloprid, metaflumizone, nitenpyram, lufenuron, methoprene, and pyriproxyfen.
 

References
  1. Gyimesi ZS, Hayden ER, Greiner EC. Sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea) infestation in a Victoria crowned pigeon (Goura victoria). J Zoo Wildl Med. 2007;38:594-596.
  2. Kalkofen UP, Greenberg J. Echidnophaga gallinacea infestation in dogs. J Am Vet Med Assoc. 1974;165:447-448.
  3. Harman DW, Halliwell RE, Greiner EC. Flea species from dogs and cats in north-central Florida. Vet Parasitol. 1987;23:135-140.
  4. Boughton RK, Atwell JW, Schoech SJ. An introduced generalist parasite, the sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea), and its pathology in the threatened Florida scrub-jay (Aphelocoma coerulescens). J Parasitol. 2006;92:941-948.
  5. Durden LA, Judy TN, Martin JE, et al. Fleas parasitizing domestic dogs in Georgia, USA: species composition and seasonal abundance. Vet Parasitol. 2005;130:157-162.
  6. Rautenbach GH, Boomker J, de Villiers IL. A descriptive study of the canine population in a rural town in southern Africa. J S Afr Vet Assoc. 1991;62:158-162.
  7. Leulmi H, Socolovschi C, Laudisoit A, et al. Detection of Rickettsia felis, Rickettsia typhi, Bartonella species and Yersinia pestis in fleas (Siphonaptera) from Africa. PLoS Negl Trop Dis. 2014;8:e3152.
  8. Guernier V, Lagadec E, LeMinter G, et al. Fleas of small mammals on Reunion Island: diversity, distribution and epidemiological consequences. PLoS Negl Trop Dis. 2014;8:e3129.
  9. Cantó GJ, Guerrero RI, Olvera-Ramírez AM, et al. Prevalence of fleas and gastrointestinal parasites in free-roaming cats in central Mexico [published online April 3, 2013]. PLoS One. 2013;8:e60744.
  10. Akucewich LH, Philman K, Clark A, et al. Prevalence of ectoparasites in a population of feral cats from north central Florida during the summer. Vet Parasitol. 2002;109:129-139.
  11. Linardi PM, Gomes AF, Botelho JR, et al. Some ectoparasites of commensal rodents from Huambo, Angola. J Med Entomol. 1994;31:754-756.
  12. Pfaffenberger GS, Valencia VB. Ectoparasites of sympatric cottontails (Sylvilagus audubonii Nelson) and jack rabbits (Lepus californicus Mearns) from the high plains of eastern New Mexico. J Parasitol. 1988;74:842-846.
  13. Hubbart JA, Jachowski DS, Eads DA. Seasonal and among-site variation in the occurrence and abundance of fleas on California ground squirrels (Otospermophilus beecheyi). J Vector Ecol. 2011;36:117-123.
  14. Braae UC, Ngowi HA, Johansen MV. Smallholder pig production: prevalence and risk factors of ectoparasites. Vet Parasitol. 2013;196:241-244.
  15. Carlson JC, Fox MS. A sticktight flea removed from the cheek of a two-year-old boy from Los Angeles. Dermatol Online J. 2009;15:4.
  16. Rothschild M, Schlein Y, Parker K, et al. The flying leap of the flea. Scientific American. 1973;229:92.
References
  1. Gyimesi ZS, Hayden ER, Greiner EC. Sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea) infestation in a Victoria crowned pigeon (Goura victoria). J Zoo Wildl Med. 2007;38:594-596.
  2. Kalkofen UP, Greenberg J. Echidnophaga gallinacea infestation in dogs. J Am Vet Med Assoc. 1974;165:447-448.
  3. Harman DW, Halliwell RE, Greiner EC. Flea species from dogs and cats in north-central Florida. Vet Parasitol. 1987;23:135-140.
  4. Boughton RK, Atwell JW, Schoech SJ. An introduced generalist parasite, the sticktight flea (Echidnophaga gallinacea), and its pathology in the threatened Florida scrub-jay (Aphelocoma coerulescens). J Parasitol. 2006;92:941-948.
  5. Durden LA, Judy TN, Martin JE, et al. Fleas parasitizing domestic dogs in Georgia, USA: species composition and seasonal abundance. Vet Parasitol. 2005;130:157-162.
  6. Rautenbach GH, Boomker J, de Villiers IL. A descriptive study of the canine population in a rural town in southern Africa. J S Afr Vet Assoc. 1991;62:158-162.
  7. Leulmi H, Socolovschi C, Laudisoit A, et al. Detection of Rickettsia felis, Rickettsia typhi, Bartonella species and Yersinia pestis in fleas (Siphonaptera) from Africa. PLoS Negl Trop Dis. 2014;8:e3152.
  8. Guernier V, Lagadec E, LeMinter G, et al. Fleas of small mammals on Reunion Island: diversity, distribution and epidemiological consequences. PLoS Negl Trop Dis. 2014;8:e3129.
  9. Cantó GJ, Guerrero RI, Olvera-Ramírez AM, et al. Prevalence of fleas and gastrointestinal parasites in free-roaming cats in central Mexico [published online April 3, 2013]. PLoS One. 2013;8:e60744.
  10. Akucewich LH, Philman K, Clark A, et al. Prevalence of ectoparasites in a population of feral cats from north central Florida during the summer. Vet Parasitol. 2002;109:129-139.
  11. Linardi PM, Gomes AF, Botelho JR, et al. Some ectoparasites of commensal rodents from Huambo, Angola. J Med Entomol. 1994;31:754-756.
  12. Pfaffenberger GS, Valencia VB. Ectoparasites of sympatric cottontails (Sylvilagus audubonii Nelson) and jack rabbits (Lepus californicus Mearns) from the high plains of eastern New Mexico. J Parasitol. 1988;74:842-846.
  13. Hubbart JA, Jachowski DS, Eads DA. Seasonal and among-site variation in the occurrence and abundance of fleas on California ground squirrels (Otospermophilus beecheyi). J Vector Ecol. 2011;36:117-123.
  14. Braae UC, Ngowi HA, Johansen MV. Smallholder pig production: prevalence and risk factors of ectoparasites. Vet Parasitol. 2013;196:241-244.
  15. Carlson JC, Fox MS. A sticktight flea removed from the cheek of a two-year-old boy from Los Angeles. Dermatol Online J. 2009;15:4.
  16. Rothschild M, Schlein Y, Parker K, et al. The flying leap of the flea. Scientific American. 1973;229:92.
Issue
Cutis - 100(1)
Issue
Cutis - 100(1)
Page Number
40, 49
Page Number
40, 49
Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Display Headline
What's Eating You? Sticktight Flea Revisited
Display Headline
What's Eating You? Sticktight Flea Revisited
Sections
Inside the Article

Practice Points

  • Although the primary host of the sticktight flea is poultry, it has been found in many species of birds and mammals, including humans.
  • Flea bites cause irritation and itching for hosts, typically resulting in clusters of firm, pruritic, erythematous papules with a central punctum.
  • Removal of attached fleas in humans requires grasping the flea firmly with tweezers and pulling from the skin.
Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Disqus Comments
Default
Article PDF Media

Some adjuvant endocrine therapies better than others for young breast cancer patients

Article Type
Changed

 

Young women treated for early hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative breast cancer fare better if their adjuvant endocrine therapy includes ovarian function suppression (OFS), according to a new analysis published online.

Senior author Gini F. Fleming, MD, director of the medical oncology breast program at the University of Chicago Medical Center, and her colleagues analyzed data from a pair of international phase III randomized adjuvant trials: the Suppression of Ovarian Function Trial (SOFT) and the Tamoxifen and Exemestane Trial (TEXT).

Main analyses were based on a respective 240 and 145 women younger than 35 years who had undergone surgery for early hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative early breast cancer, received chemotherapy, and were randomly assigned to 5 years of various adjuvant endocrine therapies.

In SOFT, the 5-year breast cancer–free interval was 67.1% (95% CI, 54.6%-76.9%) with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) alone, 75.9% (64.0%-84.4%) with tamoxifen plus OFS, and 83.2% (72.7%-90.0%) with exemestane (Aromasin) plus OFS (J Clin Oncol. 2017 June 27 doi: 10.1200/JCO.2016.72.0946). In TEXT, it was 79.2% (66.2%-87.7%) with tamoxifen plus OFS and 81.6% (69.8%-89.2%) with exemestane plus OFS.

In a quality of life analysis among women receiving OFS, vasomotor symptoms (hot flushes and sweats) showed greatest increase from baseline (roughly 30-40 points) in the first 6 months of therapy. Loss of sexual interest and difficulties in becoming aroused were also noteworthy (8 points or greater). However, scores for global quality of life (physical well-being, mood, coping effort, and health perception) showed little change from baseline and were essentially the same as those seen among premenopausal women aged 35 or older in the same trials.

Overall, 19.8% of the young women in SOFT and TEXT stopped all protocol-assigned endocrine therapy early. The proportion rose with time and was higher than that among the older premenopausal group.

“There was a meaningful clinical benefit in breast cancer outcomes with the addition of OFS to tamoxifen and some additional benefit from use of an aromatase inhibitor with OFS. Longer follow-up is critical to clarify potential survival benefits,” the investigators wrote. “There were substantial adverse effects from these combined endocrine treatments, but they were not different in the younger and older than 35 years populations. Despite this, rates of nonadherence were slightly higher in women younger than 35 years.

“Availability of these age-specific data regarding risks and benefits of combined endocrine therapy will support shared decision making regarding OFS among young women at high risk for recurrence and death from breast cancer and, it is hoped, improve adherence among those who select OFS,” they concluded.

Publications
Topics
Sections

 

Young women treated for early hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative breast cancer fare better if their adjuvant endocrine therapy includes ovarian function suppression (OFS), according to a new analysis published online.

Senior author Gini F. Fleming, MD, director of the medical oncology breast program at the University of Chicago Medical Center, and her colleagues analyzed data from a pair of international phase III randomized adjuvant trials: the Suppression of Ovarian Function Trial (SOFT) and the Tamoxifen and Exemestane Trial (TEXT).

Main analyses were based on a respective 240 and 145 women younger than 35 years who had undergone surgery for early hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative early breast cancer, received chemotherapy, and were randomly assigned to 5 years of various adjuvant endocrine therapies.

In SOFT, the 5-year breast cancer–free interval was 67.1% (95% CI, 54.6%-76.9%) with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) alone, 75.9% (64.0%-84.4%) with tamoxifen plus OFS, and 83.2% (72.7%-90.0%) with exemestane (Aromasin) plus OFS (J Clin Oncol. 2017 June 27 doi: 10.1200/JCO.2016.72.0946). In TEXT, it was 79.2% (66.2%-87.7%) with tamoxifen plus OFS and 81.6% (69.8%-89.2%) with exemestane plus OFS.

In a quality of life analysis among women receiving OFS, vasomotor symptoms (hot flushes and sweats) showed greatest increase from baseline (roughly 30-40 points) in the first 6 months of therapy. Loss of sexual interest and difficulties in becoming aroused were also noteworthy (8 points or greater). However, scores for global quality of life (physical well-being, mood, coping effort, and health perception) showed little change from baseline and were essentially the same as those seen among premenopausal women aged 35 or older in the same trials.

Overall, 19.8% of the young women in SOFT and TEXT stopped all protocol-assigned endocrine therapy early. The proportion rose with time and was higher than that among the older premenopausal group.

“There was a meaningful clinical benefit in breast cancer outcomes with the addition of OFS to tamoxifen and some additional benefit from use of an aromatase inhibitor with OFS. Longer follow-up is critical to clarify potential survival benefits,” the investigators wrote. “There were substantial adverse effects from these combined endocrine treatments, but they were not different in the younger and older than 35 years populations. Despite this, rates of nonadherence were slightly higher in women younger than 35 years.

“Availability of these age-specific data regarding risks and benefits of combined endocrine therapy will support shared decision making regarding OFS among young women at high risk for recurrence and death from breast cancer and, it is hoped, improve adherence among those who select OFS,” they concluded.

 

Young women treated for early hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative breast cancer fare better if their adjuvant endocrine therapy includes ovarian function suppression (OFS), according to a new analysis published online.

Senior author Gini F. Fleming, MD, director of the medical oncology breast program at the University of Chicago Medical Center, and her colleagues analyzed data from a pair of international phase III randomized adjuvant trials: the Suppression of Ovarian Function Trial (SOFT) and the Tamoxifen and Exemestane Trial (TEXT).

Main analyses were based on a respective 240 and 145 women younger than 35 years who had undergone surgery for early hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative early breast cancer, received chemotherapy, and were randomly assigned to 5 years of various adjuvant endocrine therapies.

In SOFT, the 5-year breast cancer–free interval was 67.1% (95% CI, 54.6%-76.9%) with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) alone, 75.9% (64.0%-84.4%) with tamoxifen plus OFS, and 83.2% (72.7%-90.0%) with exemestane (Aromasin) plus OFS (J Clin Oncol. 2017 June 27 doi: 10.1200/JCO.2016.72.0946). In TEXT, it was 79.2% (66.2%-87.7%) with tamoxifen plus OFS and 81.6% (69.8%-89.2%) with exemestane plus OFS.

In a quality of life analysis among women receiving OFS, vasomotor symptoms (hot flushes and sweats) showed greatest increase from baseline (roughly 30-40 points) in the first 6 months of therapy. Loss of sexual interest and difficulties in becoming aroused were also noteworthy (8 points or greater). However, scores for global quality of life (physical well-being, mood, coping effort, and health perception) showed little change from baseline and were essentially the same as those seen among premenopausal women aged 35 or older in the same trials.

Overall, 19.8% of the young women in SOFT and TEXT stopped all protocol-assigned endocrine therapy early. The proportion rose with time and was higher than that among the older premenopausal group.

“There was a meaningful clinical benefit in breast cancer outcomes with the addition of OFS to tamoxifen and some additional benefit from use of an aromatase inhibitor with OFS. Longer follow-up is critical to clarify potential survival benefits,” the investigators wrote. “There were substantial adverse effects from these combined endocrine treatments, but they were not different in the younger and older than 35 years populations. Despite this, rates of nonadherence were slightly higher in women younger than 35 years.

“Availability of these age-specific data regarding risks and benefits of combined endocrine therapy will support shared decision making regarding OFS among young women at high risk for recurrence and death from breast cancer and, it is hoped, improve adherence among those who select OFS,” they concluded.

Publications
Publications
Topics
Article Type
Click for Credit Status
Ready
Sections
Article Source

FROM JOURNAL OF CLINICAL ONCOLOGY

Disallow All Ads
Content Gating
No Gating (article Unlocked/Free)
Alternative CME
Vitals

 

Key clinical point: Tamoxifen or exemestane plus OFS appears superior to tamoxifen alone for averting recurrent or new disease in young breast cancer survivors.

Major finding: In SOFT, the 5-year breast cancer–free interval was 67.1% with tamoxifen alone, 75.9% with tamoxifen plus OFS, and 83.2% with exemestane plus OFS. In TEXT, it was 79.2% with tamoxifen plus OFS and 81.6% with exemestane plus OFS.

Data source: An analysis of women younger than 35 years treated for early hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative breast cancer and given adjuvant endocrine therapy in the phase III randomized SOFT trial (240 women) or TEXT trial (145 women).

Disclosures: Dr. Fleming disclosed that she receives research funding from Corcept Therapeutics (institutional) and has a relationship with Aeterna Zentaris.

Disqus Comments
Default