Medical Profession “Terrified” to Address Kernicterus Concerns

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Medical Profession “Terrified” to Address Kernicterus Concerns

I read with interest this article and I must say it is inaccurate. My son was born in 2001. He had a bilirubin of 51. Having the diagnosis of kernicterus was difficult in coming. Why? Because the medical profession is terrified to admit that this is happening.

I am a proud member of PICK. My son is wheelchair-confined, he is completely deaf, visually impaired, and has cerebral palsy, epilepsy, and lung disease from the pneumonias that he suffers from almost monthly. Due to his many seizure medications, he now has a blood disease.

Please visit our website (www.pickonline.org) to do a little more research on this matter. Maybe call one of us, as parents, to find out more. My son is not from California. In fact, most of our parents are not from California. Maybe research in other states is warranted.

Christine Thau

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I read with interest this article and I must say it is inaccurate. My son was born in 2001. He had a bilirubin of 51. Having the diagnosis of kernicterus was difficult in coming. Why? Because the medical profession is terrified to admit that this is happening.

I am a proud member of PICK. My son is wheelchair-confined, he is completely deaf, visually impaired, and has cerebral palsy, epilepsy, and lung disease from the pneumonias that he suffers from almost monthly. Due to his many seizure medications, he now has a blood disease.

Please visit our website (www.pickonline.org) to do a little more research on this matter. Maybe call one of us, as parents, to find out more. My son is not from California. In fact, most of our parents are not from California. Maybe research in other states is warranted.

Christine Thau

I read with interest this article and I must say it is inaccurate. My son was born in 2001. He had a bilirubin of 51. Having the diagnosis of kernicterus was difficult in coming. Why? Because the medical profession is terrified to admit that this is happening.

I am a proud member of PICK. My son is wheelchair-confined, he is completely deaf, visually impaired, and has cerebral palsy, epilepsy, and lung disease from the pneumonias that he suffers from almost monthly. Due to his many seizure medications, he now has a blood disease.

Please visit our website (www.pickonline.org) to do a little more research on this matter. Maybe call one of us, as parents, to find out more. My son is not from California. In fact, most of our parents are not from California. Maybe research in other states is warranted.

Christine Thau

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Medical Profession “Terrified” to Address Kernicterus Concerns
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Quick Diagnosis Units

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Quick diagnosis units versus hospitalization for the diagnosis of potentially severe diseases in Spain

In recent years, hospitals in countries with public health systems have adopted organizational changes to improve efficiency and resource allocation. Acute hospital bed utilization is a growing concern for healthcare systems in these countries, as it represents a significant share of health costs.1

Inappropriate hospitalization is a significant problem for public health systems. In Spain and other countries, due to deficiencies in outpatient services, acute beds are increasingly occupied by patients requiring diagnostic tests for nonacute but potentially severe diseases that often need no immediate treatment, thereby reducing beds for acute patients.2, 3

Reports suggest 9% to 17% of patients admitted to Spanish internal medicine units could be studied on an outpatient basis.47 However, long delays in outpatient diagnostic tests in Spain make diagnosis outside conventional hospitalization unviable, especially when rapid access to tests for suspected malignancy is required.

These shortcomings have prompted the search for alternatives to hospitalization. Alternative care models include: 1‐day hospitals (providing medical procedures requiring <24 hours of hospitalization)8; short‐stay observation units (often located adjacent to emergency departments [ED], and accommodating patients requiring brief periods of observation or therapy)912; hospital‐in‐the‐home programs (delivering a limited range of acute care services to selected patients)1013; outpatient major surgery programs (providing surgical procedures with postoperative recovery periods short enough to permit same‐day discharge);14 and, more recently, quick diagnosis units ([QDUs], outpatient diagnostic units for patients with suspected severe disease).2, 3, 15, 16

Current referral processes for diagnosis and specialized care in primary health care (PHC), especially waiting times for diagnostic procedures, are longeven in patients with suspected cancerin public health systems such as in Spain. This results in PHC physicians and patients using the ED as a voluntary shortcut.3, 6, 17

In 1996, the use and benefits of quick‐and‐early diagnosis units were first described for suspected cancer patients referred from PHC centers to the Queen Elizabeth Hospital in Birmingham, England.16 Patients were evaluated by specialists according to the suspected diagnosis (eg, patients with hematuria or testicular masses were assessed by urologists).

QDUs are a little‐reported, potentially cost‐saving alternative that allow coordinated, agile diagnostic procedures and may avoid hospital admission. QDUs increase patient comfort by allowing many to remain at home during the diagnostic process.17 QDUs have been introduced in Spain in recent years, and are mainly directed by internists (similar to hospitalists in the United States). Patients with specific symptoms, such as breast or testicular masses, are referred to, and evaluated directly by, the appropriate medical specialist.17 Apart from 2 Opinion articles on QDUs led by specialists other than internists in the United Kingdom,16 and by internists (our group) in Spain,17 there are, to our knowledge, no other English‐language reports on this healthcare model.

The aim of this study was to describe the functioning of a QDU in a Spanish public university hospital after evaluating 2000 consecutive patients. We intended to ascertain the utility and cost of the model compared to conventional hospitalization and the degree of patient satisfaction.

METHODS

We carried out a longitudinal, descriptive study in a prospective cohort of 2000 consecutive QDU patients, evaluated between December 2007 and July 2010, in a public university hospital with 840 acute beds, serving a reference population of 540,000 in Barcelona, Spain.

The QDU is composed of a specialist in internal medicine and a registered nurse who work in the QDU for 5 hours daily, 5 days a week (Monday‐Friday), assisted by specialists from other specialties. It has a consulting room and a waiting room for patients and families, and functions daily.

For comparison, we analyzed a retrospective cohort of 1454 patients diagnosed with anemia (n = 548), cachexia‐anorexia syndrome (n = 458), febrile syndrome (n = 240), and adenopathies or palpable masses (n = 208) admitted to the internal medicine department between September 2006 and June 2010. Patients were randomly selected from the 2022 consecutive patients with these diagnoses, hospitalized during this period and compared, on an unmatched basis, with all 1468 QDU patients with the same diagnoses.

Patients evaluated by the QDU have potentially severe disease that would normally require hospital admission for diagnosis, but whose health status allows outpatient study, and who have no physical or psychological disability that would make attending the hospital several times difficult. The criteria for QDU referral are agreed with central services (Table 1). In our hospital, patients with lung abnormalities (eg, pulmonary nodules) are usually evaluated quickly in the 1‐day hospital of the respiratory diseases department, however, they are not excluded from QDU evaluation.

Criteria for Referral to the Quick Diagnosis Unit
  • Hemoglobin level below 8 g/L, with or without symptoms.

  • Unexplained anorexia, asthenia, and loss of 10% or more of body weight during at least 6 weeks.

  • Fever of unknown origin with a temperature equal to, or higher than, 38C for at least 2 weeks.

  • Mainly suggestive of neoplasm, and after excluding obvious causes such as community‐acquired pneumonia or residual lesions.

Anemia*
Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome
Febrile syndrome
Adenopathies and/or palpable masses
Unexplained severe abdominal pain
Chronic diarrhea
Rectorrhagia
Jaundice
Lung and/or pleural abnormalities
Unexplained dyspnea
Dysphagia
Ascites
Anasarca
Arthritis

Our QDU protocol is based on an urgent first visit, followed by preferential programming and coordination of complementary tests, and subsequent visits until a diagnosis is made. The main diagnostic tests are normally carried out within 10 days after the first visit and, thus, visits are not consecutive but spread over a short period of time. Patients are attended on an ambulatory basis and do not stay overnight.

Inclusion Criteria

When setting up the QDU, the ED, PHC centers, outpatients and other sources of referral were informed and trained in QDU referral criteria (Table 1). All diseases selected for QDU assessment were agreed according to established guidelines. For example, only patients with severe anemia, with or without symptoms, defined as a hemoglobin concentration <8 g/L, our accepted criterion for hospitalization for diagnosis and treatment, were included.

Exclusion Criteria

Patients who fulfilled the inclusion criteria but were judged by the QDU or ED physician as requiring hospitalization or routine outpatient study (eg, active bleeding, uncompensated heart failure, impaired general status, mobility, and social problems) were excluded. Likewise, patients lost to follow‐up or hospitalized during the study due to complications, and deaths were excluded.

For each patient, in addition to clinical data, we prospectively recorded: demographic data; reason for consultation; source of referral; waiting time for the first visit; number and date of visits; waiting times between visits; time to diagnosis; type, number, and date of complementary tests; final diagnosis; and onward referral. The full diagnostic workup was done according to previously established protocols. The Charlson comorbidity index was calculated.18 Blood transfusions and the mean number of units used (SAG‐M red cell concentrates with a median volume per unit of 289 [25] ml) were recorded and administered according to hospital protocol. The time to diagnosis was defined as the time from the first visit to a definitive diagnosis, and usually coincided with the results of diagnostic tests (eg, imaging or pathology).

The same factors were recorded for hospitalized patients (retrospective cohort) except for waiting time to the first visit, number and date of visits, waiting times between visits, and time to diagnosis. In addition, we recorded the mean hospital stay for each patient. Hospital admission avoided was defined as patients who would have been admitted for a diagnostic workup if there were no QDU.

We made a cost analysis using microcosting techniques. First, we calculated the mean number of QDU visits in 150 randomly selected patients with iron‐deficiency anemia, 150 with cachexia‐anorexia syndrome, 150 with fever of unknown origin, and 150 with adenopathies and/or palpable masses. We analyzed the full direct and indirect costs, and calculated the mean cost per visit and the mean cost per process (admission to discharge). The mean length‐of‐stay, and direct and indirect costs were also calculated retrospectively for the same number of hospitalized patients in 2 internal medicine wards, as were the mean cost per daily stay and the mean cost per process (admission to discharge). In our hospital, a 25‐bed internal medicine ward is staffed by 2 consultant physicians and 4 residents, a nursing sister, and 3 teams of 3 registered nurses working 8‐hour daily shifts, 2 nursing assistants, and a full‐time secretary. In contrast, the QDU is staffed by a physician and a nurse, and receives administrative support from 2 secretaries shared with other units. All staff salaries were included in the analysis. All costs analyzed were hospital costs and not National Health Service costs.

A telephone survey was carried out in a random sample of 225 patients 3 months after the QDU intervention, based on a survey previously used and validated by our department. To respect privacy issues, all participants provided verbal consent over the telephone prior to the survey interview. Approval was obtained from the hospital Ethics Committee. The survey consisted of 20 multiple choice questions (4 options) and evaluated: perception of the care process, degree of difficulty of travel to the unit, overall satisfaction, preferential future care type, and conditions of physical space.

Statistical Analysis

The mean, standard deviation, median, and 25% and 75% percentiles were calculated for descriptive variables. Categorical variables were compared using the chi‐square test or Fisher's exact test as necessary. Continuous variables were analyzed using the Student t test for variables with a normal distribution, and the MannWhitney U nonparametric test for variables with a non‐normal distribution. The level of statistical significance was established as P = 0.05. The analysis was made using the SAS v.9.1 statistical package (SAS Institute, Cary, NC).

RESULTS

Of the 2302 patients initially evaluated, 276 were excluded due to associated conditions that made outpatient QDU management inappropriate, 7 patients were lost to follow‐up, 4 died, and 15 were hospitalized during the study due to complications. Therefore, 2000 QDU patients were finally included, of whom 1106 were female, with a mean age of 60 years (18.84).

The main reasons for consultation are shown in Table 2. The main sources of referral were the ED (1022 patients) and PHC centers (942 patients). Waiting time for the first QDU visit ranged from 2 to 8 days (mean: 3.9 days) in patients referred from PHC centers, and 0 to 4 days (mean: 2.1 days) in patients referred by the ED.

Main Reasons for Consultation (n = 2000)
Reasons for Consultationn (%)
  • Hemoglobin level below 8 g/L, with or without symptoms.

  • Unexplained anorexia, asthenia, and loss of 10% or more of body weight during at least 6 weeks.

  • Fever of unknown origin with a temperature equal to, or higher than, 38C for at least 2 weeks.

Anemia*550 (27.5)
Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome462 (23.1)
Febrile syndrome244 (12.2)
Adenopathies and/or palpable masses212 (10.6)
Abdominal pain128 (6.4)
Chronic diarrhea108 (5.4)
Lung abnormalities50 (2.5)

The 2000 first visits generated 4260 successive visits (ratio first/successive = 2.13). The average number of visits per patient was 3.11.

The most frequent diagnoses were cancer (both epithelial and hematological) in 526/2000 (26.3%) patients, and iron‐deficiency anemia (unrelated to malignancy) in 360 patients. The most common cancers were colon cancer and lymphomas, while the main cause of iron‐deficiency anemia was chronic gastrointestinal bleeding (148/2000 [7.4%] patients) (Table 3).

Main Diagnoses of Quick Diagnosis Unit Patients
Diagnosisn (%)
  • Abbreviations: MGUS, monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance; UPM, unknown primary‐site malignancy.

  • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, myelodysplastic syndrome, and multiple myeloma.

Malignant neoplasm526 (26.3)
Colon132 (6.6)
Lymphoma142 (7.1)
Gastric46 (2.3)
Lung37 (1.9)
Pancreas89 (4.5)
Other hematological*32 (1.6)
Breast20 (1.0)
Ovary16 (0.8)
UPM12 (0.6)
Iron‐deficiency anemia360 (18)
Digestive148 (7.4)
Unknown cause80 (4.0)
Heavy menstrual bleeding66 (3.3)
Multifactorial anemia66 (3.3)
Chronic liver disease57 (2.9)
Acute viral illness80 (4)
Reactive adenitis78 (3.9)
MGUS34 (1.7)

The mean time to diagnosis was 9.4 days (1.78). After the diagnostic study was completed, 1232 patients were referred to PHC centers, 712 to outpatients, and 56 required hospitalization.

Taking into account previously used criteria, we estimated that 820 (41%) patients would have been candidates for conventional hospitalization (for diagnostic studies) before QDU was created. Considering that the mean length‐of‐stay of the internal medicine department (50 beds) during 2009 for patients admitted for a diagnostic workup was 10.3 days, we estimated that 12.5 beds per day during a year were freed up (ie, 4563 bed‐days saved in a year). On the other hand, 45 of 1000 (4.5%) patients required immediate or early hospitalization due to their bad health status, which impeded further QDU diagnosis.

Table 4 shows the main characteristics of QDU and hospitalized patients according to the main reasons for consultation. QDU patients with anemia were significantly younger than hospitalized patients with the same diagnosis (P < 0.0001). Other parameters, notably age, time to diagnosis versus length‐of‐stay, and Charlson comorbidity index showed no statistically significant differences in any of the 4 main reasons for consultation (Table 4).

Main Characteristics of Quick Diagnosis Unit and Hospitalized Patients
AnemiaQDU (n = 550)Hospitalized (n = 548)P Value
  • NOTE: Data expressed as mean (SD) and median [P25‐P75].

  • Abbreviations: Charlson co. index, Charlson comorbidity index; HS, length‐of‐stay; NS, nonsignificant; QDU, quick diagnosis unit; SD, standard deviation.

Age66.72 (15.23) 71 [59;79]77.18 (13.71) 79.23 [72;85]<0.0001
Female280 (51%)291 (53.1%) 
Male270 (49%)257 (46.9%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)7.91 (1.41) 8 [6;9]8.66 (3.44) 8.5 [7;10]NS
Hemoglobin75.56 (20.9) 76 [55;79]74.94 (19.1) 76 [61;78]NS
Anemic syndrome509 (92.3%)512 (93.4%)NS
Transfusion362 (65.8%)355 (64.8%)NS
Charlson co. index1.3 (2.1) 1.5 [1;1.6]1.4 (2.2) 1.5 [1;1.8]NS
Main diagnosisIron‐deficiency anemia/colon cancerIron‐deficiency anemia/colon cancer 
Cachexia‐Anorexia SyndromeQDU (n = 462)Hospitalized (n = 458)P Value
Age68.32 (18.27) 69 [60;77]70.23 (15.23) 73.5 [68;79]NS
Female230 (49.8%)236 (51.6%) 
Male232 (50.2%)222 (48.4%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)10.21 (3.31) 11 [10;12]11.32 (4.12) 12 [10;13]NS
Weight loss (Kg)9.7 (2.25) 10 [9;12]9.5 (1.76) 10 [8;11]NS
Charlson co. index1.1 (2.1) 1.3 [1;1.4]1.2 (2.4) 1.4 [1;1.6]NS
Main diagnosisPancreatic cancerPancreatic cancer 
Febrile SyndromeQDU (n = 244)Hospitalized (n = 240)P Value
Age47.18 (15.23) 50 [45;55]49.34 (14.72) 53 [49;56]NS
Female127 (52%)121 (50.4%) 
Male117 (48%)119 (49.6%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)8.32 (2.23) 9 [8;10.5]9.11 (3.54) 10.5 [9;11.5]NS
Mean duration of fever (days)20.15 (12.12) 24 [20;26]19.76 (10.54) 23 [19;25]NS
Charlson co. index1.0 (1.5) 1.2 [1.1;1.6]1.2 (2.1) 1.3 [0.9;1.4]NS
Main diagnosisLymphomaLymphoma 
Adenopathies and/or Palpable MassesQDU (n = 212)Hospitalized (n = 208)P Value
Age58.23 (17.20) 59.5 [55;61]60.19 (13.21) 64 [58;65]NS
Female110 (51.9%)106 (51%) 
Male102 (48.1%)102 (49%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS7.89 (2.54) 8 [7;9]7.77 (3.23) 9 [7.5;11]NS
Charlson co. index1.1 (1.1) 1.3 [0.8;1.4]1.1 (1.7) 1.5 [1.1;1.6]NS
Main diagnosisLymphomaLymphoma 

Table 5 shows the mean costs per stay, per visit, and per process for hospitalized and QDU patients included in the 4 main reasons for consultation. In hospitalized patients, the total mean cost per day of hospital stay was 363.35 Euros, and the mean cost per process was 3153.87 (910) Euros. In contrast, the mean cost per process in the QDU was 702.33 (610) Euros.

Mean Costs (Euros) of Hospitalization and Quick Diagnosis Unit
   Cost per Process*
 Hospitalization (1‐day stay)QDU (1 visit)HospitalizationQDU
  • NOTE: Mean stay: hospitalization, 8.68 days; QDU, 3.11 visits.

  • Abbreviations: NA, not applicable; QDU, quick diagnosis unit; SD, standard deviation.

  • Admission to discharge episode.

  • Direct costs.

  • Salary of all the staff for a single stay of 12.5 patients.

  • Includes blood transfusions.

  • Includes costs of patient transportation to and from the QDU, and costs of accompanying personnel.

Staff salary260.9458.792264.96182.84
Complementary tests53.73158.12466.38491.75
Stock15.270.84132.542.61
Pharmacy,0.970.158.420.47
Medical gases0.02NA0.17NA
Catering15.23NA132.20NA
Cleaning8.784.4776.2113.90
Laundry5.110.2344.350.72
Maintenance0.470.284.080.87
Communications0.310.292.690.90
Mail0.000.000.000.00
Depreciation2.521.2621.873.92
TravelNA1.4NA4.35
Total363.35225.833153.87 (SD: 910)702.33 (SD: 610)

Compliance with the patient survey was 94%. The results highlighted 3 main aspects: a) overall satisfaction with QDU care was high in 93% of cases; b) repeated travel to the hospital was not a major difficulty; and c) if further diagnostic tests were required, 84% of patients would prefer the QDU care model to hospitalization. The same results were obtained analyzing only patients with previous hospital admission. The remaining 16% indicated no preference for 1 type of care.

DISCUSSION

Our results indicate that, for diagnostic purposes, patients with potentially severe diseases can be managed similarly in a QDU or in‐hospital setting, and that the QDU model saves money compared to hospitalization. QDU patients expressed a high degree of satisfaction, with most preferring this model to hospital admission.

The only significant difference between QDU and hospitalized patients in the 4 main reasons for consultation was age in anemia patients, which may reflect the decision of the ED physician to exclude 56 patients from the initial evaluation. A separate analysis of this subgroup revealed an older age (75.3 years) and a higher number of comorbidities (Charlson index = 2.3) (data not shown).

In Spain, some patients with potentially severe diseases are hospitalized for several days for diagnostic tests without therapy. Can these patients be studied and diagnosed on an outpatient basis? Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome and severe anemia are among the main disorders for which patients are hospitalized for diagnostic tests.5, 7 In our center and others, anemia, with hemoglobin levels <8 g/L, is a criterion for hospitalization for both diagnosis and treatment.2, 3, 17 These patients are commonly evaluated initially in the ED and hospitalized in internal medicine wards, where they have a full baseline laboratory analysis (to study the type of anemia in naive conditions), a blood transfusion if necessary, and several days' hospitalization for diagnostic tests.

The motives for QDU consultation and the final diagnoses are fairly homogenous among Spanish units,2, 3, 15 allowing a profile to be drawn up of patients who could benefit from early QDU diagnosis. In 88% of our patients, the reasons for consultation were anemia, cachexia‐anorexia syndrome, febrile syndrome, adenopathies and/or palpable masses, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and lung abnormalities. The most frequent diagnosis was cancer (26.3%), although most patients showed no clear signs or symptoms of cancer at the initial consultation, suggesting that nonspecific but suspicious symptoms warrant early investigation.

QDUs seem to reduce costs, as reported by a 2004 Spanish study of patients evaluated for various conditions,3 which found that the mean cost per patient was up to 8 times cheaper than conventional hospitalization; hospitalization was avoided in 45% of patients, representing the freeing up of 7 internal medicine beds per day. In our case, and on the basis of previous criteria, avoiding hospital admission in 41% of patients evaluated resulted in the permanent freeing up of 12.5 internal medicine beds per day and a significant reduction in hospital costs. However, this does not mean the QDU system would reduce costs by permanently freeing inpatient beds, as its adoption would drive up systemic costs due to increased QDU utilization and indirect admissions from the QDU to the hospital. The cost differences between QDU and hospitalized patients (702.33 vs 3153.87 Euros) were due to differences in staffing and working hours and, to a lesser degree, fixed hospital costs (eg, catering) (Table 5). This might suggest that our internal medicine wards and QDU are overstaffed and understaffed, respectively, and that resources may be more effectively used in QDU. However, different staff dimensions between hospitals limits the extrapolation of costs and savings.

The QDU model has limitations. Using QDU resources to diagnose mild disorders could delay the diagnosis of severe disease and, therefore, clear agreement on referral criteria is essential. Likewise, although we followed approved guidelines, QDU physicians may prescribe too many diagnostic tests, searching for severe diseases the patient is unlikely to have, especially if the referral diagnosis is incorrect.17 This could be minimized by implementing standardized QDU diagnostic protocols and guidelines. In our study, the type and mean number of complementary explorations in patients with the 4 main reasons for consultation was similar between QDU and hospitalized patients (2.27 vs 2.33, respectively) (data not shown).

How and where (in‐hospital vs outpatients or PHC) patients with potentially severe disease, such as those seen in QDUs, are managed in different countries seems to vary widely. Although there are few reports on this topic,19, 20 these variations might be due, among other reasons, to guidelines for invasive diagnostic procedures and departmental and hospital traditions. Our findings may result in a shift in the paradigm of hospitalization for the diagnostic evaluation of patients with severe conditions, who are often hospitalized and, in some cases, studied in naive conditions (eg, anemia). Our results have already resulted in policy changes, since, increasingly, patients are referred directly from the ED or PHC centers to the QDU rather than being hospitalized, with the consequent savings in hospital beds and costs. Although, ideally, the QDU workup should be led by the primary care physician, waiting times for diagnostic tests are inappropriately long, as mentioned above. A successful reform would likely require better, more agile coordination between PHC and hospital settings, with quicker access to diagnostic procedures from PHC centers.

Ruling out cancer and, indirectly, easing the uncertainty and fear caused by suspected malignancy in patients awaiting diagnostic confirmation is one of the main QDU objectives.21 Cancer is the most common diagnosis (nearly 20% of patients) in Spanish QDUs.2, 3, 17 According to the Strategy on Cancer of the Spanish National Health System 2006, every patient with a well‐founded clinical suspicion of cancer must undergo a first confirmatory diagnostic test within 15 days of the suspicion.22 Our QDU patients received a final diagnosis of cancer in a mean of 11.82 days (waiting time plus evaluation period) (data not shown).

Due to unacceptable outpatient delays, most patients with suspected cancer are hospitalized directly from outpatients for the diagnostic workup,17 although this may be inappropriate in patients who are still practically asymptomatic. Inappropriate use of acute hospital beds, measured by different instruments, ranges from 6% to >20%,2326 with the most common reason being programmed hospitalization solely for diagnostic tests. Twenty‐eight percent of hospital admissions to a public hospital in England in 2000 were reported as inappropriate, mainly because diagnostic tests or treatment could have been made on an outpatient basis.25

QDU may be inappropriate outside publicly funded health systems. The QDU model could be useful, for example, in the United Kingdom, Italy, Canada, and Latin‐American countries; overcrowding and long waiting lists in PHC, and suboptimal coordination between primary and hospital care, means patients with suspected severe disease, including those in good health, are hospitalized for diagnostic tests, aggravating overcrowding and increasing costs.17 However, in countries with mainly private healthcare systems, QDUs created to reduce health costs or free hospital beds may not be as relevant. In the United States, although day hospitals and urgent care units provide similar care to QDUs (at least in urban areas), most insurers would not cover such admissions without clinical urgency, while access and efficient, streamlined care, is a major concern.

The exclusion criteria, which were based on the ED/QDU physician's judgment, are a limitation of the study. This might be circumvented by a randomized study evaluating 2 cohorts prospectively, although there would still be patients whose clinical status would require hospitalization and exclusion from QDU evaluation.

In conclusion, QDUs can manage the diagnosis of patients with potentially severe diseases equally as well as traditional hospitalization and saves costs. QDU patients expressed a high degree of satisfaction, with most preferring this model to hospitalization.

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  20. Wahner‐Roedler DL,Chaliki SS,Bauer BA, et al.Who makes the diagnosis? The role of clinical skills and diagnostic test results.J Eval Clin Pract.2007;13:321325.
  21. Fentiman IS.Two week wait for suspected cancer: milestone or millstone?Int J Clin Pract.2005;59:12511252.
  22. Plan de calidad para el Sistema Nacional de Salud. Estrategia en cáncer del Sistema Nacional de Salud. Ministerio de Sanidad y Consumo 2006. Available at: http://www.msc.es/organizacion/sns/planCalidadSNS/pdf/excelencia/cancer‐cardiopatia/CANCER/opsc_est1.pdf.pdf. Accessed October 17,2010.
  23. Coast J,Inglis A,Frankel S.Alternatives to hospital care: what are they and who should decide?BMJ.1996;312:162166.
  24. Hensher M,Fulop N,Coast J,Jefferys E.The hospital of the future. Better out than in? Alternatives to acute hospital care.BMJ.1999;319:11271130.
  25. Campbell J.Inappropriate admissions. Thoughts of patients and referring doctors.J R Soc Med.2001;94:628631.
  26. Chopard P,Perneger TV,Gaspoz JM, et al.Predictors of inappropriate hospital days in a department of internal medicine.Int J Epidemiol.1998;27:513519.
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In recent years, hospitals in countries with public health systems have adopted organizational changes to improve efficiency and resource allocation. Acute hospital bed utilization is a growing concern for healthcare systems in these countries, as it represents a significant share of health costs.1

Inappropriate hospitalization is a significant problem for public health systems. In Spain and other countries, due to deficiencies in outpatient services, acute beds are increasingly occupied by patients requiring diagnostic tests for nonacute but potentially severe diseases that often need no immediate treatment, thereby reducing beds for acute patients.2, 3

Reports suggest 9% to 17% of patients admitted to Spanish internal medicine units could be studied on an outpatient basis.47 However, long delays in outpatient diagnostic tests in Spain make diagnosis outside conventional hospitalization unviable, especially when rapid access to tests for suspected malignancy is required.

These shortcomings have prompted the search for alternatives to hospitalization. Alternative care models include: 1‐day hospitals (providing medical procedures requiring <24 hours of hospitalization)8; short‐stay observation units (often located adjacent to emergency departments [ED], and accommodating patients requiring brief periods of observation or therapy)912; hospital‐in‐the‐home programs (delivering a limited range of acute care services to selected patients)1013; outpatient major surgery programs (providing surgical procedures with postoperative recovery periods short enough to permit same‐day discharge);14 and, more recently, quick diagnosis units ([QDUs], outpatient diagnostic units for patients with suspected severe disease).2, 3, 15, 16

Current referral processes for diagnosis and specialized care in primary health care (PHC), especially waiting times for diagnostic procedures, are longeven in patients with suspected cancerin public health systems such as in Spain. This results in PHC physicians and patients using the ED as a voluntary shortcut.3, 6, 17

In 1996, the use and benefits of quick‐and‐early diagnosis units were first described for suspected cancer patients referred from PHC centers to the Queen Elizabeth Hospital in Birmingham, England.16 Patients were evaluated by specialists according to the suspected diagnosis (eg, patients with hematuria or testicular masses were assessed by urologists).

QDUs are a little‐reported, potentially cost‐saving alternative that allow coordinated, agile diagnostic procedures and may avoid hospital admission. QDUs increase patient comfort by allowing many to remain at home during the diagnostic process.17 QDUs have been introduced in Spain in recent years, and are mainly directed by internists (similar to hospitalists in the United States). Patients with specific symptoms, such as breast or testicular masses, are referred to, and evaluated directly by, the appropriate medical specialist.17 Apart from 2 Opinion articles on QDUs led by specialists other than internists in the United Kingdom,16 and by internists (our group) in Spain,17 there are, to our knowledge, no other English‐language reports on this healthcare model.

The aim of this study was to describe the functioning of a QDU in a Spanish public university hospital after evaluating 2000 consecutive patients. We intended to ascertain the utility and cost of the model compared to conventional hospitalization and the degree of patient satisfaction.

METHODS

We carried out a longitudinal, descriptive study in a prospective cohort of 2000 consecutive QDU patients, evaluated between December 2007 and July 2010, in a public university hospital with 840 acute beds, serving a reference population of 540,000 in Barcelona, Spain.

The QDU is composed of a specialist in internal medicine and a registered nurse who work in the QDU for 5 hours daily, 5 days a week (Monday‐Friday), assisted by specialists from other specialties. It has a consulting room and a waiting room for patients and families, and functions daily.

For comparison, we analyzed a retrospective cohort of 1454 patients diagnosed with anemia (n = 548), cachexia‐anorexia syndrome (n = 458), febrile syndrome (n = 240), and adenopathies or palpable masses (n = 208) admitted to the internal medicine department between September 2006 and June 2010. Patients were randomly selected from the 2022 consecutive patients with these diagnoses, hospitalized during this period and compared, on an unmatched basis, with all 1468 QDU patients with the same diagnoses.

Patients evaluated by the QDU have potentially severe disease that would normally require hospital admission for diagnosis, but whose health status allows outpatient study, and who have no physical or psychological disability that would make attending the hospital several times difficult. The criteria for QDU referral are agreed with central services (Table 1). In our hospital, patients with lung abnormalities (eg, pulmonary nodules) are usually evaluated quickly in the 1‐day hospital of the respiratory diseases department, however, they are not excluded from QDU evaluation.

Criteria for Referral to the Quick Diagnosis Unit
  • Hemoglobin level below 8 g/L, with or without symptoms.

  • Unexplained anorexia, asthenia, and loss of 10% or more of body weight during at least 6 weeks.

  • Fever of unknown origin with a temperature equal to, or higher than, 38C for at least 2 weeks.

  • Mainly suggestive of neoplasm, and after excluding obvious causes such as community‐acquired pneumonia or residual lesions.

Anemia*
Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome
Febrile syndrome
Adenopathies and/or palpable masses
Unexplained severe abdominal pain
Chronic diarrhea
Rectorrhagia
Jaundice
Lung and/or pleural abnormalities
Unexplained dyspnea
Dysphagia
Ascites
Anasarca
Arthritis

Our QDU protocol is based on an urgent first visit, followed by preferential programming and coordination of complementary tests, and subsequent visits until a diagnosis is made. The main diagnostic tests are normally carried out within 10 days after the first visit and, thus, visits are not consecutive but spread over a short period of time. Patients are attended on an ambulatory basis and do not stay overnight.

Inclusion Criteria

When setting up the QDU, the ED, PHC centers, outpatients and other sources of referral were informed and trained in QDU referral criteria (Table 1). All diseases selected for QDU assessment were agreed according to established guidelines. For example, only patients with severe anemia, with or without symptoms, defined as a hemoglobin concentration <8 g/L, our accepted criterion for hospitalization for diagnosis and treatment, were included.

Exclusion Criteria

Patients who fulfilled the inclusion criteria but were judged by the QDU or ED physician as requiring hospitalization or routine outpatient study (eg, active bleeding, uncompensated heart failure, impaired general status, mobility, and social problems) were excluded. Likewise, patients lost to follow‐up or hospitalized during the study due to complications, and deaths were excluded.

For each patient, in addition to clinical data, we prospectively recorded: demographic data; reason for consultation; source of referral; waiting time for the first visit; number and date of visits; waiting times between visits; time to diagnosis; type, number, and date of complementary tests; final diagnosis; and onward referral. The full diagnostic workup was done according to previously established protocols. The Charlson comorbidity index was calculated.18 Blood transfusions and the mean number of units used (SAG‐M red cell concentrates with a median volume per unit of 289 [25] ml) were recorded and administered according to hospital protocol. The time to diagnosis was defined as the time from the first visit to a definitive diagnosis, and usually coincided with the results of diagnostic tests (eg, imaging or pathology).

The same factors were recorded for hospitalized patients (retrospective cohort) except for waiting time to the first visit, number and date of visits, waiting times between visits, and time to diagnosis. In addition, we recorded the mean hospital stay for each patient. Hospital admission avoided was defined as patients who would have been admitted for a diagnostic workup if there were no QDU.

We made a cost analysis using microcosting techniques. First, we calculated the mean number of QDU visits in 150 randomly selected patients with iron‐deficiency anemia, 150 with cachexia‐anorexia syndrome, 150 with fever of unknown origin, and 150 with adenopathies and/or palpable masses. We analyzed the full direct and indirect costs, and calculated the mean cost per visit and the mean cost per process (admission to discharge). The mean length‐of‐stay, and direct and indirect costs were also calculated retrospectively for the same number of hospitalized patients in 2 internal medicine wards, as were the mean cost per daily stay and the mean cost per process (admission to discharge). In our hospital, a 25‐bed internal medicine ward is staffed by 2 consultant physicians and 4 residents, a nursing sister, and 3 teams of 3 registered nurses working 8‐hour daily shifts, 2 nursing assistants, and a full‐time secretary. In contrast, the QDU is staffed by a physician and a nurse, and receives administrative support from 2 secretaries shared with other units. All staff salaries were included in the analysis. All costs analyzed were hospital costs and not National Health Service costs.

A telephone survey was carried out in a random sample of 225 patients 3 months after the QDU intervention, based on a survey previously used and validated by our department. To respect privacy issues, all participants provided verbal consent over the telephone prior to the survey interview. Approval was obtained from the hospital Ethics Committee. The survey consisted of 20 multiple choice questions (4 options) and evaluated: perception of the care process, degree of difficulty of travel to the unit, overall satisfaction, preferential future care type, and conditions of physical space.

Statistical Analysis

The mean, standard deviation, median, and 25% and 75% percentiles were calculated for descriptive variables. Categorical variables were compared using the chi‐square test or Fisher's exact test as necessary. Continuous variables were analyzed using the Student t test for variables with a normal distribution, and the MannWhitney U nonparametric test for variables with a non‐normal distribution. The level of statistical significance was established as P = 0.05. The analysis was made using the SAS v.9.1 statistical package (SAS Institute, Cary, NC).

RESULTS

Of the 2302 patients initially evaluated, 276 were excluded due to associated conditions that made outpatient QDU management inappropriate, 7 patients were lost to follow‐up, 4 died, and 15 were hospitalized during the study due to complications. Therefore, 2000 QDU patients were finally included, of whom 1106 were female, with a mean age of 60 years (18.84).

The main reasons for consultation are shown in Table 2. The main sources of referral were the ED (1022 patients) and PHC centers (942 patients). Waiting time for the first QDU visit ranged from 2 to 8 days (mean: 3.9 days) in patients referred from PHC centers, and 0 to 4 days (mean: 2.1 days) in patients referred by the ED.

Main Reasons for Consultation (n = 2000)
Reasons for Consultationn (%)
  • Hemoglobin level below 8 g/L, with or without symptoms.

  • Unexplained anorexia, asthenia, and loss of 10% or more of body weight during at least 6 weeks.

  • Fever of unknown origin with a temperature equal to, or higher than, 38C for at least 2 weeks.

Anemia*550 (27.5)
Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome462 (23.1)
Febrile syndrome244 (12.2)
Adenopathies and/or palpable masses212 (10.6)
Abdominal pain128 (6.4)
Chronic diarrhea108 (5.4)
Lung abnormalities50 (2.5)

The 2000 first visits generated 4260 successive visits (ratio first/successive = 2.13). The average number of visits per patient was 3.11.

The most frequent diagnoses were cancer (both epithelial and hematological) in 526/2000 (26.3%) patients, and iron‐deficiency anemia (unrelated to malignancy) in 360 patients. The most common cancers were colon cancer and lymphomas, while the main cause of iron‐deficiency anemia was chronic gastrointestinal bleeding (148/2000 [7.4%] patients) (Table 3).

Main Diagnoses of Quick Diagnosis Unit Patients
Diagnosisn (%)
  • Abbreviations: MGUS, monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance; UPM, unknown primary‐site malignancy.

  • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, myelodysplastic syndrome, and multiple myeloma.

Malignant neoplasm526 (26.3)
Colon132 (6.6)
Lymphoma142 (7.1)
Gastric46 (2.3)
Lung37 (1.9)
Pancreas89 (4.5)
Other hematological*32 (1.6)
Breast20 (1.0)
Ovary16 (0.8)
UPM12 (0.6)
Iron‐deficiency anemia360 (18)
Digestive148 (7.4)
Unknown cause80 (4.0)
Heavy menstrual bleeding66 (3.3)
Multifactorial anemia66 (3.3)
Chronic liver disease57 (2.9)
Acute viral illness80 (4)
Reactive adenitis78 (3.9)
MGUS34 (1.7)

The mean time to diagnosis was 9.4 days (1.78). After the diagnostic study was completed, 1232 patients were referred to PHC centers, 712 to outpatients, and 56 required hospitalization.

Taking into account previously used criteria, we estimated that 820 (41%) patients would have been candidates for conventional hospitalization (for diagnostic studies) before QDU was created. Considering that the mean length‐of‐stay of the internal medicine department (50 beds) during 2009 for patients admitted for a diagnostic workup was 10.3 days, we estimated that 12.5 beds per day during a year were freed up (ie, 4563 bed‐days saved in a year). On the other hand, 45 of 1000 (4.5%) patients required immediate or early hospitalization due to their bad health status, which impeded further QDU diagnosis.

Table 4 shows the main characteristics of QDU and hospitalized patients according to the main reasons for consultation. QDU patients with anemia were significantly younger than hospitalized patients with the same diagnosis (P < 0.0001). Other parameters, notably age, time to diagnosis versus length‐of‐stay, and Charlson comorbidity index showed no statistically significant differences in any of the 4 main reasons for consultation (Table 4).

Main Characteristics of Quick Diagnosis Unit and Hospitalized Patients
AnemiaQDU (n = 550)Hospitalized (n = 548)P Value
  • NOTE: Data expressed as mean (SD) and median [P25‐P75].

  • Abbreviations: Charlson co. index, Charlson comorbidity index; HS, length‐of‐stay; NS, nonsignificant; QDU, quick diagnosis unit; SD, standard deviation.

Age66.72 (15.23) 71 [59;79]77.18 (13.71) 79.23 [72;85]<0.0001
Female280 (51%)291 (53.1%) 
Male270 (49%)257 (46.9%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)7.91 (1.41) 8 [6;9]8.66 (3.44) 8.5 [7;10]NS
Hemoglobin75.56 (20.9) 76 [55;79]74.94 (19.1) 76 [61;78]NS
Anemic syndrome509 (92.3%)512 (93.4%)NS
Transfusion362 (65.8%)355 (64.8%)NS
Charlson co. index1.3 (2.1) 1.5 [1;1.6]1.4 (2.2) 1.5 [1;1.8]NS
Main diagnosisIron‐deficiency anemia/colon cancerIron‐deficiency anemia/colon cancer 
Cachexia‐Anorexia SyndromeQDU (n = 462)Hospitalized (n = 458)P Value
Age68.32 (18.27) 69 [60;77]70.23 (15.23) 73.5 [68;79]NS
Female230 (49.8%)236 (51.6%) 
Male232 (50.2%)222 (48.4%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)10.21 (3.31) 11 [10;12]11.32 (4.12) 12 [10;13]NS
Weight loss (Kg)9.7 (2.25) 10 [9;12]9.5 (1.76) 10 [8;11]NS
Charlson co. index1.1 (2.1) 1.3 [1;1.4]1.2 (2.4) 1.4 [1;1.6]NS
Main diagnosisPancreatic cancerPancreatic cancer 
Febrile SyndromeQDU (n = 244)Hospitalized (n = 240)P Value
Age47.18 (15.23) 50 [45;55]49.34 (14.72) 53 [49;56]NS
Female127 (52%)121 (50.4%) 
Male117 (48%)119 (49.6%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)8.32 (2.23) 9 [8;10.5]9.11 (3.54) 10.5 [9;11.5]NS
Mean duration of fever (days)20.15 (12.12) 24 [20;26]19.76 (10.54) 23 [19;25]NS
Charlson co. index1.0 (1.5) 1.2 [1.1;1.6]1.2 (2.1) 1.3 [0.9;1.4]NS
Main diagnosisLymphomaLymphoma 
Adenopathies and/or Palpable MassesQDU (n = 212)Hospitalized (n = 208)P Value
Age58.23 (17.20) 59.5 [55;61]60.19 (13.21) 64 [58;65]NS
Female110 (51.9%)106 (51%) 
Male102 (48.1%)102 (49%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS7.89 (2.54) 8 [7;9]7.77 (3.23) 9 [7.5;11]NS
Charlson co. index1.1 (1.1) 1.3 [0.8;1.4]1.1 (1.7) 1.5 [1.1;1.6]NS
Main diagnosisLymphomaLymphoma 

Table 5 shows the mean costs per stay, per visit, and per process for hospitalized and QDU patients included in the 4 main reasons for consultation. In hospitalized patients, the total mean cost per day of hospital stay was 363.35 Euros, and the mean cost per process was 3153.87 (910) Euros. In contrast, the mean cost per process in the QDU was 702.33 (610) Euros.

Mean Costs (Euros) of Hospitalization and Quick Diagnosis Unit
   Cost per Process*
 Hospitalization (1‐day stay)QDU (1 visit)HospitalizationQDU
  • NOTE: Mean stay: hospitalization, 8.68 days; QDU, 3.11 visits.

  • Abbreviations: NA, not applicable; QDU, quick diagnosis unit; SD, standard deviation.

  • Admission to discharge episode.

  • Direct costs.

  • Salary of all the staff for a single stay of 12.5 patients.

  • Includes blood transfusions.

  • Includes costs of patient transportation to and from the QDU, and costs of accompanying personnel.

Staff salary260.9458.792264.96182.84
Complementary tests53.73158.12466.38491.75
Stock15.270.84132.542.61
Pharmacy,0.970.158.420.47
Medical gases0.02NA0.17NA
Catering15.23NA132.20NA
Cleaning8.784.4776.2113.90
Laundry5.110.2344.350.72
Maintenance0.470.284.080.87
Communications0.310.292.690.90
Mail0.000.000.000.00
Depreciation2.521.2621.873.92
TravelNA1.4NA4.35
Total363.35225.833153.87 (SD: 910)702.33 (SD: 610)

Compliance with the patient survey was 94%. The results highlighted 3 main aspects: a) overall satisfaction with QDU care was high in 93% of cases; b) repeated travel to the hospital was not a major difficulty; and c) if further diagnostic tests were required, 84% of patients would prefer the QDU care model to hospitalization. The same results were obtained analyzing only patients with previous hospital admission. The remaining 16% indicated no preference for 1 type of care.

DISCUSSION

Our results indicate that, for diagnostic purposes, patients with potentially severe diseases can be managed similarly in a QDU or in‐hospital setting, and that the QDU model saves money compared to hospitalization. QDU patients expressed a high degree of satisfaction, with most preferring this model to hospital admission.

The only significant difference between QDU and hospitalized patients in the 4 main reasons for consultation was age in anemia patients, which may reflect the decision of the ED physician to exclude 56 patients from the initial evaluation. A separate analysis of this subgroup revealed an older age (75.3 years) and a higher number of comorbidities (Charlson index = 2.3) (data not shown).

In Spain, some patients with potentially severe diseases are hospitalized for several days for diagnostic tests without therapy. Can these patients be studied and diagnosed on an outpatient basis? Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome and severe anemia are among the main disorders for which patients are hospitalized for diagnostic tests.5, 7 In our center and others, anemia, with hemoglobin levels <8 g/L, is a criterion for hospitalization for both diagnosis and treatment.2, 3, 17 These patients are commonly evaluated initially in the ED and hospitalized in internal medicine wards, where they have a full baseline laboratory analysis (to study the type of anemia in naive conditions), a blood transfusion if necessary, and several days' hospitalization for diagnostic tests.

The motives for QDU consultation and the final diagnoses are fairly homogenous among Spanish units,2, 3, 15 allowing a profile to be drawn up of patients who could benefit from early QDU diagnosis. In 88% of our patients, the reasons for consultation were anemia, cachexia‐anorexia syndrome, febrile syndrome, adenopathies and/or palpable masses, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and lung abnormalities. The most frequent diagnosis was cancer (26.3%), although most patients showed no clear signs or symptoms of cancer at the initial consultation, suggesting that nonspecific but suspicious symptoms warrant early investigation.

QDUs seem to reduce costs, as reported by a 2004 Spanish study of patients evaluated for various conditions,3 which found that the mean cost per patient was up to 8 times cheaper than conventional hospitalization; hospitalization was avoided in 45% of patients, representing the freeing up of 7 internal medicine beds per day. In our case, and on the basis of previous criteria, avoiding hospital admission in 41% of patients evaluated resulted in the permanent freeing up of 12.5 internal medicine beds per day and a significant reduction in hospital costs. However, this does not mean the QDU system would reduce costs by permanently freeing inpatient beds, as its adoption would drive up systemic costs due to increased QDU utilization and indirect admissions from the QDU to the hospital. The cost differences between QDU and hospitalized patients (702.33 vs 3153.87 Euros) were due to differences in staffing and working hours and, to a lesser degree, fixed hospital costs (eg, catering) (Table 5). This might suggest that our internal medicine wards and QDU are overstaffed and understaffed, respectively, and that resources may be more effectively used in QDU. However, different staff dimensions between hospitals limits the extrapolation of costs and savings.

The QDU model has limitations. Using QDU resources to diagnose mild disorders could delay the diagnosis of severe disease and, therefore, clear agreement on referral criteria is essential. Likewise, although we followed approved guidelines, QDU physicians may prescribe too many diagnostic tests, searching for severe diseases the patient is unlikely to have, especially if the referral diagnosis is incorrect.17 This could be minimized by implementing standardized QDU diagnostic protocols and guidelines. In our study, the type and mean number of complementary explorations in patients with the 4 main reasons for consultation was similar between QDU and hospitalized patients (2.27 vs 2.33, respectively) (data not shown).

How and where (in‐hospital vs outpatients or PHC) patients with potentially severe disease, such as those seen in QDUs, are managed in different countries seems to vary widely. Although there are few reports on this topic,19, 20 these variations might be due, among other reasons, to guidelines for invasive diagnostic procedures and departmental and hospital traditions. Our findings may result in a shift in the paradigm of hospitalization for the diagnostic evaluation of patients with severe conditions, who are often hospitalized and, in some cases, studied in naive conditions (eg, anemia). Our results have already resulted in policy changes, since, increasingly, patients are referred directly from the ED or PHC centers to the QDU rather than being hospitalized, with the consequent savings in hospital beds and costs. Although, ideally, the QDU workup should be led by the primary care physician, waiting times for diagnostic tests are inappropriately long, as mentioned above. A successful reform would likely require better, more agile coordination between PHC and hospital settings, with quicker access to diagnostic procedures from PHC centers.

Ruling out cancer and, indirectly, easing the uncertainty and fear caused by suspected malignancy in patients awaiting diagnostic confirmation is one of the main QDU objectives.21 Cancer is the most common diagnosis (nearly 20% of patients) in Spanish QDUs.2, 3, 17 According to the Strategy on Cancer of the Spanish National Health System 2006, every patient with a well‐founded clinical suspicion of cancer must undergo a first confirmatory diagnostic test within 15 days of the suspicion.22 Our QDU patients received a final diagnosis of cancer in a mean of 11.82 days (waiting time plus evaluation period) (data not shown).

Due to unacceptable outpatient delays, most patients with suspected cancer are hospitalized directly from outpatients for the diagnostic workup,17 although this may be inappropriate in patients who are still practically asymptomatic. Inappropriate use of acute hospital beds, measured by different instruments, ranges from 6% to >20%,2326 with the most common reason being programmed hospitalization solely for diagnostic tests. Twenty‐eight percent of hospital admissions to a public hospital in England in 2000 were reported as inappropriate, mainly because diagnostic tests or treatment could have been made on an outpatient basis.25

QDU may be inappropriate outside publicly funded health systems. The QDU model could be useful, for example, in the United Kingdom, Italy, Canada, and Latin‐American countries; overcrowding and long waiting lists in PHC, and suboptimal coordination between primary and hospital care, means patients with suspected severe disease, including those in good health, are hospitalized for diagnostic tests, aggravating overcrowding and increasing costs.17 However, in countries with mainly private healthcare systems, QDUs created to reduce health costs or free hospital beds may not be as relevant. In the United States, although day hospitals and urgent care units provide similar care to QDUs (at least in urban areas), most insurers would not cover such admissions without clinical urgency, while access and efficient, streamlined care, is a major concern.

The exclusion criteria, which were based on the ED/QDU physician's judgment, are a limitation of the study. This might be circumvented by a randomized study evaluating 2 cohorts prospectively, although there would still be patients whose clinical status would require hospitalization and exclusion from QDU evaluation.

In conclusion, QDUs can manage the diagnosis of patients with potentially severe diseases equally as well as traditional hospitalization and saves costs. QDU patients expressed a high degree of satisfaction, with most preferring this model to hospitalization.

In recent years, hospitals in countries with public health systems have adopted organizational changes to improve efficiency and resource allocation. Acute hospital bed utilization is a growing concern for healthcare systems in these countries, as it represents a significant share of health costs.1

Inappropriate hospitalization is a significant problem for public health systems. In Spain and other countries, due to deficiencies in outpatient services, acute beds are increasingly occupied by patients requiring diagnostic tests for nonacute but potentially severe diseases that often need no immediate treatment, thereby reducing beds for acute patients.2, 3

Reports suggest 9% to 17% of patients admitted to Spanish internal medicine units could be studied on an outpatient basis.47 However, long delays in outpatient diagnostic tests in Spain make diagnosis outside conventional hospitalization unviable, especially when rapid access to tests for suspected malignancy is required.

These shortcomings have prompted the search for alternatives to hospitalization. Alternative care models include: 1‐day hospitals (providing medical procedures requiring <24 hours of hospitalization)8; short‐stay observation units (often located adjacent to emergency departments [ED], and accommodating patients requiring brief periods of observation or therapy)912; hospital‐in‐the‐home programs (delivering a limited range of acute care services to selected patients)1013; outpatient major surgery programs (providing surgical procedures with postoperative recovery periods short enough to permit same‐day discharge);14 and, more recently, quick diagnosis units ([QDUs], outpatient diagnostic units for patients with suspected severe disease).2, 3, 15, 16

Current referral processes for diagnosis and specialized care in primary health care (PHC), especially waiting times for diagnostic procedures, are longeven in patients with suspected cancerin public health systems such as in Spain. This results in PHC physicians and patients using the ED as a voluntary shortcut.3, 6, 17

In 1996, the use and benefits of quick‐and‐early diagnosis units were first described for suspected cancer patients referred from PHC centers to the Queen Elizabeth Hospital in Birmingham, England.16 Patients were evaluated by specialists according to the suspected diagnosis (eg, patients with hematuria or testicular masses were assessed by urologists).

QDUs are a little‐reported, potentially cost‐saving alternative that allow coordinated, agile diagnostic procedures and may avoid hospital admission. QDUs increase patient comfort by allowing many to remain at home during the diagnostic process.17 QDUs have been introduced in Spain in recent years, and are mainly directed by internists (similar to hospitalists in the United States). Patients with specific symptoms, such as breast or testicular masses, are referred to, and evaluated directly by, the appropriate medical specialist.17 Apart from 2 Opinion articles on QDUs led by specialists other than internists in the United Kingdom,16 and by internists (our group) in Spain,17 there are, to our knowledge, no other English‐language reports on this healthcare model.

The aim of this study was to describe the functioning of a QDU in a Spanish public university hospital after evaluating 2000 consecutive patients. We intended to ascertain the utility and cost of the model compared to conventional hospitalization and the degree of patient satisfaction.

METHODS

We carried out a longitudinal, descriptive study in a prospective cohort of 2000 consecutive QDU patients, evaluated between December 2007 and July 2010, in a public university hospital with 840 acute beds, serving a reference population of 540,000 in Barcelona, Spain.

The QDU is composed of a specialist in internal medicine and a registered nurse who work in the QDU for 5 hours daily, 5 days a week (Monday‐Friday), assisted by specialists from other specialties. It has a consulting room and a waiting room for patients and families, and functions daily.

For comparison, we analyzed a retrospective cohort of 1454 patients diagnosed with anemia (n = 548), cachexia‐anorexia syndrome (n = 458), febrile syndrome (n = 240), and adenopathies or palpable masses (n = 208) admitted to the internal medicine department between September 2006 and June 2010. Patients were randomly selected from the 2022 consecutive patients with these diagnoses, hospitalized during this period and compared, on an unmatched basis, with all 1468 QDU patients with the same diagnoses.

Patients evaluated by the QDU have potentially severe disease that would normally require hospital admission for diagnosis, but whose health status allows outpatient study, and who have no physical or psychological disability that would make attending the hospital several times difficult. The criteria for QDU referral are agreed with central services (Table 1). In our hospital, patients with lung abnormalities (eg, pulmonary nodules) are usually evaluated quickly in the 1‐day hospital of the respiratory diseases department, however, they are not excluded from QDU evaluation.

Criteria for Referral to the Quick Diagnosis Unit
  • Hemoglobin level below 8 g/L, with or without symptoms.

  • Unexplained anorexia, asthenia, and loss of 10% or more of body weight during at least 6 weeks.

  • Fever of unknown origin with a temperature equal to, or higher than, 38C for at least 2 weeks.

  • Mainly suggestive of neoplasm, and after excluding obvious causes such as community‐acquired pneumonia or residual lesions.

Anemia*
Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome
Febrile syndrome
Adenopathies and/or palpable masses
Unexplained severe abdominal pain
Chronic diarrhea
Rectorrhagia
Jaundice
Lung and/or pleural abnormalities
Unexplained dyspnea
Dysphagia
Ascites
Anasarca
Arthritis

Our QDU protocol is based on an urgent first visit, followed by preferential programming and coordination of complementary tests, and subsequent visits until a diagnosis is made. The main diagnostic tests are normally carried out within 10 days after the first visit and, thus, visits are not consecutive but spread over a short period of time. Patients are attended on an ambulatory basis and do not stay overnight.

Inclusion Criteria

When setting up the QDU, the ED, PHC centers, outpatients and other sources of referral were informed and trained in QDU referral criteria (Table 1). All diseases selected for QDU assessment were agreed according to established guidelines. For example, only patients with severe anemia, with or without symptoms, defined as a hemoglobin concentration <8 g/L, our accepted criterion for hospitalization for diagnosis and treatment, were included.

Exclusion Criteria

Patients who fulfilled the inclusion criteria but were judged by the QDU or ED physician as requiring hospitalization or routine outpatient study (eg, active bleeding, uncompensated heart failure, impaired general status, mobility, and social problems) were excluded. Likewise, patients lost to follow‐up or hospitalized during the study due to complications, and deaths were excluded.

For each patient, in addition to clinical data, we prospectively recorded: demographic data; reason for consultation; source of referral; waiting time for the first visit; number and date of visits; waiting times between visits; time to diagnosis; type, number, and date of complementary tests; final diagnosis; and onward referral. The full diagnostic workup was done according to previously established protocols. The Charlson comorbidity index was calculated.18 Blood transfusions and the mean number of units used (SAG‐M red cell concentrates with a median volume per unit of 289 [25] ml) were recorded and administered according to hospital protocol. The time to diagnosis was defined as the time from the first visit to a definitive diagnosis, and usually coincided with the results of diagnostic tests (eg, imaging or pathology).

The same factors were recorded for hospitalized patients (retrospective cohort) except for waiting time to the first visit, number and date of visits, waiting times between visits, and time to diagnosis. In addition, we recorded the mean hospital stay for each patient. Hospital admission avoided was defined as patients who would have been admitted for a diagnostic workup if there were no QDU.

We made a cost analysis using microcosting techniques. First, we calculated the mean number of QDU visits in 150 randomly selected patients with iron‐deficiency anemia, 150 with cachexia‐anorexia syndrome, 150 with fever of unknown origin, and 150 with adenopathies and/or palpable masses. We analyzed the full direct and indirect costs, and calculated the mean cost per visit and the mean cost per process (admission to discharge). The mean length‐of‐stay, and direct and indirect costs were also calculated retrospectively for the same number of hospitalized patients in 2 internal medicine wards, as were the mean cost per daily stay and the mean cost per process (admission to discharge). In our hospital, a 25‐bed internal medicine ward is staffed by 2 consultant physicians and 4 residents, a nursing sister, and 3 teams of 3 registered nurses working 8‐hour daily shifts, 2 nursing assistants, and a full‐time secretary. In contrast, the QDU is staffed by a physician and a nurse, and receives administrative support from 2 secretaries shared with other units. All staff salaries were included in the analysis. All costs analyzed were hospital costs and not National Health Service costs.

A telephone survey was carried out in a random sample of 225 patients 3 months after the QDU intervention, based on a survey previously used and validated by our department. To respect privacy issues, all participants provided verbal consent over the telephone prior to the survey interview. Approval was obtained from the hospital Ethics Committee. The survey consisted of 20 multiple choice questions (4 options) and evaluated: perception of the care process, degree of difficulty of travel to the unit, overall satisfaction, preferential future care type, and conditions of physical space.

Statistical Analysis

The mean, standard deviation, median, and 25% and 75% percentiles were calculated for descriptive variables. Categorical variables were compared using the chi‐square test or Fisher's exact test as necessary. Continuous variables were analyzed using the Student t test for variables with a normal distribution, and the MannWhitney U nonparametric test for variables with a non‐normal distribution. The level of statistical significance was established as P = 0.05. The analysis was made using the SAS v.9.1 statistical package (SAS Institute, Cary, NC).

RESULTS

Of the 2302 patients initially evaluated, 276 were excluded due to associated conditions that made outpatient QDU management inappropriate, 7 patients were lost to follow‐up, 4 died, and 15 were hospitalized during the study due to complications. Therefore, 2000 QDU patients were finally included, of whom 1106 were female, with a mean age of 60 years (18.84).

The main reasons for consultation are shown in Table 2. The main sources of referral were the ED (1022 patients) and PHC centers (942 patients). Waiting time for the first QDU visit ranged from 2 to 8 days (mean: 3.9 days) in patients referred from PHC centers, and 0 to 4 days (mean: 2.1 days) in patients referred by the ED.

Main Reasons for Consultation (n = 2000)
Reasons for Consultationn (%)
  • Hemoglobin level below 8 g/L, with or without symptoms.

  • Unexplained anorexia, asthenia, and loss of 10% or more of body weight during at least 6 weeks.

  • Fever of unknown origin with a temperature equal to, or higher than, 38C for at least 2 weeks.

Anemia*550 (27.5)
Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome462 (23.1)
Febrile syndrome244 (12.2)
Adenopathies and/or palpable masses212 (10.6)
Abdominal pain128 (6.4)
Chronic diarrhea108 (5.4)
Lung abnormalities50 (2.5)

The 2000 first visits generated 4260 successive visits (ratio first/successive = 2.13). The average number of visits per patient was 3.11.

The most frequent diagnoses were cancer (both epithelial and hematological) in 526/2000 (26.3%) patients, and iron‐deficiency anemia (unrelated to malignancy) in 360 patients. The most common cancers were colon cancer and lymphomas, while the main cause of iron‐deficiency anemia was chronic gastrointestinal bleeding (148/2000 [7.4%] patients) (Table 3).

Main Diagnoses of Quick Diagnosis Unit Patients
Diagnosisn (%)
  • Abbreviations: MGUS, monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance; UPM, unknown primary‐site malignancy.

  • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, myelodysplastic syndrome, and multiple myeloma.

Malignant neoplasm526 (26.3)
Colon132 (6.6)
Lymphoma142 (7.1)
Gastric46 (2.3)
Lung37 (1.9)
Pancreas89 (4.5)
Other hematological*32 (1.6)
Breast20 (1.0)
Ovary16 (0.8)
UPM12 (0.6)
Iron‐deficiency anemia360 (18)
Digestive148 (7.4)
Unknown cause80 (4.0)
Heavy menstrual bleeding66 (3.3)
Multifactorial anemia66 (3.3)
Chronic liver disease57 (2.9)
Acute viral illness80 (4)
Reactive adenitis78 (3.9)
MGUS34 (1.7)

The mean time to diagnosis was 9.4 days (1.78). After the diagnostic study was completed, 1232 patients were referred to PHC centers, 712 to outpatients, and 56 required hospitalization.

Taking into account previously used criteria, we estimated that 820 (41%) patients would have been candidates for conventional hospitalization (for diagnostic studies) before QDU was created. Considering that the mean length‐of‐stay of the internal medicine department (50 beds) during 2009 for patients admitted for a diagnostic workup was 10.3 days, we estimated that 12.5 beds per day during a year were freed up (ie, 4563 bed‐days saved in a year). On the other hand, 45 of 1000 (4.5%) patients required immediate or early hospitalization due to their bad health status, which impeded further QDU diagnosis.

Table 4 shows the main characteristics of QDU and hospitalized patients according to the main reasons for consultation. QDU patients with anemia were significantly younger than hospitalized patients with the same diagnosis (P < 0.0001). Other parameters, notably age, time to diagnosis versus length‐of‐stay, and Charlson comorbidity index showed no statistically significant differences in any of the 4 main reasons for consultation (Table 4).

Main Characteristics of Quick Diagnosis Unit and Hospitalized Patients
AnemiaQDU (n = 550)Hospitalized (n = 548)P Value
  • NOTE: Data expressed as mean (SD) and median [P25‐P75].

  • Abbreviations: Charlson co. index, Charlson comorbidity index; HS, length‐of‐stay; NS, nonsignificant; QDU, quick diagnosis unit; SD, standard deviation.

Age66.72 (15.23) 71 [59;79]77.18 (13.71) 79.23 [72;85]<0.0001
Female280 (51%)291 (53.1%) 
Male270 (49%)257 (46.9%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)7.91 (1.41) 8 [6;9]8.66 (3.44) 8.5 [7;10]NS
Hemoglobin75.56 (20.9) 76 [55;79]74.94 (19.1) 76 [61;78]NS
Anemic syndrome509 (92.3%)512 (93.4%)NS
Transfusion362 (65.8%)355 (64.8%)NS
Charlson co. index1.3 (2.1) 1.5 [1;1.6]1.4 (2.2) 1.5 [1;1.8]NS
Main diagnosisIron‐deficiency anemia/colon cancerIron‐deficiency anemia/colon cancer 
Cachexia‐Anorexia SyndromeQDU (n = 462)Hospitalized (n = 458)P Value
Age68.32 (18.27) 69 [60;77]70.23 (15.23) 73.5 [68;79]NS
Female230 (49.8%)236 (51.6%) 
Male232 (50.2%)222 (48.4%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)10.21 (3.31) 11 [10;12]11.32 (4.12) 12 [10;13]NS
Weight loss (Kg)9.7 (2.25) 10 [9;12]9.5 (1.76) 10 [8;11]NS
Charlson co. index1.1 (2.1) 1.3 [1;1.4]1.2 (2.4) 1.4 [1;1.6]NS
Main diagnosisPancreatic cancerPancreatic cancer 
Febrile SyndromeQDU (n = 244)Hospitalized (n = 240)P Value
Age47.18 (15.23) 50 [45;55]49.34 (14.72) 53 [49;56]NS
Female127 (52%)121 (50.4%) 
Male117 (48%)119 (49.6%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS (days)8.32 (2.23) 9 [8;10.5]9.11 (3.54) 10.5 [9;11.5]NS
Mean duration of fever (days)20.15 (12.12) 24 [20;26]19.76 (10.54) 23 [19;25]NS
Charlson co. index1.0 (1.5) 1.2 [1.1;1.6]1.2 (2.1) 1.3 [0.9;1.4]NS
Main diagnosisLymphomaLymphoma 
Adenopathies and/or Palpable MassesQDU (n = 212)Hospitalized (n = 208)P Value
Age58.23 (17.20) 59.5 [55;61]60.19 (13.21) 64 [58;65]NS
Female110 (51.9%)106 (51%) 
Male102 (48.1%)102 (49%) 
Time to diagnosis/HS7.89 (2.54) 8 [7;9]7.77 (3.23) 9 [7.5;11]NS
Charlson co. index1.1 (1.1) 1.3 [0.8;1.4]1.1 (1.7) 1.5 [1.1;1.6]NS
Main diagnosisLymphomaLymphoma 

Table 5 shows the mean costs per stay, per visit, and per process for hospitalized and QDU patients included in the 4 main reasons for consultation. In hospitalized patients, the total mean cost per day of hospital stay was 363.35 Euros, and the mean cost per process was 3153.87 (910) Euros. In contrast, the mean cost per process in the QDU was 702.33 (610) Euros.

Mean Costs (Euros) of Hospitalization and Quick Diagnosis Unit
   Cost per Process*
 Hospitalization (1‐day stay)QDU (1 visit)HospitalizationQDU
  • NOTE: Mean stay: hospitalization, 8.68 days; QDU, 3.11 visits.

  • Abbreviations: NA, not applicable; QDU, quick diagnosis unit; SD, standard deviation.

  • Admission to discharge episode.

  • Direct costs.

  • Salary of all the staff for a single stay of 12.5 patients.

  • Includes blood transfusions.

  • Includes costs of patient transportation to and from the QDU, and costs of accompanying personnel.

Staff salary260.9458.792264.96182.84
Complementary tests53.73158.12466.38491.75
Stock15.270.84132.542.61
Pharmacy,0.970.158.420.47
Medical gases0.02NA0.17NA
Catering15.23NA132.20NA
Cleaning8.784.4776.2113.90
Laundry5.110.2344.350.72
Maintenance0.470.284.080.87
Communications0.310.292.690.90
Mail0.000.000.000.00
Depreciation2.521.2621.873.92
TravelNA1.4NA4.35
Total363.35225.833153.87 (SD: 910)702.33 (SD: 610)

Compliance with the patient survey was 94%. The results highlighted 3 main aspects: a) overall satisfaction with QDU care was high in 93% of cases; b) repeated travel to the hospital was not a major difficulty; and c) if further diagnostic tests were required, 84% of patients would prefer the QDU care model to hospitalization. The same results were obtained analyzing only patients with previous hospital admission. The remaining 16% indicated no preference for 1 type of care.

DISCUSSION

Our results indicate that, for diagnostic purposes, patients with potentially severe diseases can be managed similarly in a QDU or in‐hospital setting, and that the QDU model saves money compared to hospitalization. QDU patients expressed a high degree of satisfaction, with most preferring this model to hospital admission.

The only significant difference between QDU and hospitalized patients in the 4 main reasons for consultation was age in anemia patients, which may reflect the decision of the ED physician to exclude 56 patients from the initial evaluation. A separate analysis of this subgroup revealed an older age (75.3 years) and a higher number of comorbidities (Charlson index = 2.3) (data not shown).

In Spain, some patients with potentially severe diseases are hospitalized for several days for diagnostic tests without therapy. Can these patients be studied and diagnosed on an outpatient basis? Cachexia‐anorexia syndrome and severe anemia are among the main disorders for which patients are hospitalized for diagnostic tests.5, 7 In our center and others, anemia, with hemoglobin levels <8 g/L, is a criterion for hospitalization for both diagnosis and treatment.2, 3, 17 These patients are commonly evaluated initially in the ED and hospitalized in internal medicine wards, where they have a full baseline laboratory analysis (to study the type of anemia in naive conditions), a blood transfusion if necessary, and several days' hospitalization for diagnostic tests.

The motives for QDU consultation and the final diagnoses are fairly homogenous among Spanish units,2, 3, 15 allowing a profile to be drawn up of patients who could benefit from early QDU diagnosis. In 88% of our patients, the reasons for consultation were anemia, cachexia‐anorexia syndrome, febrile syndrome, adenopathies and/or palpable masses, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and lung abnormalities. The most frequent diagnosis was cancer (26.3%), although most patients showed no clear signs or symptoms of cancer at the initial consultation, suggesting that nonspecific but suspicious symptoms warrant early investigation.

QDUs seem to reduce costs, as reported by a 2004 Spanish study of patients evaluated for various conditions,3 which found that the mean cost per patient was up to 8 times cheaper than conventional hospitalization; hospitalization was avoided in 45% of patients, representing the freeing up of 7 internal medicine beds per day. In our case, and on the basis of previous criteria, avoiding hospital admission in 41% of patients evaluated resulted in the permanent freeing up of 12.5 internal medicine beds per day and a significant reduction in hospital costs. However, this does not mean the QDU system would reduce costs by permanently freeing inpatient beds, as its adoption would drive up systemic costs due to increased QDU utilization and indirect admissions from the QDU to the hospital. The cost differences between QDU and hospitalized patients (702.33 vs 3153.87 Euros) were due to differences in staffing and working hours and, to a lesser degree, fixed hospital costs (eg, catering) (Table 5). This might suggest that our internal medicine wards and QDU are overstaffed and understaffed, respectively, and that resources may be more effectively used in QDU. However, different staff dimensions between hospitals limits the extrapolation of costs and savings.

The QDU model has limitations. Using QDU resources to diagnose mild disorders could delay the diagnosis of severe disease and, therefore, clear agreement on referral criteria is essential. Likewise, although we followed approved guidelines, QDU physicians may prescribe too many diagnostic tests, searching for severe diseases the patient is unlikely to have, especially if the referral diagnosis is incorrect.17 This could be minimized by implementing standardized QDU diagnostic protocols and guidelines. In our study, the type and mean number of complementary explorations in patients with the 4 main reasons for consultation was similar between QDU and hospitalized patients (2.27 vs 2.33, respectively) (data not shown).

How and where (in‐hospital vs outpatients or PHC) patients with potentially severe disease, such as those seen in QDUs, are managed in different countries seems to vary widely. Although there are few reports on this topic,19, 20 these variations might be due, among other reasons, to guidelines for invasive diagnostic procedures and departmental and hospital traditions. Our findings may result in a shift in the paradigm of hospitalization for the diagnostic evaluation of patients with severe conditions, who are often hospitalized and, in some cases, studied in naive conditions (eg, anemia). Our results have already resulted in policy changes, since, increasingly, patients are referred directly from the ED or PHC centers to the QDU rather than being hospitalized, with the consequent savings in hospital beds and costs. Although, ideally, the QDU workup should be led by the primary care physician, waiting times for diagnostic tests are inappropriately long, as mentioned above. A successful reform would likely require better, more agile coordination between PHC and hospital settings, with quicker access to diagnostic procedures from PHC centers.

Ruling out cancer and, indirectly, easing the uncertainty and fear caused by suspected malignancy in patients awaiting diagnostic confirmation is one of the main QDU objectives.21 Cancer is the most common diagnosis (nearly 20% of patients) in Spanish QDUs.2, 3, 17 According to the Strategy on Cancer of the Spanish National Health System 2006, every patient with a well‐founded clinical suspicion of cancer must undergo a first confirmatory diagnostic test within 15 days of the suspicion.22 Our QDU patients received a final diagnosis of cancer in a mean of 11.82 days (waiting time plus evaluation period) (data not shown).

Due to unacceptable outpatient delays, most patients with suspected cancer are hospitalized directly from outpatients for the diagnostic workup,17 although this may be inappropriate in patients who are still practically asymptomatic. Inappropriate use of acute hospital beds, measured by different instruments, ranges from 6% to >20%,2326 with the most common reason being programmed hospitalization solely for diagnostic tests. Twenty‐eight percent of hospital admissions to a public hospital in England in 2000 were reported as inappropriate, mainly because diagnostic tests or treatment could have been made on an outpatient basis.25

QDU may be inappropriate outside publicly funded health systems. The QDU model could be useful, for example, in the United Kingdom, Italy, Canada, and Latin‐American countries; overcrowding and long waiting lists in PHC, and suboptimal coordination between primary and hospital care, means patients with suspected severe disease, including those in good health, are hospitalized for diagnostic tests, aggravating overcrowding and increasing costs.17 However, in countries with mainly private healthcare systems, QDUs created to reduce health costs or free hospital beds may not be as relevant. In the United States, although day hospitals and urgent care units provide similar care to QDUs (at least in urban areas), most insurers would not cover such admissions without clinical urgency, while access and efficient, streamlined care, is a major concern.

The exclusion criteria, which were based on the ED/QDU physician's judgment, are a limitation of the study. This might be circumvented by a randomized study evaluating 2 cohorts prospectively, although there would still be patients whose clinical status would require hospitalization and exclusion from QDU evaluation.

In conclusion, QDUs can manage the diagnosis of patients with potentially severe diseases equally as well as traditional hospitalization and saves costs. QDU patients expressed a high degree of satisfaction, with most preferring this model to hospitalization.

References
  1. McDonagh MS,Smith DH,Goddard M.Measuring appropriate use of acute beds. A systematic review of methods and results.Health Policy.2000;53:157184.
  2. Rubio‐Rivas M,Vidaller A,Pujol I,Farriols R,Mast R.Rapid diagnosis unit in a third level hospital. Descriptive study of the first year and a half.Rev Clin Esp.2008;208:561563.
  3. Capell S,Comas P,Piella T, et al.Quick and early diagnostic outpatient unit: an effective and efficient model of care. Five years experience.Med Clin (Barc).2004;123:247250.
  4. De Santos Castro PA,Jimeno Cargues A,García Cobo MC.Study on the immediate care clinics of the internal medicine department (University Clinic Hospital of Valladolid).Rev Clin Esp.2006;206:8489.
  5. Zambrana JL,Delgado M,Cruz G.Impact on hospital days of care due to unnecessary emergency admissions.Rev Esp Salud Pública.2005;79:541549.
  6. San Román Terán CM,Guil García M,Fernández Sepúlveda S,Lorca Gómez J.Inappropriate admissions and stays in internal medicine.Med Clin (Barc).2002;118:157.
  7. Villalta J,Sisó A,Cereijo AC,Sequeira E,De La Sierra A.Appropriateness of hospitalization in a short stay unit of a teaching hospital. A controlled study.Med Clin (Barc).2004;122:454456.
  8. García Ordóñez MA,Moya Benedicto R,Villar Jiménez J,Sánchez Lora FJ.Day hospital as conventional hospitalization alternative in an internal medicine service of a first level center.An Med Interna.2007;24:613614.
  9. Daly S,Campbell DA,Cameron PA.Short‐stay units and observation medicine: a systematic review.Med J Aust.2003;178:559563.
  10. Torres M,Capdevila JA,Armario P,Montull S.Conventional hospitalization alternatives in internal medicine.Med Clin (Barc).2005;124:620626.
  11. Scott I,Vaughan L,Bell D.Effectiveness of acute medical units in hospitals: a systematic review.Int J Qual Health Care.2009;21:397407.
  12. Lucas BP,Kumapley R,Mba B, et al.A hospitalist‐run short‐stay unit: features that predict length‐of‐stay and eventual admission to traditional inpatient services.J Hosp Med.2009;4:276284.
  13. MacIntyre CR,Ruth D,Ansari Z.Hospital in the home is cost saving for appropriately selected patients: a comparison with in‐hospital care.Int J Qual Health Care.2002;14:285293.
  14. Hollender LF,Meyer C,de Manzini N.Criteria for selection and contraindications of ambulatory surgery.Chirurgie.1990;116:568572.
  15. San José Laporte A,Jiménez Moreno X,Ligüerre Casals I,Vélez Miranda MC,Vilardell Tarrés M.Fast specialized ambulatory care of medical disease in an urban tertiary university hospital. Fast care consultation.Rev Clin Esp.2008;208:7175.
  16. Kendall MJ,Toescu V,Wallace DMA.QED: quick and early diagnosis.Lancet.1996;348:528529.
  17. Bosch X,Aíbar J,Capell S,Coca A,López‐Soto A.Quick diagnosis units: a potentially useful alternative to conventional hospitalisation.Med J Aust.2009;191:496498.
  18. Charlson ME,Pompei P,Ales KL,MacKenzie CR.A new method of classifying prognostic comorbidity in longitudinal studies: development and validation.J Chron Dis.1987;40:373383.
  19. Silverberg DS,Wexler D,Iaina A,Schwartz D.The role of correction of anaemia in patients with congestive heart failure: a short review.Eur J Heart Fail.2008;10:819823.
  20. Wahner‐Roedler DL,Chaliki SS,Bauer BA, et al.Who makes the diagnosis? The role of clinical skills and diagnostic test results.J Eval Clin Pract.2007;13:321325.
  21. Fentiman IS.Two week wait for suspected cancer: milestone or millstone?Int J Clin Pract.2005;59:12511252.
  22. Plan de calidad para el Sistema Nacional de Salud. Estrategia en cáncer del Sistema Nacional de Salud. Ministerio de Sanidad y Consumo 2006. Available at: http://www.msc.es/organizacion/sns/planCalidadSNS/pdf/excelencia/cancer‐cardiopatia/CANCER/opsc_est1.pdf.pdf. Accessed October 17,2010.
  23. Coast J,Inglis A,Frankel S.Alternatives to hospital care: what are they and who should decide?BMJ.1996;312:162166.
  24. Hensher M,Fulop N,Coast J,Jefferys E.The hospital of the future. Better out than in? Alternatives to acute hospital care.BMJ.1999;319:11271130.
  25. Campbell J.Inappropriate admissions. Thoughts of patients and referring doctors.J R Soc Med.2001;94:628631.
  26. Chopard P,Perneger TV,Gaspoz JM, et al.Predictors of inappropriate hospital days in a department of internal medicine.Int J Epidemiol.1998;27:513519.
References
  1. McDonagh MS,Smith DH,Goddard M.Measuring appropriate use of acute beds. A systematic review of methods and results.Health Policy.2000;53:157184.
  2. Rubio‐Rivas M,Vidaller A,Pujol I,Farriols R,Mast R.Rapid diagnosis unit in a third level hospital. Descriptive study of the first year and a half.Rev Clin Esp.2008;208:561563.
  3. Capell S,Comas P,Piella T, et al.Quick and early diagnostic outpatient unit: an effective and efficient model of care. Five years experience.Med Clin (Barc).2004;123:247250.
  4. De Santos Castro PA,Jimeno Cargues A,García Cobo MC.Study on the immediate care clinics of the internal medicine department (University Clinic Hospital of Valladolid).Rev Clin Esp.2006;206:8489.
  5. Zambrana JL,Delgado M,Cruz G.Impact on hospital days of care due to unnecessary emergency admissions.Rev Esp Salud Pública.2005;79:541549.
  6. San Román Terán CM,Guil García M,Fernández Sepúlveda S,Lorca Gómez J.Inappropriate admissions and stays in internal medicine.Med Clin (Barc).2002;118:157.
  7. Villalta J,Sisó A,Cereijo AC,Sequeira E,De La Sierra A.Appropriateness of hospitalization in a short stay unit of a teaching hospital. A controlled study.Med Clin (Barc).2004;122:454456.
  8. García Ordóñez MA,Moya Benedicto R,Villar Jiménez J,Sánchez Lora FJ.Day hospital as conventional hospitalization alternative in an internal medicine service of a first level center.An Med Interna.2007;24:613614.
  9. Daly S,Campbell DA,Cameron PA.Short‐stay units and observation medicine: a systematic review.Med J Aust.2003;178:559563.
  10. Torres M,Capdevila JA,Armario P,Montull S.Conventional hospitalization alternatives in internal medicine.Med Clin (Barc).2005;124:620626.
  11. Scott I,Vaughan L,Bell D.Effectiveness of acute medical units in hospitals: a systematic review.Int J Qual Health Care.2009;21:397407.
  12. Lucas BP,Kumapley R,Mba B, et al.A hospitalist‐run short‐stay unit: features that predict length‐of‐stay and eventual admission to traditional inpatient services.J Hosp Med.2009;4:276284.
  13. MacIntyre CR,Ruth D,Ansari Z.Hospital in the home is cost saving for appropriately selected patients: a comparison with in‐hospital care.Int J Qual Health Care.2002;14:285293.
  14. Hollender LF,Meyer C,de Manzini N.Criteria for selection and contraindications of ambulatory surgery.Chirurgie.1990;116:568572.
  15. San José Laporte A,Jiménez Moreno X,Ligüerre Casals I,Vélez Miranda MC,Vilardell Tarrés M.Fast specialized ambulatory care of medical disease in an urban tertiary university hospital. Fast care consultation.Rev Clin Esp.2008;208:7175.
  16. Kendall MJ,Toescu V,Wallace DMA.QED: quick and early diagnosis.Lancet.1996;348:528529.
  17. Bosch X,Aíbar J,Capell S,Coca A,López‐Soto A.Quick diagnosis units: a potentially useful alternative to conventional hospitalisation.Med J Aust.2009;191:496498.
  18. Charlson ME,Pompei P,Ales KL,MacKenzie CR.A new method of classifying prognostic comorbidity in longitudinal studies: development and validation.J Chron Dis.1987;40:373383.
  19. Silverberg DS,Wexler D,Iaina A,Schwartz D.The role of correction of anaemia in patients with congestive heart failure: a short review.Eur J Heart Fail.2008;10:819823.
  20. Wahner‐Roedler DL,Chaliki SS,Bauer BA, et al.Who makes the diagnosis? The role of clinical skills and diagnostic test results.J Eval Clin Pract.2007;13:321325.
  21. Fentiman IS.Two week wait for suspected cancer: milestone or millstone?Int J Clin Pract.2005;59:12511252.
  22. Plan de calidad para el Sistema Nacional de Salud. Estrategia en cáncer del Sistema Nacional de Salud. Ministerio de Sanidad y Consumo 2006. Available at: http://www.msc.es/organizacion/sns/planCalidadSNS/pdf/excelencia/cancer‐cardiopatia/CANCER/opsc_est1.pdf.pdf. Accessed October 17,2010.
  23. Coast J,Inglis A,Frankel S.Alternatives to hospital care: what are they and who should decide?BMJ.1996;312:162166.
  24. Hensher M,Fulop N,Coast J,Jefferys E.The hospital of the future. Better out than in? Alternatives to acute hospital care.BMJ.1999;319:11271130.
  25. Campbell J.Inappropriate admissions. Thoughts of patients and referring doctors.J R Soc Med.2001;94:628631.
  26. Chopard P,Perneger TV,Gaspoz JM, et al.Predictors of inappropriate hospital days in a department of internal medicine.Int J Epidemiol.1998;27:513519.
Issue
Journal of Hospital Medicine - 7(1)
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Journal of Hospital Medicine - 7(1)
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41-47
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Quick diagnosis units versus hospitalization for the diagnosis of potentially severe diseases in Spain
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Quick diagnosis units versus hospitalization for the diagnosis of potentially severe diseases in Spain
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Bioidentical hormone therapy: Clarifying the misconceptions

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Bioidentical hormone therapy: Clarifying the misconceptions

Recent product endorsements from celebrities on television have brought a new term into the vocabulary of many American women: bioidentical hormone therapy—treatment with hormone products that are identical in molecular structure to those in the human body.

Since 2002, when results of the Women’s Health Initiative1 raised questions about the safety of hormone replacement therapy, women have been inundated by commercials, talk shows, and self-help books that promote bioidentical hormone therapy as a safe and natural way to treat menopausal symptoms—and more.

Although this publicity has helped promote discussion about menopause, it has also perpetuated confusion and misinformation among the lay public and the general medical community concerning menopausal hormone therapy.

Many postmenopausal women suffering from vasomotor symptoms, vaginal dryness, and vaginal atrophy are apprehensive about seeking therapy, owing to concerns resulting from misinterpreted information derived from the Women’s Health Initiative trial.1 (See “What are the known risks of FDA-approved hormone therapy.”2–8) Many others are told to suffer through their symptoms, which may eventually pass. It is not surprising, then, that women turn to unconventional treatments that are claimed to be safer. This unfortunate situation has driven the business of many compounding pharmacies into the multibillion dollar level.

In this paper, we hope to clarify some of the misconceptions surrounding this issue. But first we need to define some terms in what has become a confusing area.

WHAT ARE BIOIDENTICAL HORMONES?

“Bioidentical” means identical in molecular structure to endogenous hormones. However, as we will see, a better distinction should be made between products that are approved and regulated by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and those that are not.

Endogenous reproductive hormones

Women produce various reproductive hormones, including three estrogens—estradiol, estrone, and estriol—as well as progesterone and testosterone.9

17-beta estradiol (E2) is the most bioactive endogenous estrogen. It is primarily produced by the dominant ovarian follicle and the corpus luteum and is synthesized intracellularly through aromatase activity.10,11 The rest of the circulating estradiol is derived from peripheral conversion of estrone to estradiol, and this is the primary source in postmenopausal women not on hormone therapy.11

In postmenopausal women, serum estradiol levels are often below 15 pg/mL. Many physiologic effects of the cellular compartmentalized estradiol contribute to an over-riding force in certain tissues even after menopause.10 With the loss of estradiol, many tissues in postmenopausal women can be affected, particularly resulting in genitourinary atrophy and bone loss.

Estrone (E1), the second dominant human estrogen, is primarily derived from the metabolism of estradiol and from the aromatization of androstenedione in adipose tissue, with a small quantity being secreted directly by the ovary and the adrenal glands.9 In postmenopausal women, mean estrone levels are about 30 pg/mL.11

Estriol (E3), the least active of the endogenous estrogens, is very short-acting.

Progesterone is a 21-carbon steroid secreted by the human ovary.9 It is formed during the transformation of cholesterol to estrogens and androgens and is no longer produced after menopause.9

Testosterone. In premenopausal women, the androgen testosterone is synthesized by the ovary, the adrenal cortex, and the peripheral conversion of circulating androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).9 Over a woman’s life span, her androgen levels decline progressively.10 The rate of decline has not been shown to be appreciably affected by the onset of menopause.10

All these hormone therapy products are synthesized

Many nonmedical women’s health books erroneously classify the forms of estrogen used in hormone therapy as either bioidentical or synthetic. In fact, they are all man-made.

Bioidentical hormones are synthesized by chemically extracting diosgenin from plants such as yams and soy.12 Diosgenin is chemically modified to yield the precursor progesterone, which is then used to synthesize bioidentical estrogens and androgens.10

Nonbioidentical estrogen products include conjugated equine estrogens (CEE), which is extracted from the urine of pregnant mares. The two predominant estrogens found in CEE are equilin sulfate (native to horses) and estrone sulfate.10

Other nonbioidentical products include ethinyl estradiol, which is used in most combined oral contraceptives. It is formed after a minor chemical modification of estradiol that makes it one of the most potent estrogens. The ethinyl group at carbon 17 of ring D of the steroid nucleus greatly slows the hepatic and enzymatic degradation of the molecule and, thereby, makes oral ethinyl estradiol 15 to 20 times more active than oral estradiol.

Mestranol is an inactive prodrug that is converted in the body to ethinyl estradiol.

While many women may find the idea of natural bioidentical hormones derived from sweet potatoes or soybeans more acceptable than taking one made from horse’s urine, all the products undergo extensive chemical processing and modification.

Misconception: FDA-regulated products are not bioidentical

Although many FDA-regulated hormone products contain nonbioidentical hormones, many other regulated, brand-name hormone therapy products contain the bioidentical hormone 17-beta-estradiol. Examples are oral Estrace, the weekly Climara patch, and the twice-weekly Vivelle Dot.2 The makers of Vivelle Dot have obtained approval from the FDA to use the term “bioidentical.” Oral Prometrium is a government-approved bioidentical progesterone product (Table 1).

 

 

WHAT IS CUSTOMIZED COMPOUNDED HORMONAL THERAPY?

There is often confusion between the terms “bioidentical hormones” and “customized compounded therapy,” which are often used interchangeably. Compounded therapy combines ratios of bioidentical hormones into a particular recipe or mixture. Customized compounding can be done by local compounding pharmacies.2

These customized compounds are often promoted as more “natural” and “individualized” therapy for postmenopausal women. These formulations, in fact, may have ingredients similar to those in FDA-approved products, but they are not regulated for safety, efficacy, and dosing consistency. There is no proof that compounded hormones have fewer side effects or are more effective than FDA-approved hormone preparations (Table 2).12

Compounded bioidentical estrogen products

There are several commonly marketed compounded products.

Tri-estrogen (tri-est) is a compounded hormone preparation made up of a mixture of 80% estriol, 10% estrone, and 10% estradiol.12

Bi-estrogen (bi-est) contains estriol and estradiol in a ratio of 8:1 or 9:1.

Although both tri-est and bi-est are largely composed of estriol, given the low potency of estriol, the effects of these products may be solely mediated by their major bioactive component, estradiol.10,12 No large prospective, well-controlled clinical trial has investigated the compounded ratios of these mixtures of estrogens.10

Tri-est and bi-est are frequently promoted as posing less risk of breast or endometrial cancer than FDA-approved agents, although there is no research to back up this claim.12 In fact, estriol may have a stimulatory effect on the breast and endometrium.9

In addition to these “standard” compounded preparations, women can receive more customized compounds.

Valid uses for customized compounded formulations

Some clinical providers use customized compounded formulations when prescribing hormone therapy to women who have allergies to certain ingredients, such as peanut oil (found in the FDA-regulated oral product Prometrium). Customized compounded formulations have also been used when prescribing hormones currently not FDA-approved for women, such as testosterone and DHEA.12 Before oral micronized progesterone was marketed in the United States as Prometrium, it was frequently prescribed as a compounded hormone.

HORMONE THERAPY COMES IN VARIOUS FORMS

Both FDA-regulated hormone therapy and unregulated compounded hormone therapy come in various doses and dosage forms administered by different routes, allowing for individualization for each woman’s specific characteristics.

Estrogens: Oral, transdermal, others

Estrogen therapy can be given orally, transvaginally (as creams, tablets, and rings), transdermally (as patches, gels, and creams), subcutaneously in pellets, intranasally (in Europe), and by injection.11

Most oral contraceptives contain the synthetic estrogen ethinyl estradiol. Ethinyl estradiol is more potent than human estrogens,11 specifically in increasing the production of hepatic proteins (sex-hormone-binding globulin, renin substrate, corticosteroid-binding globulin, and thyroid-binding globulin).11

Bioidentical estradiol, taken orally in tablet form, is first processed through the liver and converted into estrone.12 This stimulates proteins such as C-reactive protein, activated protein C, and clotting factors, which may increase the risk of clotting.12 Estradiol given transdermally by patch or gel or vaginally bypasses the liver and enters the bloodstream as 17-beta estradiol, therefore avoiding stimulation of these proteins.12 Case-control data have shown an associated lower risk of deep venous thromboembolism with transdermal therapy.3

Subcutaneous pellet therapy is a less common, non-FDA-approved method of hormone therapy to relieve postmenopausal symptoms.10 In an outpatient procedure, the pellet is inserted into the subcutaneous fat of the abdomen.10 The crystalline pellet is biodegradable and contains a mixture of testosterone and 17-beta estradiol.10 It is important to remember that endometrial stimulation may be prolonged with this form of therapy and levels may be supraphysiologic.

 

 

Progestogens can also be given by different routes

Oral progesterone has poor gastrointestinal absorption and a short half-life.10 Therefore, it is micronized with oil for better absorption. Reported side effects include sedative and anesthetic effects; therefore, it is recommended that oral progesterone be taken at bedtime.9 Medroxyprogesterone acetate may interfere more with estrogen’s positive effects on cholesterol than micronized progesterone does.13

Topical progesterone preparations vary widely in dosage and formulation. Over-the-counter progesterone creams vary in concentration from no active ingredient to 450 mg or more of progesterone per ounce. Application sites for progesterone cream include the inner arm, chest, and inner thigh. No transdermal hormone should be applied to areas of the body that may allow possible contact and transference to others.

Progestogen products

Progestogen products include “natural” progesterone and synthetic progestins. They should be given concurrently with estrogen therapy in women who have an intact uterus to prevent endometrial hyperplasia.9

Bioidentical progesterone is micronized in the laboratory for better absorption in the gut.2

Nonbioidentical progestins significantly differ from endogenous progesterone in both their molecular structure and function.10 Progestins include oral medroxyprogesterone acetate, norethindrone acetate, drospirenone, and levonorgestrel (Table 3).

Misconception: Transdermal progesterone protects the endometrium

In general, transdermal progesterone should be avoided, as it does not protect against endometrial cancer.

Many forms of progesterone are available by prescription at compounding pharmacies as lotions, gels, creams, capsules, trochees, and suppositories.9 Transdermal progesterone creams are also available over the counter at health stores. Some of these creams contain only diosgenin, a progesterone precursor derived from wild yams.10 Diosgenin cannot be converted into progesterone within the body and thus does not provide an adequate amount of absorbable progesterone.9 Therefore, progesterone cream that contains only diosgenin is not effective in preventing endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.

To achieve a physiologic response, progesterone levels must be at least in the nanogram range.10 Transdermal progesterone cream has not been shown to reach this level and may not significantly improve vasomotor symptoms.12 Some practitioners prescribe cream that contains more than 400 mg progesterone per ounce. This may achieve physiologic levels of progesterone, but no improvement has been proven for bone mineral density or endometrial protection. In general, no transdermal progesterone cream can be assumed to protect the endometrium against the stimulatory effects of estrogen.

CUSTOM COMPOUNDING AND SALIVA TESTING TO INDIVIDUALIZE THERAPY

Some clinicians who prescribe compounded hormones order saliva tests. They argue the tests help them to establish which hormones are deficient and therefore to customize therapy.12 The basis for this is that saliva is similar to an ultrafiltrate of blood and, theoretically, hormone levels in saliva should represent the bioavailable hormone in serum.10

Unfortunately, this testing is often unreliable due to poor stability of samples in storage and large interassay variability.10 Many factors may alter hormone levels in saliva and make test results unreproducible, including the time of day the sample is collected and dietary habits.10 The FDA states that there is no scientific basis for using salivary testing to adjust hormone levels.2

Levels of drugs with clearance that varies depending on hepatic enzyme activity and plasma binding (capacity-limited metabolism) such as estradiol and testosterone can be monitored with total blood serum concentrations.10 However, many physiologic effects of estrogens are determined intracellularly at the level of tissues.10 Therefore, although levels during therapy with bioidentical estrogens can be monitored more precisely, the FDA states that hormone therapy should be guided by symptom response and findings on physical examination and not by hormone levels alone.2,12 It may be reasonable to order serum levels of estradiol in women being treated with therapeutic doses of bioidentical estrogen but still not achieving symptom relief. If women are being treated with conjugated equine estrogens, serum levels cannot be monitored. Total estrogen can be monitored as a send-out laboratory test.

MISCONCEPTION: HORMONE THERAPY IS A FOUNTAIN OF YOUTH

Customized compounded hormonal therapy is marketed as being able to help with rejuvenation, improve memory, sexual function, and reverse the aging process, essentially promising to be an elixir or fountain of youth.

These claims are not substantiated. However, the actual benefits of hormone therapy in women who have menopausal symptoms include alleviation of moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and vaginal atrophy that can result in dyspareunia. By alleviating their symptoms, hormone therapy improves women’s quality of life. It also reduces the incidence of postmenopausal osteoporotic fractures.

A research finding that is often overlooked is that postmenopausal women younger than 60 years who started estrogen or estrogenprogestin therapy soon after menopause had a 30% lower rate of death from all causes.2,14 This difference was statistically significant when the estrogen and estrogen-progestin therapy groups were combined. No reduction in the mortality rate was seen if therapy was started after age 60.

MISCONCEPTION: COMPOUNDED THERAPY IS SAFER

Compounded hormone therapy is often marketed as a safer or more effective alternative to government-regulated and approved therapy. Unfortunately, these claims are often false and misleading, and safety information is not consistently provided to patients as is required with FDA-regulated hormone therapy.2

Since these compounds have not been approved by the FDA, there is no guarantee that the ingredients have been tested for purity, potency, and efficacy. There is no batch standardization. These unregulated therapies may use unapproved ingredients, routes of administration, and mixtures with contaminants such as dyes and preservatives.2

Also, custom-compounded prescriptions are considered experimental. Therefore, they are often not covered by insurance, and many women must pay for them out of pocket.11

The North American Menopause Society does not recommend custom-mixed products over well-tested, government-approved commercial products for most women.2 All bioidentical hormone prescriptions should include a patient package insert,11 identical to that required of FDA-approved products.2

References
  1. Rossouw JE, Anderson GL, Prentice RL, et al. Risks and benefits of estrogen plus progestin in healthy postmenopausal women: principal results from the Women’s Health Initiative randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2002; 288:321333.
  2. North American Menopause Society. Estrogen and progestogen use in postmenopausal women: 2010 position statement of the North American Menopause Society. Menopause 2010; 17:242255.
  3. Canonico M, Oger E, Plu-Bureau G; Estrogen and Thromboembolism Risk (ESTHER) Study Group. Hormone therapy and venous thromboembolism among postmenopausal women: impact of the route of estrogen administration and progestogens: the ESTHER study. Circulation 2007; 115:840845.
  4. Risks of postmenopausal hormone replacement (letters). JAMA 2002; 288:28192825.
  5. Rossouw JE, Prentice RL, Manson JE, et al. Postmenopausal hormone therapy and risk of cardiovascular disease by age and years since menopause. JAMA 2007; 297:14651477.
  6. Grodstein F, Manson JE, Colditz GA, Willett WC, Speizer FE, Stampfer MJ. A prospective, observational study of postmenopausal hormone therapy and primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Ann Intern Med 2000; 133:933941.
  7. Shumaker SA, Legault C, Rapp SR, et al; WHIMS Investigators. Estrogen plus progestin and the incidence of dementia and mild cognitive impairment in postmenopausal women: the Women’s Health Initiative Memory Study: a randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2003; 289:26512662.
  8. Chlebowski RT, Anderson GL, Gass M, et al; WHI Investigators. Estrogen plus progestin and breast cancer incidence and mortality in postmenopausal women. JAMA 2010; 304:16841692.
  9. Lobo RA. Treatment of the Postmenopausal Woman: Basic and Clinical Aspects. 3rd ed. Burlington, MA: Academic Press; 2007.
  10. Cirigliano M. Bioidentical hormone therapy: a review of the evidence. J Womens Health (Larchmt) 2007; 16:600631.
  11. Menopause Practice: A Clinician’s Guide. 4th ed. Cleveland, OH: The North American Menopause Society; 2010.
  12. What are bioidentical hormones? Natural. Bioidentical. Compounded. Confusion about these terms is only adding to the confusion over hormone therapy. Harv Womens Health Watch 2006; 13:13.
  13. The Writing Group for the PEPI Trial. Effects of estrogen or estrogen/progestin regimens on heart disease risk factors in postmenopausal women. The Postmenopausal Estrogen/Progestin Interventions (PEPI) Trial. JAMA 1995; 273:199208.
  14. Hodis HN, Mack WJ. Postmenopausal hormone therapy in clinical perspective. Menopause 2007; 14:944957.
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Author and Disclosure Information

Lynn Pattimakiel, MD, NCMP
Department of Internal Medicine, Center for Specialized Women’s Health, Cleveland Clinic

Holly L. Thacker, MD, FACP, NCMP, CCD
Director, Center for Specialized Women’s Health, Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Lynn Pattimakiel, MD, Department of Internal Medicine, G10, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Thacker has disclosed that she has taught and spoken for Bayer and Novogyne Pharmaceuticals, makers of menopausal hormone therapies.

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Lynn Pattimakiel, MD, NCMP
Department of Internal Medicine, Center for Specialized Women’s Health, Cleveland Clinic

Holly L. Thacker, MD, FACP, NCMP, CCD
Director, Center for Specialized Women’s Health, Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Lynn Pattimakiel, MD, Department of Internal Medicine, G10, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Thacker has disclosed that she has taught and spoken for Bayer and Novogyne Pharmaceuticals, makers of menopausal hormone therapies.

Author and Disclosure Information

Lynn Pattimakiel, MD, NCMP
Department of Internal Medicine, Center for Specialized Women’s Health, Cleveland Clinic

Holly L. Thacker, MD, FACP, NCMP, CCD
Director, Center for Specialized Women’s Health, Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Lynn Pattimakiel, MD, Department of Internal Medicine, G10, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

Dr. Thacker has disclosed that she has taught and spoken for Bayer and Novogyne Pharmaceuticals, makers of menopausal hormone therapies.

Article PDF
Article PDF

Recent product endorsements from celebrities on television have brought a new term into the vocabulary of many American women: bioidentical hormone therapy—treatment with hormone products that are identical in molecular structure to those in the human body.

Since 2002, when results of the Women’s Health Initiative1 raised questions about the safety of hormone replacement therapy, women have been inundated by commercials, talk shows, and self-help books that promote bioidentical hormone therapy as a safe and natural way to treat menopausal symptoms—and more.

Although this publicity has helped promote discussion about menopause, it has also perpetuated confusion and misinformation among the lay public and the general medical community concerning menopausal hormone therapy.

Many postmenopausal women suffering from vasomotor symptoms, vaginal dryness, and vaginal atrophy are apprehensive about seeking therapy, owing to concerns resulting from misinterpreted information derived from the Women’s Health Initiative trial.1 (See “What are the known risks of FDA-approved hormone therapy.”2–8) Many others are told to suffer through their symptoms, which may eventually pass. It is not surprising, then, that women turn to unconventional treatments that are claimed to be safer. This unfortunate situation has driven the business of many compounding pharmacies into the multibillion dollar level.

In this paper, we hope to clarify some of the misconceptions surrounding this issue. But first we need to define some terms in what has become a confusing area.

WHAT ARE BIOIDENTICAL HORMONES?

“Bioidentical” means identical in molecular structure to endogenous hormones. However, as we will see, a better distinction should be made between products that are approved and regulated by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and those that are not.

Endogenous reproductive hormones

Women produce various reproductive hormones, including three estrogens—estradiol, estrone, and estriol—as well as progesterone and testosterone.9

17-beta estradiol (E2) is the most bioactive endogenous estrogen. It is primarily produced by the dominant ovarian follicle and the corpus luteum and is synthesized intracellularly through aromatase activity.10,11 The rest of the circulating estradiol is derived from peripheral conversion of estrone to estradiol, and this is the primary source in postmenopausal women not on hormone therapy.11

In postmenopausal women, serum estradiol levels are often below 15 pg/mL. Many physiologic effects of the cellular compartmentalized estradiol contribute to an over-riding force in certain tissues even after menopause.10 With the loss of estradiol, many tissues in postmenopausal women can be affected, particularly resulting in genitourinary atrophy and bone loss.

Estrone (E1), the second dominant human estrogen, is primarily derived from the metabolism of estradiol and from the aromatization of androstenedione in adipose tissue, with a small quantity being secreted directly by the ovary and the adrenal glands.9 In postmenopausal women, mean estrone levels are about 30 pg/mL.11

Estriol (E3), the least active of the endogenous estrogens, is very short-acting.

Progesterone is a 21-carbon steroid secreted by the human ovary.9 It is formed during the transformation of cholesterol to estrogens and androgens and is no longer produced after menopause.9

Testosterone. In premenopausal women, the androgen testosterone is synthesized by the ovary, the adrenal cortex, and the peripheral conversion of circulating androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).9 Over a woman’s life span, her androgen levels decline progressively.10 The rate of decline has not been shown to be appreciably affected by the onset of menopause.10

All these hormone therapy products are synthesized

Many nonmedical women’s health books erroneously classify the forms of estrogen used in hormone therapy as either bioidentical or synthetic. In fact, they are all man-made.

Bioidentical hormones are synthesized by chemically extracting diosgenin from plants such as yams and soy.12 Diosgenin is chemically modified to yield the precursor progesterone, which is then used to synthesize bioidentical estrogens and androgens.10

Nonbioidentical estrogen products include conjugated equine estrogens (CEE), which is extracted from the urine of pregnant mares. The two predominant estrogens found in CEE are equilin sulfate (native to horses) and estrone sulfate.10

Other nonbioidentical products include ethinyl estradiol, which is used in most combined oral contraceptives. It is formed after a minor chemical modification of estradiol that makes it one of the most potent estrogens. The ethinyl group at carbon 17 of ring D of the steroid nucleus greatly slows the hepatic and enzymatic degradation of the molecule and, thereby, makes oral ethinyl estradiol 15 to 20 times more active than oral estradiol.

Mestranol is an inactive prodrug that is converted in the body to ethinyl estradiol.

While many women may find the idea of natural bioidentical hormones derived from sweet potatoes or soybeans more acceptable than taking one made from horse’s urine, all the products undergo extensive chemical processing and modification.

Misconception: FDA-regulated products are not bioidentical

Although many FDA-regulated hormone products contain nonbioidentical hormones, many other regulated, brand-name hormone therapy products contain the bioidentical hormone 17-beta-estradiol. Examples are oral Estrace, the weekly Climara patch, and the twice-weekly Vivelle Dot.2 The makers of Vivelle Dot have obtained approval from the FDA to use the term “bioidentical.” Oral Prometrium is a government-approved bioidentical progesterone product (Table 1).

 

 

WHAT IS CUSTOMIZED COMPOUNDED HORMONAL THERAPY?

There is often confusion between the terms “bioidentical hormones” and “customized compounded therapy,” which are often used interchangeably. Compounded therapy combines ratios of bioidentical hormones into a particular recipe or mixture. Customized compounding can be done by local compounding pharmacies.2

These customized compounds are often promoted as more “natural” and “individualized” therapy for postmenopausal women. These formulations, in fact, may have ingredients similar to those in FDA-approved products, but they are not regulated for safety, efficacy, and dosing consistency. There is no proof that compounded hormones have fewer side effects or are more effective than FDA-approved hormone preparations (Table 2).12

Compounded bioidentical estrogen products

There are several commonly marketed compounded products.

Tri-estrogen (tri-est) is a compounded hormone preparation made up of a mixture of 80% estriol, 10% estrone, and 10% estradiol.12

Bi-estrogen (bi-est) contains estriol and estradiol in a ratio of 8:1 or 9:1.

Although both tri-est and bi-est are largely composed of estriol, given the low potency of estriol, the effects of these products may be solely mediated by their major bioactive component, estradiol.10,12 No large prospective, well-controlled clinical trial has investigated the compounded ratios of these mixtures of estrogens.10

Tri-est and bi-est are frequently promoted as posing less risk of breast or endometrial cancer than FDA-approved agents, although there is no research to back up this claim.12 In fact, estriol may have a stimulatory effect on the breast and endometrium.9

In addition to these “standard” compounded preparations, women can receive more customized compounds.

Valid uses for customized compounded formulations

Some clinical providers use customized compounded formulations when prescribing hormone therapy to women who have allergies to certain ingredients, such as peanut oil (found in the FDA-regulated oral product Prometrium). Customized compounded formulations have also been used when prescribing hormones currently not FDA-approved for women, such as testosterone and DHEA.12 Before oral micronized progesterone was marketed in the United States as Prometrium, it was frequently prescribed as a compounded hormone.

HORMONE THERAPY COMES IN VARIOUS FORMS

Both FDA-regulated hormone therapy and unregulated compounded hormone therapy come in various doses and dosage forms administered by different routes, allowing for individualization for each woman’s specific characteristics.

Estrogens: Oral, transdermal, others

Estrogen therapy can be given orally, transvaginally (as creams, tablets, and rings), transdermally (as patches, gels, and creams), subcutaneously in pellets, intranasally (in Europe), and by injection.11

Most oral contraceptives contain the synthetic estrogen ethinyl estradiol. Ethinyl estradiol is more potent than human estrogens,11 specifically in increasing the production of hepatic proteins (sex-hormone-binding globulin, renin substrate, corticosteroid-binding globulin, and thyroid-binding globulin).11

Bioidentical estradiol, taken orally in tablet form, is first processed through the liver and converted into estrone.12 This stimulates proteins such as C-reactive protein, activated protein C, and clotting factors, which may increase the risk of clotting.12 Estradiol given transdermally by patch or gel or vaginally bypasses the liver and enters the bloodstream as 17-beta estradiol, therefore avoiding stimulation of these proteins.12 Case-control data have shown an associated lower risk of deep venous thromboembolism with transdermal therapy.3

Subcutaneous pellet therapy is a less common, non-FDA-approved method of hormone therapy to relieve postmenopausal symptoms.10 In an outpatient procedure, the pellet is inserted into the subcutaneous fat of the abdomen.10 The crystalline pellet is biodegradable and contains a mixture of testosterone and 17-beta estradiol.10 It is important to remember that endometrial stimulation may be prolonged with this form of therapy and levels may be supraphysiologic.

 

 

Progestogens can also be given by different routes

Oral progesterone has poor gastrointestinal absorption and a short half-life.10 Therefore, it is micronized with oil for better absorption. Reported side effects include sedative and anesthetic effects; therefore, it is recommended that oral progesterone be taken at bedtime.9 Medroxyprogesterone acetate may interfere more with estrogen’s positive effects on cholesterol than micronized progesterone does.13

Topical progesterone preparations vary widely in dosage and formulation. Over-the-counter progesterone creams vary in concentration from no active ingredient to 450 mg or more of progesterone per ounce. Application sites for progesterone cream include the inner arm, chest, and inner thigh. No transdermal hormone should be applied to areas of the body that may allow possible contact and transference to others.

Progestogen products

Progestogen products include “natural” progesterone and synthetic progestins. They should be given concurrently with estrogen therapy in women who have an intact uterus to prevent endometrial hyperplasia.9

Bioidentical progesterone is micronized in the laboratory for better absorption in the gut.2

Nonbioidentical progestins significantly differ from endogenous progesterone in both their molecular structure and function.10 Progestins include oral medroxyprogesterone acetate, norethindrone acetate, drospirenone, and levonorgestrel (Table 3).

Misconception: Transdermal progesterone protects the endometrium

In general, transdermal progesterone should be avoided, as it does not protect against endometrial cancer.

Many forms of progesterone are available by prescription at compounding pharmacies as lotions, gels, creams, capsules, trochees, and suppositories.9 Transdermal progesterone creams are also available over the counter at health stores. Some of these creams contain only diosgenin, a progesterone precursor derived from wild yams.10 Diosgenin cannot be converted into progesterone within the body and thus does not provide an adequate amount of absorbable progesterone.9 Therefore, progesterone cream that contains only diosgenin is not effective in preventing endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.

To achieve a physiologic response, progesterone levels must be at least in the nanogram range.10 Transdermal progesterone cream has not been shown to reach this level and may not significantly improve vasomotor symptoms.12 Some practitioners prescribe cream that contains more than 400 mg progesterone per ounce. This may achieve physiologic levels of progesterone, but no improvement has been proven for bone mineral density or endometrial protection. In general, no transdermal progesterone cream can be assumed to protect the endometrium against the stimulatory effects of estrogen.

CUSTOM COMPOUNDING AND SALIVA TESTING TO INDIVIDUALIZE THERAPY

Some clinicians who prescribe compounded hormones order saliva tests. They argue the tests help them to establish which hormones are deficient and therefore to customize therapy.12 The basis for this is that saliva is similar to an ultrafiltrate of blood and, theoretically, hormone levels in saliva should represent the bioavailable hormone in serum.10

Unfortunately, this testing is often unreliable due to poor stability of samples in storage and large interassay variability.10 Many factors may alter hormone levels in saliva and make test results unreproducible, including the time of day the sample is collected and dietary habits.10 The FDA states that there is no scientific basis for using salivary testing to adjust hormone levels.2

Levels of drugs with clearance that varies depending on hepatic enzyme activity and plasma binding (capacity-limited metabolism) such as estradiol and testosterone can be monitored with total blood serum concentrations.10 However, many physiologic effects of estrogens are determined intracellularly at the level of tissues.10 Therefore, although levels during therapy with bioidentical estrogens can be monitored more precisely, the FDA states that hormone therapy should be guided by symptom response and findings on physical examination and not by hormone levels alone.2,12 It may be reasonable to order serum levels of estradiol in women being treated with therapeutic doses of bioidentical estrogen but still not achieving symptom relief. If women are being treated with conjugated equine estrogens, serum levels cannot be monitored. Total estrogen can be monitored as a send-out laboratory test.

MISCONCEPTION: HORMONE THERAPY IS A FOUNTAIN OF YOUTH

Customized compounded hormonal therapy is marketed as being able to help with rejuvenation, improve memory, sexual function, and reverse the aging process, essentially promising to be an elixir or fountain of youth.

These claims are not substantiated. However, the actual benefits of hormone therapy in women who have menopausal symptoms include alleviation of moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and vaginal atrophy that can result in dyspareunia. By alleviating their symptoms, hormone therapy improves women’s quality of life. It also reduces the incidence of postmenopausal osteoporotic fractures.

A research finding that is often overlooked is that postmenopausal women younger than 60 years who started estrogen or estrogenprogestin therapy soon after menopause had a 30% lower rate of death from all causes.2,14 This difference was statistically significant when the estrogen and estrogen-progestin therapy groups were combined. No reduction in the mortality rate was seen if therapy was started after age 60.

MISCONCEPTION: COMPOUNDED THERAPY IS SAFER

Compounded hormone therapy is often marketed as a safer or more effective alternative to government-regulated and approved therapy. Unfortunately, these claims are often false and misleading, and safety information is not consistently provided to patients as is required with FDA-regulated hormone therapy.2

Since these compounds have not been approved by the FDA, there is no guarantee that the ingredients have been tested for purity, potency, and efficacy. There is no batch standardization. These unregulated therapies may use unapproved ingredients, routes of administration, and mixtures with contaminants such as dyes and preservatives.2

Also, custom-compounded prescriptions are considered experimental. Therefore, they are often not covered by insurance, and many women must pay for them out of pocket.11

The North American Menopause Society does not recommend custom-mixed products over well-tested, government-approved commercial products for most women.2 All bioidentical hormone prescriptions should include a patient package insert,11 identical to that required of FDA-approved products.2

Recent product endorsements from celebrities on television have brought a new term into the vocabulary of many American women: bioidentical hormone therapy—treatment with hormone products that are identical in molecular structure to those in the human body.

Since 2002, when results of the Women’s Health Initiative1 raised questions about the safety of hormone replacement therapy, women have been inundated by commercials, talk shows, and self-help books that promote bioidentical hormone therapy as a safe and natural way to treat menopausal symptoms—and more.

Although this publicity has helped promote discussion about menopause, it has also perpetuated confusion and misinformation among the lay public and the general medical community concerning menopausal hormone therapy.

Many postmenopausal women suffering from vasomotor symptoms, vaginal dryness, and vaginal atrophy are apprehensive about seeking therapy, owing to concerns resulting from misinterpreted information derived from the Women’s Health Initiative trial.1 (See “What are the known risks of FDA-approved hormone therapy.”2–8) Many others are told to suffer through their symptoms, which may eventually pass. It is not surprising, then, that women turn to unconventional treatments that are claimed to be safer. This unfortunate situation has driven the business of many compounding pharmacies into the multibillion dollar level.

In this paper, we hope to clarify some of the misconceptions surrounding this issue. But first we need to define some terms in what has become a confusing area.

WHAT ARE BIOIDENTICAL HORMONES?

“Bioidentical” means identical in molecular structure to endogenous hormones. However, as we will see, a better distinction should be made between products that are approved and regulated by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and those that are not.

Endogenous reproductive hormones

Women produce various reproductive hormones, including three estrogens—estradiol, estrone, and estriol—as well as progesterone and testosterone.9

17-beta estradiol (E2) is the most bioactive endogenous estrogen. It is primarily produced by the dominant ovarian follicle and the corpus luteum and is synthesized intracellularly through aromatase activity.10,11 The rest of the circulating estradiol is derived from peripheral conversion of estrone to estradiol, and this is the primary source in postmenopausal women not on hormone therapy.11

In postmenopausal women, serum estradiol levels are often below 15 pg/mL. Many physiologic effects of the cellular compartmentalized estradiol contribute to an over-riding force in certain tissues even after menopause.10 With the loss of estradiol, many tissues in postmenopausal women can be affected, particularly resulting in genitourinary atrophy and bone loss.

Estrone (E1), the second dominant human estrogen, is primarily derived from the metabolism of estradiol and from the aromatization of androstenedione in adipose tissue, with a small quantity being secreted directly by the ovary and the adrenal glands.9 In postmenopausal women, mean estrone levels are about 30 pg/mL.11

Estriol (E3), the least active of the endogenous estrogens, is very short-acting.

Progesterone is a 21-carbon steroid secreted by the human ovary.9 It is formed during the transformation of cholesterol to estrogens and androgens and is no longer produced after menopause.9

Testosterone. In premenopausal women, the androgen testosterone is synthesized by the ovary, the adrenal cortex, and the peripheral conversion of circulating androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).9 Over a woman’s life span, her androgen levels decline progressively.10 The rate of decline has not been shown to be appreciably affected by the onset of menopause.10

All these hormone therapy products are synthesized

Many nonmedical women’s health books erroneously classify the forms of estrogen used in hormone therapy as either bioidentical or synthetic. In fact, they are all man-made.

Bioidentical hormones are synthesized by chemically extracting diosgenin from plants such as yams and soy.12 Diosgenin is chemically modified to yield the precursor progesterone, which is then used to synthesize bioidentical estrogens and androgens.10

Nonbioidentical estrogen products include conjugated equine estrogens (CEE), which is extracted from the urine of pregnant mares. The two predominant estrogens found in CEE are equilin sulfate (native to horses) and estrone sulfate.10

Other nonbioidentical products include ethinyl estradiol, which is used in most combined oral contraceptives. It is formed after a minor chemical modification of estradiol that makes it one of the most potent estrogens. The ethinyl group at carbon 17 of ring D of the steroid nucleus greatly slows the hepatic and enzymatic degradation of the molecule and, thereby, makes oral ethinyl estradiol 15 to 20 times more active than oral estradiol.

Mestranol is an inactive prodrug that is converted in the body to ethinyl estradiol.

While many women may find the idea of natural bioidentical hormones derived from sweet potatoes or soybeans more acceptable than taking one made from horse’s urine, all the products undergo extensive chemical processing and modification.

Misconception: FDA-regulated products are not bioidentical

Although many FDA-regulated hormone products contain nonbioidentical hormones, many other regulated, brand-name hormone therapy products contain the bioidentical hormone 17-beta-estradiol. Examples are oral Estrace, the weekly Climara patch, and the twice-weekly Vivelle Dot.2 The makers of Vivelle Dot have obtained approval from the FDA to use the term “bioidentical.” Oral Prometrium is a government-approved bioidentical progesterone product (Table 1).

 

 

WHAT IS CUSTOMIZED COMPOUNDED HORMONAL THERAPY?

There is often confusion between the terms “bioidentical hormones” and “customized compounded therapy,” which are often used interchangeably. Compounded therapy combines ratios of bioidentical hormones into a particular recipe or mixture. Customized compounding can be done by local compounding pharmacies.2

These customized compounds are often promoted as more “natural” and “individualized” therapy for postmenopausal women. These formulations, in fact, may have ingredients similar to those in FDA-approved products, but they are not regulated for safety, efficacy, and dosing consistency. There is no proof that compounded hormones have fewer side effects or are more effective than FDA-approved hormone preparations (Table 2).12

Compounded bioidentical estrogen products

There are several commonly marketed compounded products.

Tri-estrogen (tri-est) is a compounded hormone preparation made up of a mixture of 80% estriol, 10% estrone, and 10% estradiol.12

Bi-estrogen (bi-est) contains estriol and estradiol in a ratio of 8:1 or 9:1.

Although both tri-est and bi-est are largely composed of estriol, given the low potency of estriol, the effects of these products may be solely mediated by their major bioactive component, estradiol.10,12 No large prospective, well-controlled clinical trial has investigated the compounded ratios of these mixtures of estrogens.10

Tri-est and bi-est are frequently promoted as posing less risk of breast or endometrial cancer than FDA-approved agents, although there is no research to back up this claim.12 In fact, estriol may have a stimulatory effect on the breast and endometrium.9

In addition to these “standard” compounded preparations, women can receive more customized compounds.

Valid uses for customized compounded formulations

Some clinical providers use customized compounded formulations when prescribing hormone therapy to women who have allergies to certain ingredients, such as peanut oil (found in the FDA-regulated oral product Prometrium). Customized compounded formulations have also been used when prescribing hormones currently not FDA-approved for women, such as testosterone and DHEA.12 Before oral micronized progesterone was marketed in the United States as Prometrium, it was frequently prescribed as a compounded hormone.

HORMONE THERAPY COMES IN VARIOUS FORMS

Both FDA-regulated hormone therapy and unregulated compounded hormone therapy come in various doses and dosage forms administered by different routes, allowing for individualization for each woman’s specific characteristics.

Estrogens: Oral, transdermal, others

Estrogen therapy can be given orally, transvaginally (as creams, tablets, and rings), transdermally (as patches, gels, and creams), subcutaneously in pellets, intranasally (in Europe), and by injection.11

Most oral contraceptives contain the synthetic estrogen ethinyl estradiol. Ethinyl estradiol is more potent than human estrogens,11 specifically in increasing the production of hepatic proteins (sex-hormone-binding globulin, renin substrate, corticosteroid-binding globulin, and thyroid-binding globulin).11

Bioidentical estradiol, taken orally in tablet form, is first processed through the liver and converted into estrone.12 This stimulates proteins such as C-reactive protein, activated protein C, and clotting factors, which may increase the risk of clotting.12 Estradiol given transdermally by patch or gel or vaginally bypasses the liver and enters the bloodstream as 17-beta estradiol, therefore avoiding stimulation of these proteins.12 Case-control data have shown an associated lower risk of deep venous thromboembolism with transdermal therapy.3

Subcutaneous pellet therapy is a less common, non-FDA-approved method of hormone therapy to relieve postmenopausal symptoms.10 In an outpatient procedure, the pellet is inserted into the subcutaneous fat of the abdomen.10 The crystalline pellet is biodegradable and contains a mixture of testosterone and 17-beta estradiol.10 It is important to remember that endometrial stimulation may be prolonged with this form of therapy and levels may be supraphysiologic.

 

 

Progestogens can also be given by different routes

Oral progesterone has poor gastrointestinal absorption and a short half-life.10 Therefore, it is micronized with oil for better absorption. Reported side effects include sedative and anesthetic effects; therefore, it is recommended that oral progesterone be taken at bedtime.9 Medroxyprogesterone acetate may interfere more with estrogen’s positive effects on cholesterol than micronized progesterone does.13

Topical progesterone preparations vary widely in dosage and formulation. Over-the-counter progesterone creams vary in concentration from no active ingredient to 450 mg or more of progesterone per ounce. Application sites for progesterone cream include the inner arm, chest, and inner thigh. No transdermal hormone should be applied to areas of the body that may allow possible contact and transference to others.

Progestogen products

Progestogen products include “natural” progesterone and synthetic progestins. They should be given concurrently with estrogen therapy in women who have an intact uterus to prevent endometrial hyperplasia.9

Bioidentical progesterone is micronized in the laboratory for better absorption in the gut.2

Nonbioidentical progestins significantly differ from endogenous progesterone in both their molecular structure and function.10 Progestins include oral medroxyprogesterone acetate, norethindrone acetate, drospirenone, and levonorgestrel (Table 3).

Misconception: Transdermal progesterone protects the endometrium

In general, transdermal progesterone should be avoided, as it does not protect against endometrial cancer.

Many forms of progesterone are available by prescription at compounding pharmacies as lotions, gels, creams, capsules, trochees, and suppositories.9 Transdermal progesterone creams are also available over the counter at health stores. Some of these creams contain only diosgenin, a progesterone precursor derived from wild yams.10 Diosgenin cannot be converted into progesterone within the body and thus does not provide an adequate amount of absorbable progesterone.9 Therefore, progesterone cream that contains only diosgenin is not effective in preventing endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.

To achieve a physiologic response, progesterone levels must be at least in the nanogram range.10 Transdermal progesterone cream has not been shown to reach this level and may not significantly improve vasomotor symptoms.12 Some practitioners prescribe cream that contains more than 400 mg progesterone per ounce. This may achieve physiologic levels of progesterone, but no improvement has been proven for bone mineral density or endometrial protection. In general, no transdermal progesterone cream can be assumed to protect the endometrium against the stimulatory effects of estrogen.

CUSTOM COMPOUNDING AND SALIVA TESTING TO INDIVIDUALIZE THERAPY

Some clinicians who prescribe compounded hormones order saliva tests. They argue the tests help them to establish which hormones are deficient and therefore to customize therapy.12 The basis for this is that saliva is similar to an ultrafiltrate of blood and, theoretically, hormone levels in saliva should represent the bioavailable hormone in serum.10

Unfortunately, this testing is often unreliable due to poor stability of samples in storage and large interassay variability.10 Many factors may alter hormone levels in saliva and make test results unreproducible, including the time of day the sample is collected and dietary habits.10 The FDA states that there is no scientific basis for using salivary testing to adjust hormone levels.2

Levels of drugs with clearance that varies depending on hepatic enzyme activity and plasma binding (capacity-limited metabolism) such as estradiol and testosterone can be monitored with total blood serum concentrations.10 However, many physiologic effects of estrogens are determined intracellularly at the level of tissues.10 Therefore, although levels during therapy with bioidentical estrogens can be monitored more precisely, the FDA states that hormone therapy should be guided by symptom response and findings on physical examination and not by hormone levels alone.2,12 It may be reasonable to order serum levels of estradiol in women being treated with therapeutic doses of bioidentical estrogen but still not achieving symptom relief. If women are being treated with conjugated equine estrogens, serum levels cannot be monitored. Total estrogen can be monitored as a send-out laboratory test.

MISCONCEPTION: HORMONE THERAPY IS A FOUNTAIN OF YOUTH

Customized compounded hormonal therapy is marketed as being able to help with rejuvenation, improve memory, sexual function, and reverse the aging process, essentially promising to be an elixir or fountain of youth.

These claims are not substantiated. However, the actual benefits of hormone therapy in women who have menopausal symptoms include alleviation of moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and vaginal atrophy that can result in dyspareunia. By alleviating their symptoms, hormone therapy improves women’s quality of life. It also reduces the incidence of postmenopausal osteoporotic fractures.

A research finding that is often overlooked is that postmenopausal women younger than 60 years who started estrogen or estrogenprogestin therapy soon after menopause had a 30% lower rate of death from all causes.2,14 This difference was statistically significant when the estrogen and estrogen-progestin therapy groups were combined. No reduction in the mortality rate was seen if therapy was started after age 60.

MISCONCEPTION: COMPOUNDED THERAPY IS SAFER

Compounded hormone therapy is often marketed as a safer or more effective alternative to government-regulated and approved therapy. Unfortunately, these claims are often false and misleading, and safety information is not consistently provided to patients as is required with FDA-regulated hormone therapy.2

Since these compounds have not been approved by the FDA, there is no guarantee that the ingredients have been tested for purity, potency, and efficacy. There is no batch standardization. These unregulated therapies may use unapproved ingredients, routes of administration, and mixtures with contaminants such as dyes and preservatives.2

Also, custom-compounded prescriptions are considered experimental. Therefore, they are often not covered by insurance, and many women must pay for them out of pocket.11

The North American Menopause Society does not recommend custom-mixed products over well-tested, government-approved commercial products for most women.2 All bioidentical hormone prescriptions should include a patient package insert,11 identical to that required of FDA-approved products.2

References
  1. Rossouw JE, Anderson GL, Prentice RL, et al. Risks and benefits of estrogen plus progestin in healthy postmenopausal women: principal results from the Women’s Health Initiative randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2002; 288:321333.
  2. North American Menopause Society. Estrogen and progestogen use in postmenopausal women: 2010 position statement of the North American Menopause Society. Menopause 2010; 17:242255.
  3. Canonico M, Oger E, Plu-Bureau G; Estrogen and Thromboembolism Risk (ESTHER) Study Group. Hormone therapy and venous thromboembolism among postmenopausal women: impact of the route of estrogen administration and progestogens: the ESTHER study. Circulation 2007; 115:840845.
  4. Risks of postmenopausal hormone replacement (letters). JAMA 2002; 288:28192825.
  5. Rossouw JE, Prentice RL, Manson JE, et al. Postmenopausal hormone therapy and risk of cardiovascular disease by age and years since menopause. JAMA 2007; 297:14651477.
  6. Grodstein F, Manson JE, Colditz GA, Willett WC, Speizer FE, Stampfer MJ. A prospective, observational study of postmenopausal hormone therapy and primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Ann Intern Med 2000; 133:933941.
  7. Shumaker SA, Legault C, Rapp SR, et al; WHIMS Investigators. Estrogen plus progestin and the incidence of dementia and mild cognitive impairment in postmenopausal women: the Women’s Health Initiative Memory Study: a randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2003; 289:26512662.
  8. Chlebowski RT, Anderson GL, Gass M, et al; WHI Investigators. Estrogen plus progestin and breast cancer incidence and mortality in postmenopausal women. JAMA 2010; 304:16841692.
  9. Lobo RA. Treatment of the Postmenopausal Woman: Basic and Clinical Aspects. 3rd ed. Burlington, MA: Academic Press; 2007.
  10. Cirigliano M. Bioidentical hormone therapy: a review of the evidence. J Womens Health (Larchmt) 2007; 16:600631.
  11. Menopause Practice: A Clinician’s Guide. 4th ed. Cleveland, OH: The North American Menopause Society; 2010.
  12. What are bioidentical hormones? Natural. Bioidentical. Compounded. Confusion about these terms is only adding to the confusion over hormone therapy. Harv Womens Health Watch 2006; 13:13.
  13. The Writing Group for the PEPI Trial. Effects of estrogen or estrogen/progestin regimens on heart disease risk factors in postmenopausal women. The Postmenopausal Estrogen/Progestin Interventions (PEPI) Trial. JAMA 1995; 273:199208.
  14. Hodis HN, Mack WJ. Postmenopausal hormone therapy in clinical perspective. Menopause 2007; 14:944957.
References
  1. Rossouw JE, Anderson GL, Prentice RL, et al. Risks and benefits of estrogen plus progestin in healthy postmenopausal women: principal results from the Women’s Health Initiative randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2002; 288:321333.
  2. North American Menopause Society. Estrogen and progestogen use in postmenopausal women: 2010 position statement of the North American Menopause Society. Menopause 2010; 17:242255.
  3. Canonico M, Oger E, Plu-Bureau G; Estrogen and Thromboembolism Risk (ESTHER) Study Group. Hormone therapy and venous thromboembolism among postmenopausal women: impact of the route of estrogen administration and progestogens: the ESTHER study. Circulation 2007; 115:840845.
  4. Risks of postmenopausal hormone replacement (letters). JAMA 2002; 288:28192825.
  5. Rossouw JE, Prentice RL, Manson JE, et al. Postmenopausal hormone therapy and risk of cardiovascular disease by age and years since menopause. JAMA 2007; 297:14651477.
  6. Grodstein F, Manson JE, Colditz GA, Willett WC, Speizer FE, Stampfer MJ. A prospective, observational study of postmenopausal hormone therapy and primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Ann Intern Med 2000; 133:933941.
  7. Shumaker SA, Legault C, Rapp SR, et al; WHIMS Investigators. Estrogen plus progestin and the incidence of dementia and mild cognitive impairment in postmenopausal women: the Women’s Health Initiative Memory Study: a randomized controlled trial. JAMA 2003; 289:26512662.
  8. Chlebowski RT, Anderson GL, Gass M, et al; WHI Investigators. Estrogen plus progestin and breast cancer incidence and mortality in postmenopausal women. JAMA 2010; 304:16841692.
  9. Lobo RA. Treatment of the Postmenopausal Woman: Basic and Clinical Aspects. 3rd ed. Burlington, MA: Academic Press; 2007.
  10. Cirigliano M. Bioidentical hormone therapy: a review of the evidence. J Womens Health (Larchmt) 2007; 16:600631.
  11. Menopause Practice: A Clinician’s Guide. 4th ed. Cleveland, OH: The North American Menopause Society; 2010.
  12. What are bioidentical hormones? Natural. Bioidentical. Compounded. Confusion about these terms is only adding to the confusion over hormone therapy. Harv Womens Health Watch 2006; 13:13.
  13. The Writing Group for the PEPI Trial. Effects of estrogen or estrogen/progestin regimens on heart disease risk factors in postmenopausal women. The Postmenopausal Estrogen/Progestin Interventions (PEPI) Trial. JAMA 1995; 273:199208.
  14. Hodis HN, Mack WJ. Postmenopausal hormone therapy in clinical perspective. Menopause 2007; 14:944957.
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KEY POINTS

  • Hormone therapy is indicated for relief of menopausal symptoms; claims of reversal of the aging process are unsubstantiated.
  • Products that are custom-compounded are not regulated by the US Food and Drug Administration and therefore carry no assurance of purity, safety, or efficacy.
  • Transdermal progesterone creams do not achieve high enough serum levels to protect the endometrium.
  • Hormone therapy is titrated on the basis of symptom response. Measuring hormone levels in saliva is not called for and is probably not reliable.
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Essential tremor: Choosing the right management plan for your patient

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Essential tremor: Choosing the right management plan for your patient

Essential tremor, one of the most common movement disorders, affects about 4% of adults 40 years of age and older.1 It is often referred to as familial tremor in patients with a family history of tremor. It has also been called benign tremor to differentiate it from tremor associated with neurodegenerative diseases, particularly Parkinson disease, but this condition is certainly not benign, as it can cause substantial functional impairment and difficulties with routine activities of daily living. The terms “essential” and “idiopathic” refer to the primary nature of the disorder and differentiate it from tremor that is a feature of a distinct neurologic entity or is secondary to a metabolic disease or drug therapy.

Successful management entails exclusion of secondary causes and careful selection of drug therapy. To date, there is no cure for essential tremor; all currently available treatments are purely symptomatic.

In this review, we outline the major diagnostic and therapeutic principles of managing essential tremor, indications for referral to specialists, and alternative and advanced therapeutic options.

CLINICAL PICTURE

Tremor is defined as rhythmic to-and-fro movement in any body part. It can be slow or fast, and its amplitude can be large and coarse, or small or even “fine.” It can appear at rest, with action, or during a sustained posture. In contrast to parkinsonian tremor (which presents mainly at rest), essential tremor is typically but not exclusively postural, kinetic, or both.

Postural tremor refers to tremor seen when the patient holds the affected limb (commonly the arm) unsupported against gravity. Kinetic tremor refers to tremor that appears with active movements. This is often demonstrated clinically by the finger-nose-finger test. Patients with essential tremor commonly have both postural and kinetic tremor.

The tremor commonly involves the arms, hands, and fingers.2 Less commonly, it involves the head, the lips, the tongue, the legs, and the voice. In contrast to parkinsonian tremor, which typically affects one side of the body first, bilateral involvement is the general rule in essential tremor. However, one side of the body may be affected first, or may be more affected than the other. The frequency of the tremor ranges from 4 to 12 Hz (ie, beats per second).

The tremor usually starts in middle age and progresses slowly over time,3 but onset in old age or childhood is also possible.4 Both sexes are equally affected.

The tremor usually gets worse with anxiety, stress, and caffeine intake. It usually gets temporarily better with the consumption of small amounts of alcohol.

The functional impact of essential tremor is judged by its effect on different daily activities, especially writing, eating, drinking, dressing, manual work, and household chores.

In addition to motor dysfunction, the tremor can also have a significant psychological impact on the patient, because it usually gets worse in social situations.

Although it has long been thought that tremor is the sole neurologic sign of essential tremor, recent studies have shown that many patients have additional subtle findings, such as mild gait difficulty,5 slight incoordination,6 mild cognitive impairment,7 and decreased hearing,8 and are more likely to have anxiety and social phobia.9

Although different studies have varied in their findings, it is generally thought that about 50% of patients with essential tremor have a positive family history, often in a first-degree relative, suggesting autosomal dominant inheritance with variable penetrance.10,11 Polygenetic and sporadic variants are also common.

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

Figure 1. Diagnosing essential tremor requires differentiating its postural and kinetic elements from other types of tremor, particularly resting tremor. At left, the patient exhibits tremor at rest, which, when accompanied by rigidity and bradykinesia, is typical of parkinsonian tremor. At right, a patient with essential tremor exhibits postural tremor when holding the arm unsupported against gravity. About 20% of patients with essential tremor also have resting tremor, but the resting tremor is often milder than the postural and kinetic tremors.
The postural and kinetic elements of essential tremor must be differentiated from other forms of tremor, namely resting tremor (Figure 1) and intentional tremor. Secondary causes of postural and kinetic tremor should also be ruled out before deciding on the diagnosis of essential tremor.

Resting tremor

Resting tremor is typically an extrapyramidal sign and, when accompanied by rigidity and bradykinesia, is often part of a parkinsonian syndrome. It is most pronounced at rest when the affected body part is fully supported and stationary. The tremor tends to improve with action or posture. It usually has a “pill-rolling” character and, as mentioned, is associated with other extrapyramidal signs, such as rigidity, slowness, and, later on, postural instability.

About 20% of patients with essential tremor have resting tremor. These patients usually suffer from severe or long-standing disease.12 However, the resting element in these cases is often milder than the postural and kinetic components, and it is typically not associated with other extrapyramidal signs. Also, some patients may have both essential tremor and Parkinson disease.13

Intentional tremor

Pure intentional tremor is usually seen with cerebellar pathology, which includes tumors, stroke, multiple sclerosis, trauma, and spinocerebellar degeneration. The amplitude of this type of tremor increases as the affected limb approaches the final target. It can best be demonstrated clinically by the finger-nose-finger test. The frequency of intentional tremor is slow (2 to 4 Hz) and is usually associated with other cerebellar signs, such as dysmetria, decomposition, rebound, and dysdiadochokinesia (ie, the inability to perform rapid alternating movements in a smooth and coordinated manner).

About 50% of patients with essential tremor have an intentional component to their tremor,6 or it can be mildly present in the form of a slight gait difficulty. However, in essential tremor, other features of cerebellar dysfunction are either absent or only very slight.

 

 

Secondary causes of postural-kinetic tremor

Enhanced physiologic tremor. A very mild postural tremor is present in almost all people and is considered “physiologic” since it has almost no clinical significance. This type of tremor is often invisible, but when “enhanced,” it can be visually demonstrated by placing a piece of paper over the stretched hands and watching the ripple from the paper.

Certain conditions can aggravate this physiologic tremor and can make it symptomatic. Common causes include anxiety, sleep deprivation, hypoglycemia, hyperthyroidism, pheochromocytoma, serotonin syndrome, and carcinoid syndrome.

Metabolic tremor. Hyperammonemia can cause tremor in patients with hepatic encephalopathy, and uremia can cause tremor in patients with renal failure. These metabolic conditions classically result in “flappy” tremor (asterixis), a special form of postural tremor characterized by jerking movements with high amplitude. It is best seen when the patient stretches out the arms and extends the wrists as if trying to stop traffic. But even though it may look like tremor, asterixis is thought to be a form of “negative” myoclonus.

Drug-related tremor. Postural-kinetic tremor can be induced by drugs, including lithium (Lithobid), valproate (Depakote), amiodarone (Cordarone), central nervous system stimulants, beta agonists (including inhalers), and some antidepressants. Tremor can also occur with alcohol or sedative withdrawal.

Psychogenic tremor. Tremor can be seen as part of a somatoform disorder commonly referred to as conversion disorder or conversion reaction. Psychogenic tremor is characterized by acute onset, commonly following a psychosocial stressor; it is often atypical, variable in frequency, amplitude, and body-part involvement, and it can readily be interrupted on examination by distracting the patient.

Neurologic disorders. The postural and kinetic elements of essential tremor may also be seen in the following neurologic conditions:

  • Holmes (rubral) tremor, a combination of resting, postural, kinetic, and intentional tremor of low frequency and high amplitude. It usually has a proximal component and is often unilateral. It commonly is due to a lesion that involves the brainstem, eg, red nucleus, inferior olive, cerebellum, or thalamus. Common causes include stroke, prolonged hypoxia, and head trauma (including closed-head trauma with negative imaging). This type of tremor is usually associated with ataxia.14
  • Dystonic tremor is predominantly postural and is associated with abnormal dystonic posturing of the affected body part, commonly the head, hands, or feet. Unlike the rhythmic oscillations of essential tremor, dystonic tremor is often irregular in rhythm.
  • Multiple sclerosis can present with a combination of postural, kinetic, and intentional tremor. Patients usually have a clear history of recurrent neurologic deficits and show a combination of pyramidal, cerebellar, and sensory signs on examination consistent with multiple sclerosis.15
  • Neuropathic tremor is seen in a small proportion of patients with peripheral neuropathy, especially demyelinating neuropathy.16 The tremor is usually posturalkinetic and is associated with signs of neuropathy, such as a glove-and-stocking pattern of hypoesthesia, reduced reflexes, and sensory ataxia (including intentional tremor when the eyes are closed).
  • Posttraumatic tremor can occur after severe or even mild head trauma, especially in children. It is commonly rubral, but other types have been reported, including a presentation resembling essential tremor.17
  • Monosymptomatic or isolated tremor. A number of conditions related to essential tremor with location-specific or task-specific tremor have been described. These rare conditions historically have been classified as “possible essential tremor” or “essential tremor variants” but are now considered separate entities. These include task-specific tremor (eg, writing tremor), isolated head tremor, isolated voice tremor, and orthostatic tremor (tremor in the legs and trunk upon standing in place, but not when sitting or walking).18,19

DIAGNOSIS IS CLINICAL

Essential tremor is a clinical diagnosis. After a thorough review of the medical history and medication exposures, laboratory and imaging tests may be ordered to rule out a secondary cause. A complete metabolic panel, including blood glucose and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels, is usually sufficient. Brain imaging or other imaging is ordered for patients with an atypical presentation.

TREATMENT IS SYMPTOMATIC

Treatment of essential tremor is symptomatic. Several drugs of different pharmacologic classes can reduce the severity of the tremor and improve function.

Choosing the appropriate treatment depends on the type of tremor and the presence of associated conditions. The response to treatment and the development of side effects guide further adjustments. The following is a brief description of the available antitremor agents.

FIRST-LINE AGENTS

Propranolol

Propranolol (Inderal), a nonselective beta blocker, is the most widely used antitremor drug and the only agent approved by the US Food and Drug Administration for essential tremor. It should be started at a low dose and titrated upward gradually. The usual starting dose is 10 mg three times daily. The average effective dose is 120 mg daily. The dose can be increased up to 320 mg if needed and tolerated.

Sustained-release preparations are equally effective and are given as a single daily dose to improve compliance.20

Propranolol improves tremor in 50% to 70% of patients with essential tremor and achieves an average tremor reduction of 50% to 60%.1,21–25 Side effects include bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, hypotension, depression, impotence, fatigue, and gastrointestinal disturbances.

Other beta-blockers, such as nadolol (Corgard) and timolol, are also effective against tremor but are less potent than propranolol.26,27 The selective beta-1-blocker metoprolol (Lopressor) may be effective and has fewer noncardiac side effects than propranolol.28 It can be used in patients who discontinue propranolol because of adverse effects. Atenolol (Tenormin) and pindolol (Visken) have little or no effect on tremor.29

A good candidate for propranolol therapy in essential tremor is:

  • A patient with no known contraindication to propranolol
  • A patient with hypertension, coronary heart disease, or tachyarrhythmia
  • A patient with anxiety or social phobia.

Absolute contraindications to propranolol are:

  • Moderate to severe bronchial asthma
  • Significant bradycardia or heart block
  • Symptomatic hypotension
  • End-stage heart failure
  • Concurrent use of a calcium channel blocker.

Relative contraindications are:

  • Wheezing (eg, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
  • Depression
  • Diabetes mellitus in a patient more prone to hypoglycemia (propranolol masks the warning signs of hypoglycemia)
  • Reduced sexual potency in a male patient.

 

 

Primidone

Primidone (Mysoline) is an antiepileptic drug structurally similar to barbiturates. Its antitremor effect is equal to that of propranolol, though some studies suggest it is slightly more efficacious.30,31

It should be started at a low dose, ie, 25 mg once daily at bedtime. The dose should then be increased gradually until satisfactory and tolerable tremor control is achieved. Most patients respond to doses of around 250 mg per day.1,22,24–25 The dose can be increased if needed and tolerated.

Primidone reduces tremor by about 50% to 60%.1,22,24–25 Side effects include sedation, dizziness, fatigue, nausea, and depression, as well as ataxia and confusion in severe cases.

A good candidate for primidone in essential tremor is:

  • A patient with no known contraindication to primidone
  • A patient with contraindications to propranolol
  • A younger patient
  • A patient with epilepsy.

Absolute contraindications to primidone include:

  • Confusion or dementia
  • Oral anticoagulant therapy with difficulty controlling the International Normalized Ratio (primidone is a potent enzyme inducer).

Relative contraindications to primidone in essential tremor are:

  • Depression
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Ongoing therapy with sedating drugs
  • Ataxia or vertigo.

SECOND-LINE AGENTS

Other antiepileptics

Topiramate (Topamax) is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic shown to be significantly effective against essential tremor.32 It is usually started at a single daily dose of 25 mg and increased gradually to the most effective dose, usually around 300 mg.

Side effects include reduced appetite, weight loss, cognitive dysfunction, and paresthesia.

Favorable candidates include patients who are epileptic or overweight. Contraindications include cognitive impairment and low body weight. It is also not recommended in children so as to avoid any possible negative effect on cognitive development. In rare cases, topiramate has been reported to cause significant visual disturbances.

Gabapentin (Neurontin) is an antiepileptic that is now more often used as a symptomatic treatment for neuropathic pain. Studies have suggested a beneficial effect on essential tremor,33,34 but some investigators have questioned its efficacy.35

Like other antitremor agents, it should be started at a low dose, ie, around 300 mg, and escalated gradually until the tremor is controlled. The usual effective dose is 1,200 mg.

Gabapentin is generally well tolerated, and side effects such as dizziness, drowsiness, sedation, and unsteadiness are rare and usually mild.

The favorable candidate is a patient with associated neuropathy or multiple comorbidities. Gabapentin has also been reported to alleviate neuropathic tremor.

Contraindications are minimal and include intolerability or hypersensitivity to the drug. It also should be avoided in patients at a high risk of falling.

Levetiracetam (Keppra) is a novel antiepileptic effective against partial seizures. Studies have shown contradictory results regarding its antitremor effect. One double-blind, placebo-controlled study demonstrated significant reduction in essential tremor with 1,000 mg of levetiracetam.36 However, its effect on tremor is believed to be short-lived, and some studies argue against its efficacy.37 It has a favorable side-effect profile and is generally very well tolerated. It can be used as an adjunct to other antitremor agents and is preferred for patients with coexisting partial seizures or myoclonus.

Benzodiazepines. Minor tranquilizers are often used to control tremor, especially in coexisting anxiety or insomnia. Alprazolam (Xanax) is the one most widely used for this indication.38 It can be started in a dose of 0.25 mg once at bedtime and increased gradually up to 0.75 to 2 mg. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is particularly useful for orthostatic tremor, a variant of essential tremor characterized by tremor of the legs and trunk upon standing.39

Common side effects of benzodiazepines include sedation, cognitive dysfunction, hypotension, respiratory inhibition, and addiction after prolonged use. In the elderly, they can lead to confusion and disinhibition and can increase the risk of falling. They should be avoided in the elderly and in alcoholic patients and those with a high risk of substance abuse.

Stopping benzodiazepines should be done gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, including aggravation of tremor.

THIRD-LINE AGENTS

Clozapine

Clozapine (Clozaril) is a novel antipsychotic drug with no extrapyramidal side effects. It has been reported effective in essential tremor and drug-induced tremor,40,41 but the results of these early studies have not been confirmed.

Clozapine is started as a single daily dose of 12.5 mg and is increased up to 75 mg or 100 mg. It is an attractive option for patients with coexisting psychosis, bipolar disorder, or chorea. Its main side effects are sedation, salivation, weight gain, hypertension, diabetes, and seizures.

One especially serious side effect is agranulocytosis. This potentially fatal effect is rare, occurring in about 1.3% of patients receiving this drug. Weekly monitoring of the white blood cell count is mandated during treatment with clozapine, and this has made clozapine a less attractive option for the routine treatment of essential tremor.

Mirtazapine

Mirtazapine (Remeron) is a novel antidepressant widely used in Parkinson disease as both an antidepressant and a sleeping aid. Case studies have reported efficacy in both essential tremor and parkinsonian tremor,42 but controlled studies have not confirmed this.43 Mirtazapine is a reasonable option in patients with coexisting depression or insomnia. It is usually given as a single bedtime dose of 15 to 30 mg.

Other drugs

Studies of other agents for the treatment of essential tremor—eg, carbonic anhydrase enzyme inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, isoniazid (Tubizid), clonidine (Catapres), phenobarbital, and theophylline—have yielded highly contradictory results. Thus, they are not recommended as first- or second-line agents for essential tremor.

 

 

SPECIALTY-LEVEL CARE

When essential tremor does not respond to drug therapy or the patient cannot tolerate drug therapy, the patient should be referred to a center specializing in movement disorders for more advanced treatment options, ie, botulinum toxin injection and deep brain stimulation surgery.

Botulinum toxin

Botulinum toxin type A has been studied for the treatment of essential tremor with variable degrees of success. It has been effective in reducing hand tremor in essential tremor, but without a concomitant improvement in functional disability.44 This limited functional improvement has been attributed to the development of muscle weakness after injection of the neurotoxin. This has also raised questions about unintentional unblinding when interpreting study results. Therefore, most clinicians restrict its use to focal forms of tremor such as voice tremor,45 head tremor, and task-specific tremor.

Side effects are limited and temporary and include muscle weakness, pain at the injection site, dysphagia (when injected for head or voice tremor), and a breathy vocal quality (when injected for voice tremor). Botulinum toxin injection is the treatment of choice for focal dystonia, and therefore would be a good option for dystonic tremor.

Thalamic deep brain stimulation

This technique involves stereotactic implantation of a stimulation lead in the ventral intermediate nucleus of the thalamus. The lead connects via a subcutaneous wire to an intermittent pulse generator, implanted subcutaneously in the infraclavicular region. The stimulation lead produces continuous stimulation of the ventralis intermedius nucleus that is functionally equal to lesional surgery, thus antagonizing the relay of tremor signals at the thalamus.

The battery of the pulse generator must be replaced every 4 to 7 years depending on usage and stimulation parameters. Battery replacement can be performed with minor surgery at the infraclavicular region.

Thalamic deep brain stimulation is indicated for patients with severe, disabling essential tremor who have tremor resistant to drug therapy or who cannot tolerate drug therapy.

The procedure has been shown to provide benefit in 90% of patients, with more than an 80% improvement in tremor severity and functional impact.46–49 Deep brain stimulation is effective against tremor affecting parts of the body other than the limbs, including the head; an exception to this is voice tremor, which usually does not improve dramatically. The procedure can be done unilaterally or bilaterally, depending on symptoms. Patients with asymmetrical tremor and those at risk of side effects can undergo unilateral surgery. Bilateral treatment is recommended for patients with symmetric tremor or significant head tremor, or who are young and healthy.

Surgical risks include brain hemorrhage and infection. Side effects of the stimulation include paresthesias, paresis, imbalance, dysarthria, and, in rare cases, dysphagia.

CHOOSING THE BEST MANAGEMENT PLAN FOR YOUR PATIENT

The choice of treatment may be challenging, given the multiple treatment options and the variability of tremor severity from one patient to another. The following guidelines can be used to help make this decision.

All patients should be advised to reduce caffeine intake, to have sufficient hours of sleep, and to avoid stressful situations.

Patients with minor, nondisabling tremor can be left untreated if the tremors are not bothersome or if the patient prefers not to pursue active treatment.

In patients who have bothersome tremor only when anxious or in certain social situations, give propranolol or alprazolam (or both) to be taken as needed. Relaxation techniques and meditation are also useful for these patients.

Patients with constant bothersome tremor should be started on either propranolol or primidone based on the patient’s profile and propensity to develop side effects from each of these drugs. The dosing should be optimized gradually according to the patient’s response and the drug’s tolerability.

If essential tremor is not sufficiently controlled with one first-line agent (propranolol or primidone), try combining the two first-line agents if the patient finds it tolerable.

A second-line agent can be added to either of the first-line agents or to the combination of both if tremor control is not yet sufficient. A second-line or third-line agent can also be used as the primary treatment if both first-line agents are contraindicated or intolerable. Combining two or more second- and third-line agents is another option. The choice of second- or third-line agent should be guided by the patient’s characteristics and comorbidities in relation to the agent’s side effects and contraindications as detailed in the above section.

Patients should be referred to a movement disorders specialist in cases of resistant tremor, intolerance to oral medications, severe disability, and atypical presentation. Types of tremor known to be poorly responsive to oral medications (eg, head tremor, voice tremor) deserve a specialist evaluation if they contribute significantly to the patient’s morbidity.

The usual specialist treatment of severe voice tremor and head tremor is botulinum toxin injection. Patients with resistant and disabling hand tremor are evaluated for thalamic deep brain stimulation.

Patients with residual disability despite medical and surgical treatment should be referred for occupational therapy. Occupational therapy can improve quality of life through the use of special utensils, pens, computer gadgets, and arm weights, among other devices.

References
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  13. Shahed J, Jankovic J. Exploring the relationship between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease. Parkinsonism Relat Disord 2007; 13:6776.
  14. Yang YW, Chang FC, Tsai CH, et al. Clinical and magnetic resonance imaging manifestations of Holmes tremor. Acta Neurol Taiwan 2005; 14:915.
  15. Alusi SH, Worthington J, Glickman S, et al. A study of tremor in multiple sclerosis. Brain 2001; 124:720730.
  16. Breit S, Wächter T, Schöls L, et al. Effective thalamic deep brain stimulation for neuropathic tremor in a patient with severe demyelinating neuropathy. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 2009; 80:235236.
  17. Koller WC, Wong GF, Lang A. Posttraumatic movement disorders: a review. Mov Disord 1989; 4:2036.
  18. Jankovic J. Essential tremor: a heterogenous disorder. Mov Disord 2002; 17:638644.
  19. Deuschl G, Bain P, Brin M. Consensus statement of the Movement Disorder Society on Tremor. Ad Hoc Scientific Committee. Mov Disord 1998; 13(suppl 3):223.
  20. Calzetti S, Findley LJ, Gresty MA, et al. Effect of a single oral dose of propranolol on essential tremor: a double-blind controlled study. Ann Neurol 1983; 13:165171.
  21. Larsen TA, Teräväinen H, Calne DB. Atenolol vs propranolol in essential tremor. A controlled, quantitative study. Acta Neurol Scand 1982; 66:547554.
  22. Zesiewicz TA, Elble R, Louis ED, et al. Practice parameter: therapies for essential tremor: report of the Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology. Neurology 2005; 64:20082020.
  23. Lyons KE, Pahwa R, Comella CL, et al.Benefits and risks of pharmacological treatments for essential tremor. Drug Saf 2003; 26:461481.
  24. Pahwa R, Lyons KE. Essential tremor: differential diagnosis and current therapy. Am J Med 2003; 115:134142.
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  26. Koller WC. Nadolol in essential tremor. Neurology 1983; 33:10761077.
  27. Dietrichson P, Espen E. Effects of timolol and atenolol on benign essential tremor: placebo-controlled studies based on quantitative tremor recording. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1981; 44:677683.
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  32. Connor GS. A double-blind placebo-controlled trial of topiramate treatment for essential tremor. Neurology 2002; 59:132134.
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  34. Ondo W, Hunter C, Vuong KD, et al. Gabapentin for essential tremor: a multiple-dose, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. Mov Disord 2000; 15:678682.
  35. Pahwa R, Lyons K, Hubble JP, et al. Double-blind controlled trial of gabapentin in essential tremor. Mov Disord 1998; 13:465467.
  36. Bushara KO, Malik T, Exconde RE. The effect of levetiracetam on essential tremor. Neurology 2005; 64:10781080.
  37. Sullivan KL, Hauser RA, Zesiewicz TA. Levetiracetam for the treatment of essential tremor. Mov Disord 2005; 20:640.
  38. Huber SJ, Paulson GW. Efficacy of alprazolam for essential tremor. Neurology 1988; 38:241243.
  39. McManis PG, Sharbrough FW. Orthostatic tremor: clinical and electrophysiologic characteristics. Muscle Nerve 1993; 16:12541260.
  40. Ceravolo R, Salvetti S, Piccini P, et al. Acute and chronic effects of clozapine in essential tremor. Mov Disord 1999; 14:468472.
  41. Pakkenberg H, Pakkenberg B. Clozapine in the treatment of tremor. Acta Neurol Scand 1986; 73:295297.
  42. Pact V, Giduz T. Mirtazapine treats resting tremor, essential tremor, and levodopa-induced dyskinesias. Neurology 1999; 53:1154.
  43. Lyons KE, Pahwa R. A double-blind, placebo-controlled, pilot study of mirtazapine in essential tremor. Presented at the 54th Annual Meeting of the American Academy of Neurology, Denver, Colorado. Neurology 2002; 58(suppl 3):A254.
  44. Brin MF, Lyons KE, Doucette J, et al. A randomized, double masked, controlled trial of botulinum toxin type A in essential hand tremor. Neurology 2001; 56:15231528.
  45. Blitzer A, Brin MF, Stewart C, et al. Abductor laryngeal dystonia: a series treated with botulinum toxin. Laryngoscope 1992; 102:163167.
  46. Schuurman PR, Bosch DA, Bossuyt PM, et al. A comparison of continuous thalamic stimulation and thalamotomy for suppression of severe tremor. N Engl J Med 2000; 342:461468.
  47. Flora ED, Perera CL, Cameron AL, et al. Deep brain stimulation for essential tremor: a systematic review. Mov Disord 2010; 25:15501559.
  48. Nagaseki Y, Shibazaki T, Hirai T, et al. Long-term follow-up results of selective VIM-thalamotomy. J Neurosurg 1986; 65:296302.
  49. Zirh A, Reich SG, Dougherty PM, et al. Stereotactic thalamotomy in the treatment of essential tremor of the upper extremity: reassessment including a blinded measure of outcome. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1999; 66:772775.
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Anwar Ahmed, MD
Director, Movement Disorders Fellowship, Program, Section of Movement Disorders, Center for Neurological Restoration, Neurological Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Hubert H. Fernandez, MD, FAAN, FANA
Head, Section of Movement Disorders, Center for Neurological Restoration, Neurological Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Anwar Ahmed, MD, Center for Neurological Restoration, U-2, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Director, Movement Disorders Fellowship, Program, Section of Movement Disorders, Center for Neurological Restoration, Neurological Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Hubert H. Fernandez, MD, FAAN, FANA
Head, Section of Movement Disorders, Center for Neurological Restoration, Neurological Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Anwar Ahmed, MD, Center for Neurological Restoration, U-2, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Section of Movement Disorders, Center for Neurological Restoration, Neurological Institute, Cleveland Clinic;, and Assistant, Lecturer of Neurology, Faculty of Medicine, University of Alexandria, Egypt

Anwar Ahmed, MD
Director, Movement Disorders Fellowship, Program, Section of Movement Disorders, Center for Neurological Restoration, Neurological Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Hubert H. Fernandez, MD, FAAN, FANA
Head, Section of Movement Disorders, Center for Neurological Restoration, Neurological Institute, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Anwar Ahmed, MD, Center for Neurological Restoration, U-2, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Related Articles

Essential tremor, one of the most common movement disorders, affects about 4% of adults 40 years of age and older.1 It is often referred to as familial tremor in patients with a family history of tremor. It has also been called benign tremor to differentiate it from tremor associated with neurodegenerative diseases, particularly Parkinson disease, but this condition is certainly not benign, as it can cause substantial functional impairment and difficulties with routine activities of daily living. The terms “essential” and “idiopathic” refer to the primary nature of the disorder and differentiate it from tremor that is a feature of a distinct neurologic entity or is secondary to a metabolic disease or drug therapy.

Successful management entails exclusion of secondary causes and careful selection of drug therapy. To date, there is no cure for essential tremor; all currently available treatments are purely symptomatic.

In this review, we outline the major diagnostic and therapeutic principles of managing essential tremor, indications for referral to specialists, and alternative and advanced therapeutic options.

CLINICAL PICTURE

Tremor is defined as rhythmic to-and-fro movement in any body part. It can be slow or fast, and its amplitude can be large and coarse, or small or even “fine.” It can appear at rest, with action, or during a sustained posture. In contrast to parkinsonian tremor (which presents mainly at rest), essential tremor is typically but not exclusively postural, kinetic, or both.

Postural tremor refers to tremor seen when the patient holds the affected limb (commonly the arm) unsupported against gravity. Kinetic tremor refers to tremor that appears with active movements. This is often demonstrated clinically by the finger-nose-finger test. Patients with essential tremor commonly have both postural and kinetic tremor.

The tremor commonly involves the arms, hands, and fingers.2 Less commonly, it involves the head, the lips, the tongue, the legs, and the voice. In contrast to parkinsonian tremor, which typically affects one side of the body first, bilateral involvement is the general rule in essential tremor. However, one side of the body may be affected first, or may be more affected than the other. The frequency of the tremor ranges from 4 to 12 Hz (ie, beats per second).

The tremor usually starts in middle age and progresses slowly over time,3 but onset in old age or childhood is also possible.4 Both sexes are equally affected.

The tremor usually gets worse with anxiety, stress, and caffeine intake. It usually gets temporarily better with the consumption of small amounts of alcohol.

The functional impact of essential tremor is judged by its effect on different daily activities, especially writing, eating, drinking, dressing, manual work, and household chores.

In addition to motor dysfunction, the tremor can also have a significant psychological impact on the patient, because it usually gets worse in social situations.

Although it has long been thought that tremor is the sole neurologic sign of essential tremor, recent studies have shown that many patients have additional subtle findings, such as mild gait difficulty,5 slight incoordination,6 mild cognitive impairment,7 and decreased hearing,8 and are more likely to have anxiety and social phobia.9

Although different studies have varied in their findings, it is generally thought that about 50% of patients with essential tremor have a positive family history, often in a first-degree relative, suggesting autosomal dominant inheritance with variable penetrance.10,11 Polygenetic and sporadic variants are also common.

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

Figure 1. Diagnosing essential tremor requires differentiating its postural and kinetic elements from other types of tremor, particularly resting tremor. At left, the patient exhibits tremor at rest, which, when accompanied by rigidity and bradykinesia, is typical of parkinsonian tremor. At right, a patient with essential tremor exhibits postural tremor when holding the arm unsupported against gravity. About 20% of patients with essential tremor also have resting tremor, but the resting tremor is often milder than the postural and kinetic tremors.
The postural and kinetic elements of essential tremor must be differentiated from other forms of tremor, namely resting tremor (Figure 1) and intentional tremor. Secondary causes of postural and kinetic tremor should also be ruled out before deciding on the diagnosis of essential tremor.

Resting tremor

Resting tremor is typically an extrapyramidal sign and, when accompanied by rigidity and bradykinesia, is often part of a parkinsonian syndrome. It is most pronounced at rest when the affected body part is fully supported and stationary. The tremor tends to improve with action or posture. It usually has a “pill-rolling” character and, as mentioned, is associated with other extrapyramidal signs, such as rigidity, slowness, and, later on, postural instability.

About 20% of patients with essential tremor have resting tremor. These patients usually suffer from severe or long-standing disease.12 However, the resting element in these cases is often milder than the postural and kinetic components, and it is typically not associated with other extrapyramidal signs. Also, some patients may have both essential tremor and Parkinson disease.13

Intentional tremor

Pure intentional tremor is usually seen with cerebellar pathology, which includes tumors, stroke, multiple sclerosis, trauma, and spinocerebellar degeneration. The amplitude of this type of tremor increases as the affected limb approaches the final target. It can best be demonstrated clinically by the finger-nose-finger test. The frequency of intentional tremor is slow (2 to 4 Hz) and is usually associated with other cerebellar signs, such as dysmetria, decomposition, rebound, and dysdiadochokinesia (ie, the inability to perform rapid alternating movements in a smooth and coordinated manner).

About 50% of patients with essential tremor have an intentional component to their tremor,6 or it can be mildly present in the form of a slight gait difficulty. However, in essential tremor, other features of cerebellar dysfunction are either absent or only very slight.

 

 

Secondary causes of postural-kinetic tremor

Enhanced physiologic tremor. A very mild postural tremor is present in almost all people and is considered “physiologic” since it has almost no clinical significance. This type of tremor is often invisible, but when “enhanced,” it can be visually demonstrated by placing a piece of paper over the stretched hands and watching the ripple from the paper.

Certain conditions can aggravate this physiologic tremor and can make it symptomatic. Common causes include anxiety, sleep deprivation, hypoglycemia, hyperthyroidism, pheochromocytoma, serotonin syndrome, and carcinoid syndrome.

Metabolic tremor. Hyperammonemia can cause tremor in patients with hepatic encephalopathy, and uremia can cause tremor in patients with renal failure. These metabolic conditions classically result in “flappy” tremor (asterixis), a special form of postural tremor characterized by jerking movements with high amplitude. It is best seen when the patient stretches out the arms and extends the wrists as if trying to stop traffic. But even though it may look like tremor, asterixis is thought to be a form of “negative” myoclonus.

Drug-related tremor. Postural-kinetic tremor can be induced by drugs, including lithium (Lithobid), valproate (Depakote), amiodarone (Cordarone), central nervous system stimulants, beta agonists (including inhalers), and some antidepressants. Tremor can also occur with alcohol or sedative withdrawal.

Psychogenic tremor. Tremor can be seen as part of a somatoform disorder commonly referred to as conversion disorder or conversion reaction. Psychogenic tremor is characterized by acute onset, commonly following a psychosocial stressor; it is often atypical, variable in frequency, amplitude, and body-part involvement, and it can readily be interrupted on examination by distracting the patient.

Neurologic disorders. The postural and kinetic elements of essential tremor may also be seen in the following neurologic conditions:

  • Holmes (rubral) tremor, a combination of resting, postural, kinetic, and intentional tremor of low frequency and high amplitude. It usually has a proximal component and is often unilateral. It commonly is due to a lesion that involves the brainstem, eg, red nucleus, inferior olive, cerebellum, or thalamus. Common causes include stroke, prolonged hypoxia, and head trauma (including closed-head trauma with negative imaging). This type of tremor is usually associated with ataxia.14
  • Dystonic tremor is predominantly postural and is associated with abnormal dystonic posturing of the affected body part, commonly the head, hands, or feet. Unlike the rhythmic oscillations of essential tremor, dystonic tremor is often irregular in rhythm.
  • Multiple sclerosis can present with a combination of postural, kinetic, and intentional tremor. Patients usually have a clear history of recurrent neurologic deficits and show a combination of pyramidal, cerebellar, and sensory signs on examination consistent with multiple sclerosis.15
  • Neuropathic tremor is seen in a small proportion of patients with peripheral neuropathy, especially demyelinating neuropathy.16 The tremor is usually posturalkinetic and is associated with signs of neuropathy, such as a glove-and-stocking pattern of hypoesthesia, reduced reflexes, and sensory ataxia (including intentional tremor when the eyes are closed).
  • Posttraumatic tremor can occur after severe or even mild head trauma, especially in children. It is commonly rubral, but other types have been reported, including a presentation resembling essential tremor.17
  • Monosymptomatic or isolated tremor. A number of conditions related to essential tremor with location-specific or task-specific tremor have been described. These rare conditions historically have been classified as “possible essential tremor” or “essential tremor variants” but are now considered separate entities. These include task-specific tremor (eg, writing tremor), isolated head tremor, isolated voice tremor, and orthostatic tremor (tremor in the legs and trunk upon standing in place, but not when sitting or walking).18,19

DIAGNOSIS IS CLINICAL

Essential tremor is a clinical diagnosis. After a thorough review of the medical history and medication exposures, laboratory and imaging tests may be ordered to rule out a secondary cause. A complete metabolic panel, including blood glucose and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels, is usually sufficient. Brain imaging or other imaging is ordered for patients with an atypical presentation.

TREATMENT IS SYMPTOMATIC

Treatment of essential tremor is symptomatic. Several drugs of different pharmacologic classes can reduce the severity of the tremor and improve function.

Choosing the appropriate treatment depends on the type of tremor and the presence of associated conditions. The response to treatment and the development of side effects guide further adjustments. The following is a brief description of the available antitremor agents.

FIRST-LINE AGENTS

Propranolol

Propranolol (Inderal), a nonselective beta blocker, is the most widely used antitremor drug and the only agent approved by the US Food and Drug Administration for essential tremor. It should be started at a low dose and titrated upward gradually. The usual starting dose is 10 mg three times daily. The average effective dose is 120 mg daily. The dose can be increased up to 320 mg if needed and tolerated.

Sustained-release preparations are equally effective and are given as a single daily dose to improve compliance.20

Propranolol improves tremor in 50% to 70% of patients with essential tremor and achieves an average tremor reduction of 50% to 60%.1,21–25 Side effects include bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, hypotension, depression, impotence, fatigue, and gastrointestinal disturbances.

Other beta-blockers, such as nadolol (Corgard) and timolol, are also effective against tremor but are less potent than propranolol.26,27 The selective beta-1-blocker metoprolol (Lopressor) may be effective and has fewer noncardiac side effects than propranolol.28 It can be used in patients who discontinue propranolol because of adverse effects. Atenolol (Tenormin) and pindolol (Visken) have little or no effect on tremor.29

A good candidate for propranolol therapy in essential tremor is:

  • A patient with no known contraindication to propranolol
  • A patient with hypertension, coronary heart disease, or tachyarrhythmia
  • A patient with anxiety or social phobia.

Absolute contraindications to propranolol are:

  • Moderate to severe bronchial asthma
  • Significant bradycardia or heart block
  • Symptomatic hypotension
  • End-stage heart failure
  • Concurrent use of a calcium channel blocker.

Relative contraindications are:

  • Wheezing (eg, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
  • Depression
  • Diabetes mellitus in a patient more prone to hypoglycemia (propranolol masks the warning signs of hypoglycemia)
  • Reduced sexual potency in a male patient.

 

 

Primidone

Primidone (Mysoline) is an antiepileptic drug structurally similar to barbiturates. Its antitremor effect is equal to that of propranolol, though some studies suggest it is slightly more efficacious.30,31

It should be started at a low dose, ie, 25 mg once daily at bedtime. The dose should then be increased gradually until satisfactory and tolerable tremor control is achieved. Most patients respond to doses of around 250 mg per day.1,22,24–25 The dose can be increased if needed and tolerated.

Primidone reduces tremor by about 50% to 60%.1,22,24–25 Side effects include sedation, dizziness, fatigue, nausea, and depression, as well as ataxia and confusion in severe cases.

A good candidate for primidone in essential tremor is:

  • A patient with no known contraindication to primidone
  • A patient with contraindications to propranolol
  • A younger patient
  • A patient with epilepsy.

Absolute contraindications to primidone include:

  • Confusion or dementia
  • Oral anticoagulant therapy with difficulty controlling the International Normalized Ratio (primidone is a potent enzyme inducer).

Relative contraindications to primidone in essential tremor are:

  • Depression
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Ongoing therapy with sedating drugs
  • Ataxia or vertigo.

SECOND-LINE AGENTS

Other antiepileptics

Topiramate (Topamax) is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic shown to be significantly effective against essential tremor.32 It is usually started at a single daily dose of 25 mg and increased gradually to the most effective dose, usually around 300 mg.

Side effects include reduced appetite, weight loss, cognitive dysfunction, and paresthesia.

Favorable candidates include patients who are epileptic or overweight. Contraindications include cognitive impairment and low body weight. It is also not recommended in children so as to avoid any possible negative effect on cognitive development. In rare cases, topiramate has been reported to cause significant visual disturbances.

Gabapentin (Neurontin) is an antiepileptic that is now more often used as a symptomatic treatment for neuropathic pain. Studies have suggested a beneficial effect on essential tremor,33,34 but some investigators have questioned its efficacy.35

Like other antitremor agents, it should be started at a low dose, ie, around 300 mg, and escalated gradually until the tremor is controlled. The usual effective dose is 1,200 mg.

Gabapentin is generally well tolerated, and side effects such as dizziness, drowsiness, sedation, and unsteadiness are rare and usually mild.

The favorable candidate is a patient with associated neuropathy or multiple comorbidities. Gabapentin has also been reported to alleviate neuropathic tremor.

Contraindications are minimal and include intolerability or hypersensitivity to the drug. It also should be avoided in patients at a high risk of falling.

Levetiracetam (Keppra) is a novel antiepileptic effective against partial seizures. Studies have shown contradictory results regarding its antitremor effect. One double-blind, placebo-controlled study demonstrated significant reduction in essential tremor with 1,000 mg of levetiracetam.36 However, its effect on tremor is believed to be short-lived, and some studies argue against its efficacy.37 It has a favorable side-effect profile and is generally very well tolerated. It can be used as an adjunct to other antitremor agents and is preferred for patients with coexisting partial seizures or myoclonus.

Benzodiazepines. Minor tranquilizers are often used to control tremor, especially in coexisting anxiety or insomnia. Alprazolam (Xanax) is the one most widely used for this indication.38 It can be started in a dose of 0.25 mg once at bedtime and increased gradually up to 0.75 to 2 mg. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is particularly useful for orthostatic tremor, a variant of essential tremor characterized by tremor of the legs and trunk upon standing.39

Common side effects of benzodiazepines include sedation, cognitive dysfunction, hypotension, respiratory inhibition, and addiction after prolonged use. In the elderly, they can lead to confusion and disinhibition and can increase the risk of falling. They should be avoided in the elderly and in alcoholic patients and those with a high risk of substance abuse.

Stopping benzodiazepines should be done gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, including aggravation of tremor.

THIRD-LINE AGENTS

Clozapine

Clozapine (Clozaril) is a novel antipsychotic drug with no extrapyramidal side effects. It has been reported effective in essential tremor and drug-induced tremor,40,41 but the results of these early studies have not been confirmed.

Clozapine is started as a single daily dose of 12.5 mg and is increased up to 75 mg or 100 mg. It is an attractive option for patients with coexisting psychosis, bipolar disorder, or chorea. Its main side effects are sedation, salivation, weight gain, hypertension, diabetes, and seizures.

One especially serious side effect is agranulocytosis. This potentially fatal effect is rare, occurring in about 1.3% of patients receiving this drug. Weekly monitoring of the white blood cell count is mandated during treatment with clozapine, and this has made clozapine a less attractive option for the routine treatment of essential tremor.

Mirtazapine

Mirtazapine (Remeron) is a novel antidepressant widely used in Parkinson disease as both an antidepressant and a sleeping aid. Case studies have reported efficacy in both essential tremor and parkinsonian tremor,42 but controlled studies have not confirmed this.43 Mirtazapine is a reasonable option in patients with coexisting depression or insomnia. It is usually given as a single bedtime dose of 15 to 30 mg.

Other drugs

Studies of other agents for the treatment of essential tremor—eg, carbonic anhydrase enzyme inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, isoniazid (Tubizid), clonidine (Catapres), phenobarbital, and theophylline—have yielded highly contradictory results. Thus, they are not recommended as first- or second-line agents for essential tremor.

 

 

SPECIALTY-LEVEL CARE

When essential tremor does not respond to drug therapy or the patient cannot tolerate drug therapy, the patient should be referred to a center specializing in movement disorders for more advanced treatment options, ie, botulinum toxin injection and deep brain stimulation surgery.

Botulinum toxin

Botulinum toxin type A has been studied for the treatment of essential tremor with variable degrees of success. It has been effective in reducing hand tremor in essential tremor, but without a concomitant improvement in functional disability.44 This limited functional improvement has been attributed to the development of muscle weakness after injection of the neurotoxin. This has also raised questions about unintentional unblinding when interpreting study results. Therefore, most clinicians restrict its use to focal forms of tremor such as voice tremor,45 head tremor, and task-specific tremor.

Side effects are limited and temporary and include muscle weakness, pain at the injection site, dysphagia (when injected for head or voice tremor), and a breathy vocal quality (when injected for voice tremor). Botulinum toxin injection is the treatment of choice for focal dystonia, and therefore would be a good option for dystonic tremor.

Thalamic deep brain stimulation

This technique involves stereotactic implantation of a stimulation lead in the ventral intermediate nucleus of the thalamus. The lead connects via a subcutaneous wire to an intermittent pulse generator, implanted subcutaneously in the infraclavicular region. The stimulation lead produces continuous stimulation of the ventralis intermedius nucleus that is functionally equal to lesional surgery, thus antagonizing the relay of tremor signals at the thalamus.

The battery of the pulse generator must be replaced every 4 to 7 years depending on usage and stimulation parameters. Battery replacement can be performed with minor surgery at the infraclavicular region.

Thalamic deep brain stimulation is indicated for patients with severe, disabling essential tremor who have tremor resistant to drug therapy or who cannot tolerate drug therapy.

The procedure has been shown to provide benefit in 90% of patients, with more than an 80% improvement in tremor severity and functional impact.46–49 Deep brain stimulation is effective against tremor affecting parts of the body other than the limbs, including the head; an exception to this is voice tremor, which usually does not improve dramatically. The procedure can be done unilaterally or bilaterally, depending on symptoms. Patients with asymmetrical tremor and those at risk of side effects can undergo unilateral surgery. Bilateral treatment is recommended for patients with symmetric tremor or significant head tremor, or who are young and healthy.

Surgical risks include brain hemorrhage and infection. Side effects of the stimulation include paresthesias, paresis, imbalance, dysarthria, and, in rare cases, dysphagia.

CHOOSING THE BEST MANAGEMENT PLAN FOR YOUR PATIENT

The choice of treatment may be challenging, given the multiple treatment options and the variability of tremor severity from one patient to another. The following guidelines can be used to help make this decision.

All patients should be advised to reduce caffeine intake, to have sufficient hours of sleep, and to avoid stressful situations.

Patients with minor, nondisabling tremor can be left untreated if the tremors are not bothersome or if the patient prefers not to pursue active treatment.

In patients who have bothersome tremor only when anxious or in certain social situations, give propranolol or alprazolam (or both) to be taken as needed. Relaxation techniques and meditation are also useful for these patients.

Patients with constant bothersome tremor should be started on either propranolol or primidone based on the patient’s profile and propensity to develop side effects from each of these drugs. The dosing should be optimized gradually according to the patient’s response and the drug’s tolerability.

If essential tremor is not sufficiently controlled with one first-line agent (propranolol or primidone), try combining the two first-line agents if the patient finds it tolerable.

A second-line agent can be added to either of the first-line agents or to the combination of both if tremor control is not yet sufficient. A second-line or third-line agent can also be used as the primary treatment if both first-line agents are contraindicated or intolerable. Combining two or more second- and third-line agents is another option. The choice of second- or third-line agent should be guided by the patient’s characteristics and comorbidities in relation to the agent’s side effects and contraindications as detailed in the above section.

Patients should be referred to a movement disorders specialist in cases of resistant tremor, intolerance to oral medications, severe disability, and atypical presentation. Types of tremor known to be poorly responsive to oral medications (eg, head tremor, voice tremor) deserve a specialist evaluation if they contribute significantly to the patient’s morbidity.

The usual specialist treatment of severe voice tremor and head tremor is botulinum toxin injection. Patients with resistant and disabling hand tremor are evaluated for thalamic deep brain stimulation.

Patients with residual disability despite medical and surgical treatment should be referred for occupational therapy. Occupational therapy can improve quality of life through the use of special utensils, pens, computer gadgets, and arm weights, among other devices.

Essential tremor, one of the most common movement disorders, affects about 4% of adults 40 years of age and older.1 It is often referred to as familial tremor in patients with a family history of tremor. It has also been called benign tremor to differentiate it from tremor associated with neurodegenerative diseases, particularly Parkinson disease, but this condition is certainly not benign, as it can cause substantial functional impairment and difficulties with routine activities of daily living. The terms “essential” and “idiopathic” refer to the primary nature of the disorder and differentiate it from tremor that is a feature of a distinct neurologic entity or is secondary to a metabolic disease or drug therapy.

Successful management entails exclusion of secondary causes and careful selection of drug therapy. To date, there is no cure for essential tremor; all currently available treatments are purely symptomatic.

In this review, we outline the major diagnostic and therapeutic principles of managing essential tremor, indications for referral to specialists, and alternative and advanced therapeutic options.

CLINICAL PICTURE

Tremor is defined as rhythmic to-and-fro movement in any body part. It can be slow or fast, and its amplitude can be large and coarse, or small or even “fine.” It can appear at rest, with action, or during a sustained posture. In contrast to parkinsonian tremor (which presents mainly at rest), essential tremor is typically but not exclusively postural, kinetic, or both.

Postural tremor refers to tremor seen when the patient holds the affected limb (commonly the arm) unsupported against gravity. Kinetic tremor refers to tremor that appears with active movements. This is often demonstrated clinically by the finger-nose-finger test. Patients with essential tremor commonly have both postural and kinetic tremor.

The tremor commonly involves the arms, hands, and fingers.2 Less commonly, it involves the head, the lips, the tongue, the legs, and the voice. In contrast to parkinsonian tremor, which typically affects one side of the body first, bilateral involvement is the general rule in essential tremor. However, one side of the body may be affected first, or may be more affected than the other. The frequency of the tremor ranges from 4 to 12 Hz (ie, beats per second).

The tremor usually starts in middle age and progresses slowly over time,3 but onset in old age or childhood is also possible.4 Both sexes are equally affected.

The tremor usually gets worse with anxiety, stress, and caffeine intake. It usually gets temporarily better with the consumption of small amounts of alcohol.

The functional impact of essential tremor is judged by its effect on different daily activities, especially writing, eating, drinking, dressing, manual work, and household chores.

In addition to motor dysfunction, the tremor can also have a significant psychological impact on the patient, because it usually gets worse in social situations.

Although it has long been thought that tremor is the sole neurologic sign of essential tremor, recent studies have shown that many patients have additional subtle findings, such as mild gait difficulty,5 slight incoordination,6 mild cognitive impairment,7 and decreased hearing,8 and are more likely to have anxiety and social phobia.9

Although different studies have varied in their findings, it is generally thought that about 50% of patients with essential tremor have a positive family history, often in a first-degree relative, suggesting autosomal dominant inheritance with variable penetrance.10,11 Polygenetic and sporadic variants are also common.

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

Figure 1. Diagnosing essential tremor requires differentiating its postural and kinetic elements from other types of tremor, particularly resting tremor. At left, the patient exhibits tremor at rest, which, when accompanied by rigidity and bradykinesia, is typical of parkinsonian tremor. At right, a patient with essential tremor exhibits postural tremor when holding the arm unsupported against gravity. About 20% of patients with essential tremor also have resting tremor, but the resting tremor is often milder than the postural and kinetic tremors.
The postural and kinetic elements of essential tremor must be differentiated from other forms of tremor, namely resting tremor (Figure 1) and intentional tremor. Secondary causes of postural and kinetic tremor should also be ruled out before deciding on the diagnosis of essential tremor.

Resting tremor

Resting tremor is typically an extrapyramidal sign and, when accompanied by rigidity and bradykinesia, is often part of a parkinsonian syndrome. It is most pronounced at rest when the affected body part is fully supported and stationary. The tremor tends to improve with action or posture. It usually has a “pill-rolling” character and, as mentioned, is associated with other extrapyramidal signs, such as rigidity, slowness, and, later on, postural instability.

About 20% of patients with essential tremor have resting tremor. These patients usually suffer from severe or long-standing disease.12 However, the resting element in these cases is often milder than the postural and kinetic components, and it is typically not associated with other extrapyramidal signs. Also, some patients may have both essential tremor and Parkinson disease.13

Intentional tremor

Pure intentional tremor is usually seen with cerebellar pathology, which includes tumors, stroke, multiple sclerosis, trauma, and spinocerebellar degeneration. The amplitude of this type of tremor increases as the affected limb approaches the final target. It can best be demonstrated clinically by the finger-nose-finger test. The frequency of intentional tremor is slow (2 to 4 Hz) and is usually associated with other cerebellar signs, such as dysmetria, decomposition, rebound, and dysdiadochokinesia (ie, the inability to perform rapid alternating movements in a smooth and coordinated manner).

About 50% of patients with essential tremor have an intentional component to their tremor,6 or it can be mildly present in the form of a slight gait difficulty. However, in essential tremor, other features of cerebellar dysfunction are either absent or only very slight.

 

 

Secondary causes of postural-kinetic tremor

Enhanced physiologic tremor. A very mild postural tremor is present in almost all people and is considered “physiologic” since it has almost no clinical significance. This type of tremor is often invisible, but when “enhanced,” it can be visually demonstrated by placing a piece of paper over the stretched hands and watching the ripple from the paper.

Certain conditions can aggravate this physiologic tremor and can make it symptomatic. Common causes include anxiety, sleep deprivation, hypoglycemia, hyperthyroidism, pheochromocytoma, serotonin syndrome, and carcinoid syndrome.

Metabolic tremor. Hyperammonemia can cause tremor in patients with hepatic encephalopathy, and uremia can cause tremor in patients with renal failure. These metabolic conditions classically result in “flappy” tremor (asterixis), a special form of postural tremor characterized by jerking movements with high amplitude. It is best seen when the patient stretches out the arms and extends the wrists as if trying to stop traffic. But even though it may look like tremor, asterixis is thought to be a form of “negative” myoclonus.

Drug-related tremor. Postural-kinetic tremor can be induced by drugs, including lithium (Lithobid), valproate (Depakote), amiodarone (Cordarone), central nervous system stimulants, beta agonists (including inhalers), and some antidepressants. Tremor can also occur with alcohol or sedative withdrawal.

Psychogenic tremor. Tremor can be seen as part of a somatoform disorder commonly referred to as conversion disorder or conversion reaction. Psychogenic tremor is characterized by acute onset, commonly following a psychosocial stressor; it is often atypical, variable in frequency, amplitude, and body-part involvement, and it can readily be interrupted on examination by distracting the patient.

Neurologic disorders. The postural and kinetic elements of essential tremor may also be seen in the following neurologic conditions:

  • Holmes (rubral) tremor, a combination of resting, postural, kinetic, and intentional tremor of low frequency and high amplitude. It usually has a proximal component and is often unilateral. It commonly is due to a lesion that involves the brainstem, eg, red nucleus, inferior olive, cerebellum, or thalamus. Common causes include stroke, prolonged hypoxia, and head trauma (including closed-head trauma with negative imaging). This type of tremor is usually associated with ataxia.14
  • Dystonic tremor is predominantly postural and is associated with abnormal dystonic posturing of the affected body part, commonly the head, hands, or feet. Unlike the rhythmic oscillations of essential tremor, dystonic tremor is often irregular in rhythm.
  • Multiple sclerosis can present with a combination of postural, kinetic, and intentional tremor. Patients usually have a clear history of recurrent neurologic deficits and show a combination of pyramidal, cerebellar, and sensory signs on examination consistent with multiple sclerosis.15
  • Neuropathic tremor is seen in a small proportion of patients with peripheral neuropathy, especially demyelinating neuropathy.16 The tremor is usually posturalkinetic and is associated with signs of neuropathy, such as a glove-and-stocking pattern of hypoesthesia, reduced reflexes, and sensory ataxia (including intentional tremor when the eyes are closed).
  • Posttraumatic tremor can occur after severe or even mild head trauma, especially in children. It is commonly rubral, but other types have been reported, including a presentation resembling essential tremor.17
  • Monosymptomatic or isolated tremor. A number of conditions related to essential tremor with location-specific or task-specific tremor have been described. These rare conditions historically have been classified as “possible essential tremor” or “essential tremor variants” but are now considered separate entities. These include task-specific tremor (eg, writing tremor), isolated head tremor, isolated voice tremor, and orthostatic tremor (tremor in the legs and trunk upon standing in place, but not when sitting or walking).18,19

DIAGNOSIS IS CLINICAL

Essential tremor is a clinical diagnosis. After a thorough review of the medical history and medication exposures, laboratory and imaging tests may be ordered to rule out a secondary cause. A complete metabolic panel, including blood glucose and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels, is usually sufficient. Brain imaging or other imaging is ordered for patients with an atypical presentation.

TREATMENT IS SYMPTOMATIC

Treatment of essential tremor is symptomatic. Several drugs of different pharmacologic classes can reduce the severity of the tremor and improve function.

Choosing the appropriate treatment depends on the type of tremor and the presence of associated conditions. The response to treatment and the development of side effects guide further adjustments. The following is a brief description of the available antitremor agents.

FIRST-LINE AGENTS

Propranolol

Propranolol (Inderal), a nonselective beta blocker, is the most widely used antitremor drug and the only agent approved by the US Food and Drug Administration for essential tremor. It should be started at a low dose and titrated upward gradually. The usual starting dose is 10 mg three times daily. The average effective dose is 120 mg daily. The dose can be increased up to 320 mg if needed and tolerated.

Sustained-release preparations are equally effective and are given as a single daily dose to improve compliance.20

Propranolol improves tremor in 50% to 70% of patients with essential tremor and achieves an average tremor reduction of 50% to 60%.1,21–25 Side effects include bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, hypotension, depression, impotence, fatigue, and gastrointestinal disturbances.

Other beta-blockers, such as nadolol (Corgard) and timolol, are also effective against tremor but are less potent than propranolol.26,27 The selective beta-1-blocker metoprolol (Lopressor) may be effective and has fewer noncardiac side effects than propranolol.28 It can be used in patients who discontinue propranolol because of adverse effects. Atenolol (Tenormin) and pindolol (Visken) have little or no effect on tremor.29

A good candidate for propranolol therapy in essential tremor is:

  • A patient with no known contraindication to propranolol
  • A patient with hypertension, coronary heart disease, or tachyarrhythmia
  • A patient with anxiety or social phobia.

Absolute contraindications to propranolol are:

  • Moderate to severe bronchial asthma
  • Significant bradycardia or heart block
  • Symptomatic hypotension
  • End-stage heart failure
  • Concurrent use of a calcium channel blocker.

Relative contraindications are:

  • Wheezing (eg, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
  • Depression
  • Diabetes mellitus in a patient more prone to hypoglycemia (propranolol masks the warning signs of hypoglycemia)
  • Reduced sexual potency in a male patient.

 

 

Primidone

Primidone (Mysoline) is an antiepileptic drug structurally similar to barbiturates. Its antitremor effect is equal to that of propranolol, though some studies suggest it is slightly more efficacious.30,31

It should be started at a low dose, ie, 25 mg once daily at bedtime. The dose should then be increased gradually until satisfactory and tolerable tremor control is achieved. Most patients respond to doses of around 250 mg per day.1,22,24–25 The dose can be increased if needed and tolerated.

Primidone reduces tremor by about 50% to 60%.1,22,24–25 Side effects include sedation, dizziness, fatigue, nausea, and depression, as well as ataxia and confusion in severe cases.

A good candidate for primidone in essential tremor is:

  • A patient with no known contraindication to primidone
  • A patient with contraindications to propranolol
  • A younger patient
  • A patient with epilepsy.

Absolute contraindications to primidone include:

  • Confusion or dementia
  • Oral anticoagulant therapy with difficulty controlling the International Normalized Ratio (primidone is a potent enzyme inducer).

Relative contraindications to primidone in essential tremor are:

  • Depression
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Ongoing therapy with sedating drugs
  • Ataxia or vertigo.

SECOND-LINE AGENTS

Other antiepileptics

Topiramate (Topamax) is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic shown to be significantly effective against essential tremor.32 It is usually started at a single daily dose of 25 mg and increased gradually to the most effective dose, usually around 300 mg.

Side effects include reduced appetite, weight loss, cognitive dysfunction, and paresthesia.

Favorable candidates include patients who are epileptic or overweight. Contraindications include cognitive impairment and low body weight. It is also not recommended in children so as to avoid any possible negative effect on cognitive development. In rare cases, topiramate has been reported to cause significant visual disturbances.

Gabapentin (Neurontin) is an antiepileptic that is now more often used as a symptomatic treatment for neuropathic pain. Studies have suggested a beneficial effect on essential tremor,33,34 but some investigators have questioned its efficacy.35

Like other antitremor agents, it should be started at a low dose, ie, around 300 mg, and escalated gradually until the tremor is controlled. The usual effective dose is 1,200 mg.

Gabapentin is generally well tolerated, and side effects such as dizziness, drowsiness, sedation, and unsteadiness are rare and usually mild.

The favorable candidate is a patient with associated neuropathy or multiple comorbidities. Gabapentin has also been reported to alleviate neuropathic tremor.

Contraindications are minimal and include intolerability or hypersensitivity to the drug. It also should be avoided in patients at a high risk of falling.

Levetiracetam (Keppra) is a novel antiepileptic effective against partial seizures. Studies have shown contradictory results regarding its antitremor effect. One double-blind, placebo-controlled study demonstrated significant reduction in essential tremor with 1,000 mg of levetiracetam.36 However, its effect on tremor is believed to be short-lived, and some studies argue against its efficacy.37 It has a favorable side-effect profile and is generally very well tolerated. It can be used as an adjunct to other antitremor agents and is preferred for patients with coexisting partial seizures or myoclonus.

Benzodiazepines. Minor tranquilizers are often used to control tremor, especially in coexisting anxiety or insomnia. Alprazolam (Xanax) is the one most widely used for this indication.38 It can be started in a dose of 0.25 mg once at bedtime and increased gradually up to 0.75 to 2 mg. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is particularly useful for orthostatic tremor, a variant of essential tremor characterized by tremor of the legs and trunk upon standing.39

Common side effects of benzodiazepines include sedation, cognitive dysfunction, hypotension, respiratory inhibition, and addiction after prolonged use. In the elderly, they can lead to confusion and disinhibition and can increase the risk of falling. They should be avoided in the elderly and in alcoholic patients and those with a high risk of substance abuse.

Stopping benzodiazepines should be done gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, including aggravation of tremor.

THIRD-LINE AGENTS

Clozapine

Clozapine (Clozaril) is a novel antipsychotic drug with no extrapyramidal side effects. It has been reported effective in essential tremor and drug-induced tremor,40,41 but the results of these early studies have not been confirmed.

Clozapine is started as a single daily dose of 12.5 mg and is increased up to 75 mg or 100 mg. It is an attractive option for patients with coexisting psychosis, bipolar disorder, or chorea. Its main side effects are sedation, salivation, weight gain, hypertension, diabetes, and seizures.

One especially serious side effect is agranulocytosis. This potentially fatal effect is rare, occurring in about 1.3% of patients receiving this drug. Weekly monitoring of the white blood cell count is mandated during treatment with clozapine, and this has made clozapine a less attractive option for the routine treatment of essential tremor.

Mirtazapine

Mirtazapine (Remeron) is a novel antidepressant widely used in Parkinson disease as both an antidepressant and a sleeping aid. Case studies have reported efficacy in both essential tremor and parkinsonian tremor,42 but controlled studies have not confirmed this.43 Mirtazapine is a reasonable option in patients with coexisting depression or insomnia. It is usually given as a single bedtime dose of 15 to 30 mg.

Other drugs

Studies of other agents for the treatment of essential tremor—eg, carbonic anhydrase enzyme inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, isoniazid (Tubizid), clonidine (Catapres), phenobarbital, and theophylline—have yielded highly contradictory results. Thus, they are not recommended as first- or second-line agents for essential tremor.

 

 

SPECIALTY-LEVEL CARE

When essential tremor does not respond to drug therapy or the patient cannot tolerate drug therapy, the patient should be referred to a center specializing in movement disorders for more advanced treatment options, ie, botulinum toxin injection and deep brain stimulation surgery.

Botulinum toxin

Botulinum toxin type A has been studied for the treatment of essential tremor with variable degrees of success. It has been effective in reducing hand tremor in essential tremor, but without a concomitant improvement in functional disability.44 This limited functional improvement has been attributed to the development of muscle weakness after injection of the neurotoxin. This has also raised questions about unintentional unblinding when interpreting study results. Therefore, most clinicians restrict its use to focal forms of tremor such as voice tremor,45 head tremor, and task-specific tremor.

Side effects are limited and temporary and include muscle weakness, pain at the injection site, dysphagia (when injected for head or voice tremor), and a breathy vocal quality (when injected for voice tremor). Botulinum toxin injection is the treatment of choice for focal dystonia, and therefore would be a good option for dystonic tremor.

Thalamic deep brain stimulation

This technique involves stereotactic implantation of a stimulation lead in the ventral intermediate nucleus of the thalamus. The lead connects via a subcutaneous wire to an intermittent pulse generator, implanted subcutaneously in the infraclavicular region. The stimulation lead produces continuous stimulation of the ventralis intermedius nucleus that is functionally equal to lesional surgery, thus antagonizing the relay of tremor signals at the thalamus.

The battery of the pulse generator must be replaced every 4 to 7 years depending on usage and stimulation parameters. Battery replacement can be performed with minor surgery at the infraclavicular region.

Thalamic deep brain stimulation is indicated for patients with severe, disabling essential tremor who have tremor resistant to drug therapy or who cannot tolerate drug therapy.

The procedure has been shown to provide benefit in 90% of patients, with more than an 80% improvement in tremor severity and functional impact.46–49 Deep brain stimulation is effective against tremor affecting parts of the body other than the limbs, including the head; an exception to this is voice tremor, which usually does not improve dramatically. The procedure can be done unilaterally or bilaterally, depending on symptoms. Patients with asymmetrical tremor and those at risk of side effects can undergo unilateral surgery. Bilateral treatment is recommended for patients with symmetric tremor or significant head tremor, or who are young and healthy.

Surgical risks include brain hemorrhage and infection. Side effects of the stimulation include paresthesias, paresis, imbalance, dysarthria, and, in rare cases, dysphagia.

CHOOSING THE BEST MANAGEMENT PLAN FOR YOUR PATIENT

The choice of treatment may be challenging, given the multiple treatment options and the variability of tremor severity from one patient to another. The following guidelines can be used to help make this decision.

All patients should be advised to reduce caffeine intake, to have sufficient hours of sleep, and to avoid stressful situations.

Patients with minor, nondisabling tremor can be left untreated if the tremors are not bothersome or if the patient prefers not to pursue active treatment.

In patients who have bothersome tremor only when anxious or in certain social situations, give propranolol or alprazolam (or both) to be taken as needed. Relaxation techniques and meditation are also useful for these patients.

Patients with constant bothersome tremor should be started on either propranolol or primidone based on the patient’s profile and propensity to develop side effects from each of these drugs. The dosing should be optimized gradually according to the patient’s response and the drug’s tolerability.

If essential tremor is not sufficiently controlled with one first-line agent (propranolol or primidone), try combining the two first-line agents if the patient finds it tolerable.

A second-line agent can be added to either of the first-line agents or to the combination of both if tremor control is not yet sufficient. A second-line or third-line agent can also be used as the primary treatment if both first-line agents are contraindicated or intolerable. Combining two or more second- and third-line agents is another option. The choice of second- or third-line agent should be guided by the patient’s characteristics and comorbidities in relation to the agent’s side effects and contraindications as detailed in the above section.

Patients should be referred to a movement disorders specialist in cases of resistant tremor, intolerance to oral medications, severe disability, and atypical presentation. Types of tremor known to be poorly responsive to oral medications (eg, head tremor, voice tremor) deserve a specialist evaluation if they contribute significantly to the patient’s morbidity.

The usual specialist treatment of severe voice tremor and head tremor is botulinum toxin injection. Patients with resistant and disabling hand tremor are evaluated for thalamic deep brain stimulation.

Patients with residual disability despite medical and surgical treatment should be referred for occupational therapy. Occupational therapy can improve quality of life through the use of special utensils, pens, computer gadgets, and arm weights, among other devices.

References
  1. Zesiewicz TA, Chari A, Jahan I, et al. Overview of essential tremor. Neuropsychiatr Dis Treat 2010; 6:401408.
  2. Elble RJ. Essential tremor frequency decreases with time. Neurology 2000; 55:15471551.
  3. Louis ED, Ottman R, Hauser WA. How common is the most common adult movement disorder? Estimates of the prevalence of essential tremor throughout the world. Mov Disord 1998; 13:510.
  4. Louis ED, Dure LS, Pullman S. Essential tremor in childhood: a series of nineteen cases. Mov Disord 2001; 16:921923.
  5. Singer C, Sanchez-Ramos J, Weiner WJ. Gait abnormality in essential tremor. Mov Disord 1994; 9:193196.
  6. Deuschl G, Wenzelburger R, Löffler K, et al. Essential tremor and cerebellar dysfunction. Clinical and kinematic analysis of intention tremor. Brain 2000; 123:15681580.
  7. Louis ED. Functional correlates of lower cognitive test scores in essential tremor. Mov Disord 2010; 25:481485.
  8. Ondo WG, Sutton L, Dat Vuong K, et al. Hearing impairment in essential tremor. Neurology 2003; 61:10931097.
  9. Schneier FR, Barnes LF, Albert SM, et al. Characteristics of social phobia among persons with essential tremor. J Clin Psychiatry 2001; 62:367372.
  10. Whaley NR, Putzke JD, Baba Y, et al. Essential tremor: phenotypic expression in a clinical cohort. Parkinsonism Relat Disord 2007; 13:333339.
  11. Deng H, Le W, Jankovic J. Genetics of essential tremor. Brain 2007; 130:14561464.
  12. Cohen O, Pullman S, Jurewicz E, et al. Rest tremor in patients with essential tremor: prevalence, clinical correlates, and electrophysiologic characteristics. Arch Neurol 2003; 60:405410.
  13. Shahed J, Jankovic J. Exploring the relationship between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease. Parkinsonism Relat Disord 2007; 13:6776.
  14. Yang YW, Chang FC, Tsai CH, et al. Clinical and magnetic resonance imaging manifestations of Holmes tremor. Acta Neurol Taiwan 2005; 14:915.
  15. Alusi SH, Worthington J, Glickman S, et al. A study of tremor in multiple sclerosis. Brain 2001; 124:720730.
  16. Breit S, Wächter T, Schöls L, et al. Effective thalamic deep brain stimulation for neuropathic tremor in a patient with severe demyelinating neuropathy. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 2009; 80:235236.
  17. Koller WC, Wong GF, Lang A. Posttraumatic movement disorders: a review. Mov Disord 1989; 4:2036.
  18. Jankovic J. Essential tremor: a heterogenous disorder. Mov Disord 2002; 17:638644.
  19. Deuschl G, Bain P, Brin M. Consensus statement of the Movement Disorder Society on Tremor. Ad Hoc Scientific Committee. Mov Disord 1998; 13(suppl 3):223.
  20. Calzetti S, Findley LJ, Gresty MA, et al. Effect of a single oral dose of propranolol on essential tremor: a double-blind controlled study. Ann Neurol 1983; 13:165171.
  21. Larsen TA, Teräväinen H, Calne DB. Atenolol vs propranolol in essential tremor. A controlled, quantitative study. Acta Neurol Scand 1982; 66:547554.
  22. Zesiewicz TA, Elble R, Louis ED, et al. Practice parameter: therapies for essential tremor: report of the Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology. Neurology 2005; 64:20082020.
  23. Lyons KE, Pahwa R, Comella CL, et al.Benefits and risks of pharmacological treatments for essential tremor. Drug Saf 2003; 26:461481.
  24. Pahwa R, Lyons KE. Essential tremor: differential diagnosis and current therapy. Am J Med 2003; 115:134142.
  25. Louis ED. Clinical practice. Essential tremor. N Engl J Med 2001; 345:887891.
  26. Koller WC. Nadolol in essential tremor. Neurology 1983; 33:10761077.
  27. Dietrichson P, Espen E. Effects of timolol and atenolol on benign essential tremor: placebo-controlled studies based on quantitative tremor recording. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1981; 44:677683.
  28. Calzetti S, Findley LJ, Gresty MA, et al. Metoprolol and propranolol in essential tremor: a double-blind, controlled study. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1981; 44:814819.
  29. Teravainen H, Larsen A, Fogelholm R. Comparison between the effects of pindolol and propranolol on essential tremor. Neurology 1977; 27:439442.
  30. Gorman WP, Cooper R, Pocock P, et al. A comparison of primidone, propranolol, and placebo in essential tremor, using quantitative analysis. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1986; 49:6468.
  31. Koller WC, Royse VL. Efficacy of primidone in essential tremor. Neurology 1986; 36:121124.
  32. Connor GS. A double-blind placebo-controlled trial of topiramate treatment for essential tremor. Neurology 2002; 59:132134.
  33. Gironell A, Kulisevsky J, Barbanoj M, et al. A randomized placebo-controlled comparative trial of gabapentin and propranolol in essential tremor. Arch Neurol 1999; 56:475480.
  34. Ondo W, Hunter C, Vuong KD, et al. Gabapentin for essential tremor: a multiple-dose, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. Mov Disord 2000; 15:678682.
  35. Pahwa R, Lyons K, Hubble JP, et al. Double-blind controlled trial of gabapentin in essential tremor. Mov Disord 1998; 13:465467.
  36. Bushara KO, Malik T, Exconde RE. The effect of levetiracetam on essential tremor. Neurology 2005; 64:10781080.
  37. Sullivan KL, Hauser RA, Zesiewicz TA. Levetiracetam for the treatment of essential tremor. Mov Disord 2005; 20:640.
  38. Huber SJ, Paulson GW. Efficacy of alprazolam for essential tremor. Neurology 1988; 38:241243.
  39. McManis PG, Sharbrough FW. Orthostatic tremor: clinical and electrophysiologic characteristics. Muscle Nerve 1993; 16:12541260.
  40. Ceravolo R, Salvetti S, Piccini P, et al. Acute and chronic effects of clozapine in essential tremor. Mov Disord 1999; 14:468472.
  41. Pakkenberg H, Pakkenberg B. Clozapine in the treatment of tremor. Acta Neurol Scand 1986; 73:295297.
  42. Pact V, Giduz T. Mirtazapine treats resting tremor, essential tremor, and levodopa-induced dyskinesias. Neurology 1999; 53:1154.
  43. Lyons KE, Pahwa R. A double-blind, placebo-controlled, pilot study of mirtazapine in essential tremor. Presented at the 54th Annual Meeting of the American Academy of Neurology, Denver, Colorado. Neurology 2002; 58(suppl 3):A254.
  44. Brin MF, Lyons KE, Doucette J, et al. A randomized, double masked, controlled trial of botulinum toxin type A in essential hand tremor. Neurology 2001; 56:15231528.
  45. Blitzer A, Brin MF, Stewart C, et al. Abductor laryngeal dystonia: a series treated with botulinum toxin. Laryngoscope 1992; 102:163167.
  46. Schuurman PR, Bosch DA, Bossuyt PM, et al. A comparison of continuous thalamic stimulation and thalamotomy for suppression of severe tremor. N Engl J Med 2000; 342:461468.
  47. Flora ED, Perera CL, Cameron AL, et al. Deep brain stimulation for essential tremor: a systematic review. Mov Disord 2010; 25:15501559.
  48. Nagaseki Y, Shibazaki T, Hirai T, et al. Long-term follow-up results of selective VIM-thalamotomy. J Neurosurg 1986; 65:296302.
  49. Zirh A, Reich SG, Dougherty PM, et al. Stereotactic thalamotomy in the treatment of essential tremor of the upper extremity: reassessment including a blinded measure of outcome. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1999; 66:772775.
References
  1. Zesiewicz TA, Chari A, Jahan I, et al. Overview of essential tremor. Neuropsychiatr Dis Treat 2010; 6:401408.
  2. Elble RJ. Essential tremor frequency decreases with time. Neurology 2000; 55:15471551.
  3. Louis ED, Ottman R, Hauser WA. How common is the most common adult movement disorder? Estimates of the prevalence of essential tremor throughout the world. Mov Disord 1998; 13:510.
  4. Louis ED, Dure LS, Pullman S. Essential tremor in childhood: a series of nineteen cases. Mov Disord 2001; 16:921923.
  5. Singer C, Sanchez-Ramos J, Weiner WJ. Gait abnormality in essential tremor. Mov Disord 1994; 9:193196.
  6. Deuschl G, Wenzelburger R, Löffler K, et al. Essential tremor and cerebellar dysfunction. Clinical and kinematic analysis of intention tremor. Brain 2000; 123:15681580.
  7. Louis ED. Functional correlates of lower cognitive test scores in essential tremor. Mov Disord 2010; 25:481485.
  8. Ondo WG, Sutton L, Dat Vuong K, et al. Hearing impairment in essential tremor. Neurology 2003; 61:10931097.
  9. Schneier FR, Barnes LF, Albert SM, et al. Characteristics of social phobia among persons with essential tremor. J Clin Psychiatry 2001; 62:367372.
  10. Whaley NR, Putzke JD, Baba Y, et al. Essential tremor: phenotypic expression in a clinical cohort. Parkinsonism Relat Disord 2007; 13:333339.
  11. Deng H, Le W, Jankovic J. Genetics of essential tremor. Brain 2007; 130:14561464.
  12. Cohen O, Pullman S, Jurewicz E, et al. Rest tremor in patients with essential tremor: prevalence, clinical correlates, and electrophysiologic characteristics. Arch Neurol 2003; 60:405410.
  13. Shahed J, Jankovic J. Exploring the relationship between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease. Parkinsonism Relat Disord 2007; 13:6776.
  14. Yang YW, Chang FC, Tsai CH, et al. Clinical and magnetic resonance imaging manifestations of Holmes tremor. Acta Neurol Taiwan 2005; 14:915.
  15. Alusi SH, Worthington J, Glickman S, et al. A study of tremor in multiple sclerosis. Brain 2001; 124:720730.
  16. Breit S, Wächter T, Schöls L, et al. Effective thalamic deep brain stimulation for neuropathic tremor in a patient with severe demyelinating neuropathy. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 2009; 80:235236.
  17. Koller WC, Wong GF, Lang A. Posttraumatic movement disorders: a review. Mov Disord 1989; 4:2036.
  18. Jankovic J. Essential tremor: a heterogenous disorder. Mov Disord 2002; 17:638644.
  19. Deuschl G, Bain P, Brin M. Consensus statement of the Movement Disorder Society on Tremor. Ad Hoc Scientific Committee. Mov Disord 1998; 13(suppl 3):223.
  20. Calzetti S, Findley LJ, Gresty MA, et al. Effect of a single oral dose of propranolol on essential tremor: a double-blind controlled study. Ann Neurol 1983; 13:165171.
  21. Larsen TA, Teräväinen H, Calne DB. Atenolol vs propranolol in essential tremor. A controlled, quantitative study. Acta Neurol Scand 1982; 66:547554.
  22. Zesiewicz TA, Elble R, Louis ED, et al. Practice parameter: therapies for essential tremor: report of the Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology. Neurology 2005; 64:20082020.
  23. Lyons KE, Pahwa R, Comella CL, et al.Benefits and risks of pharmacological treatments for essential tremor. Drug Saf 2003; 26:461481.
  24. Pahwa R, Lyons KE. Essential tremor: differential diagnosis and current therapy. Am J Med 2003; 115:134142.
  25. Louis ED. Clinical practice. Essential tremor. N Engl J Med 2001; 345:887891.
  26. Koller WC. Nadolol in essential tremor. Neurology 1983; 33:10761077.
  27. Dietrichson P, Espen E. Effects of timolol and atenolol on benign essential tremor: placebo-controlled studies based on quantitative tremor recording. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1981; 44:677683.
  28. Calzetti S, Findley LJ, Gresty MA, et al. Metoprolol and propranolol in essential tremor: a double-blind, controlled study. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1981; 44:814819.
  29. Teravainen H, Larsen A, Fogelholm R. Comparison between the effects of pindolol and propranolol on essential tremor. Neurology 1977; 27:439442.
  30. Gorman WP, Cooper R, Pocock P, et al. A comparison of primidone, propranolol, and placebo in essential tremor, using quantitative analysis. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1986; 49:6468.
  31. Koller WC, Royse VL. Efficacy of primidone in essential tremor. Neurology 1986; 36:121124.
  32. Connor GS. A double-blind placebo-controlled trial of topiramate treatment for essential tremor. Neurology 2002; 59:132134.
  33. Gironell A, Kulisevsky J, Barbanoj M, et al. A randomized placebo-controlled comparative trial of gabapentin and propranolol in essential tremor. Arch Neurol 1999; 56:475480.
  34. Ondo W, Hunter C, Vuong KD, et al. Gabapentin for essential tremor: a multiple-dose, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. Mov Disord 2000; 15:678682.
  35. Pahwa R, Lyons K, Hubble JP, et al. Double-blind controlled trial of gabapentin in essential tremor. Mov Disord 1998; 13:465467.
  36. Bushara KO, Malik T, Exconde RE. The effect of levetiracetam on essential tremor. Neurology 2005; 64:10781080.
  37. Sullivan KL, Hauser RA, Zesiewicz TA. Levetiracetam for the treatment of essential tremor. Mov Disord 2005; 20:640.
  38. Huber SJ, Paulson GW. Efficacy of alprazolam for essential tremor. Neurology 1988; 38:241243.
  39. McManis PG, Sharbrough FW. Orthostatic tremor: clinical and electrophysiologic characteristics. Muscle Nerve 1993; 16:12541260.
  40. Ceravolo R, Salvetti S, Piccini P, et al. Acute and chronic effects of clozapine in essential tremor. Mov Disord 1999; 14:468472.
  41. Pakkenberg H, Pakkenberg B. Clozapine in the treatment of tremor. Acta Neurol Scand 1986; 73:295297.
  42. Pact V, Giduz T. Mirtazapine treats resting tremor, essential tremor, and levodopa-induced dyskinesias. Neurology 1999; 53:1154.
  43. Lyons KE, Pahwa R. A double-blind, placebo-controlled, pilot study of mirtazapine in essential tremor. Presented at the 54th Annual Meeting of the American Academy of Neurology, Denver, Colorado. Neurology 2002; 58(suppl 3):A254.
  44. Brin MF, Lyons KE, Doucette J, et al. A randomized, double masked, controlled trial of botulinum toxin type A in essential hand tremor. Neurology 2001; 56:15231528.
  45. Blitzer A, Brin MF, Stewart C, et al. Abductor laryngeal dystonia: a series treated with botulinum toxin. Laryngoscope 1992; 102:163167.
  46. Schuurman PR, Bosch DA, Bossuyt PM, et al. A comparison of continuous thalamic stimulation and thalamotomy for suppression of severe tremor. N Engl J Med 2000; 342:461468.
  47. Flora ED, Perera CL, Cameron AL, et al. Deep brain stimulation for essential tremor: a systematic review. Mov Disord 2010; 25:15501559.
  48. Nagaseki Y, Shibazaki T, Hirai T, et al. Long-term follow-up results of selective VIM-thalamotomy. J Neurosurg 1986; 65:296302.
  49. Zirh A, Reich SG, Dougherty PM, et al. Stereotactic thalamotomy in the treatment of essential tremor of the upper extremity: reassessment including a blinded measure of outcome. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 1999; 66:772775.
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Cleveland Clinic Journal of Medicine - 78(12)
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Essential tremor: Choosing the right management plan for your patient
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KEY POINTS

  • In addition to motor dysfunction, the tremor can also have a significant psychological impact on the patient, especially since it usually gets worse in social situations.
  • Essential tremor is a clinical diagnosis. After a thorough review of the medical history and medication exposures, laboratory and imaging tests may be ordered to rule out a secondary cause.
  • The two first-line agents in drug therapy for essential tremor are the nonselective beta-blocker propranolol (Inderal) and the antiepileptic primidone (Mysoline). They can be used alone or in combination.
  • Botulinum toxin injection and deep brain stimulation are reserved for resistant tremor or for patients who do not tolerate drug therapy.
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A 54-year-old woman with pancytopenia

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A 54-year-old woman with pancytopenia

A 54-year-old woman with a 1-month history of progressive weakness was transported to the emergency department of a local hospital when a family member found her unresponsive. Before this event, the patient had said she had been feeling tired and cold and looking pale for several weeks.

In the emergency department, her temperature was low. Cableomputed tomography (CT) of the head showed a 1.4-cm hyperdense extraaxial mass. Imaging of the chest showed focal consolidations within the anterior segment of the right upper lobe and the left and right lower lobes.

A urine toxicology screen was positive for acetaminophen (Tylenol), opiates, and benzodiazepines. She was given three doses of naloxone (Narcan), which raised her level of arousal; however, she later became obtunded again and was intubated and transferred to Cleveland Clinic.

A new CT scan of the head confirmed a small left temporal, extradural, calcified lesion with no mass effect or overt bleeding; it appeared most compatible with a solitary calcified meningioma—a likely benign finding.

Her medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes (controlled with diet), and osteoarthritis of the spine. In 1999, she had undergone a hysterectomy that necessitated a blood transfusion. She has never smoked tobacco and does not consume alcohol or use illicit drugs. In the past she worked as a nurse’s aid in a nursing home. However, for the past several years she has stayed at home. Her only avocation of note is gardening.

Initial physical examination

The patient is intubated and sedated. Her temperature is 35.3°C (95.5°F), blood pressure 122/81 mm Hg, heart rate 83 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 14 on assist-controlled ventilator settings with an Fio2 of 100% and a positive end-expiratory pressure of 5 cm H2O.

Her pupils are round, equal, and reactive to light. Her face is symmetric and notable for hirsutism over the chin. Her neck is supple and without lymphadenopathy or thyromegaly.

Rhonchi can be heard at both lung bases. She has normal bowel sounds, and her abdomen is soft and nondistended, with no masses or palpable hepatosplenomegaly. She has no pedal edema on either side, and no clubbing or cyanosis. Her skin is intact, without rashes, lesions, or tattoos. She is able to withdraw from painful stimuli in all four extremities.

INITIAL TESTS PROVIDE A CLUE

The patient’s initial laboratory tests (Table 1) reveal low counts in all of her blood cell types. A peripheral blood smear shows crenated red blood cells with rare fragments, normal-appearing white blood cells (but in low numbers), and a low number of platelets.

1. Which of the following is the likely cause of this patient’s pancytopenia?

  • Folate deficiency
  • Gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to colon cancer
  • Acute myeloid leukemia
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  • Myelophthisis
  • Other

Causes of pancytopenia are listed in Table 2.

Folate deficiency

Folate is necessary for thymidylate synthesis, a rate-limiting step in DNA synthesis. The minimum daily requirement for dietary folate intake is 50 μg.

Severe deficiency of folate has been reported to cause pancytopenia in alcoholics.1 Abuse of alcohol leads to an abrupt decrease in serum folate (within 2 to 4 days of ceasing intake of proper amounts of folate, as in an alcoholic binge) by inhibiting its absorption in the proximal jejunum as well as its metabolism in the liver.2 The resulting folate deficiency, if sustained, can develop into megaloblastosis in 5 to 10 weeks.

The duration of weakness and pallor reported by this patient would raise suspicion of folate deficiency if she had a history of malnutrition or of alcohol abuse, but she has neither. Further, her mean corpuscular volume is 82.5 fL, red blood cell folate 391 ng/mL (reference range 257–800 ng/mL), and serum vitamin B12 1,886 pg/mL (22–700 pg/mL), and she has no macro-ovalocytes or hypersegmented neutrophils on a peripheral blood smear. This makes folate or vitamin B12 deficiency less likely.

Gastrointestinal bleeding due to colon cancer

Iron-deficiency anemia, hematochezia, melena, a change in bowel habits, and abdominal pain may be manifestations of colon cancer. Cancers of the colon originate from adenomatous polyps arising from the colonic mucosa.

The quantity of occult blood loss depends on the site of the tumor. Patients with tumors in the cecum or ascending colon lose an average of 9 mL/day, whereas those with tumors in the transverse, descending, or sigmoid colon or rectum lose less than 2 mL/day.3

Pertinent laboratory findings in iron-deficiency anemia are a low iron concentration, a low transferrin saturation, a depleted serum ferritin, and a normal to high total iron-binding capacity. An initial microcytic normochromic anemia eventually progresses to a microcytic hypochromic anemia that has a tendency to increasingly demonstrate anisocytosis and poikilocytosis.

Our patient’s symptoms, signs, and laboratory values (with normocytic normochromic anemia) are inconsistent with symptomatic colon cancer leading to iron-deficiency anemia.

 

 

Acute myeloid leukemia

Acute myeloid leukemia generally manifests with symptoms related to pancytopenia, with weakness and fatigability being the most common.4

In this condition, genetic alterations in hematopoietic precursor cells result in reduced differentiation capacity and accumulation of leukemic blasts in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and other tissues.

Peripheral blood analysis usually reveals normocytic normochromic anemia with blasts. To establish a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia, one must observe at least 20% myeloblasts in the blood, the bone marrow, or both.

No blasts are seen on our patient’s peripheral blood smear, making acute myeloid leukemia less likely.

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is a possibility in the setting of intravascular hemolytic anemia, bone marrow failure, and thrombosis.

These processes are due to a defect in the glycosyl phosphatidyl inositol (GPI) anchor caused by an abnormality in the PIG-A gene. Partial or complete absence of the GPI anchor allows for activation of complement-mediated hemolysis. A diminished rate of hematopoiesis is presumably responsible for reticulocytopenia, granulocytopenia, or thrombocytopenia, though reticulocytosis can also be seen.5,6 The highly thrombogenic state is believed to occur because of microparticles rich in phosphatidylserine.7

Our patient’s peripheral smear has rare fragmented red blood cells and lacks teardrop red cells. Although paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria does not have characteristic morphologic features in the peripheral blood, there are no signs of thrombosis in our patient. Her lactate dehydrogenase level is 395 U/L (reference range 100–220 U/L), and her haptoglobin level is less than 20 mg/dL (33–246). These findings could indicate a low level of intravascular hemolysis.

Myelophthisis

Myelophthisis refers to any disorder in which an abnormal cell process invades the bone marrow, damaging hematopoietic tissue. These processes include neoplastic diseases, storage disorders, and a variety of infections. A decrease in all three cell types may result, depending on the severity of invasion. Documented infectious causes include hepatitis viruses, Epstein-Barr virus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), mycobacteria, and fungi.

Our patient’s condition is likely due to a marrow-based process of uncertain etiology. In myelophthisic processes, one may see teardrop red cells, which are not seen in this patient’s smear. However, on her chest imaging, the finding of focal consolidations within the anterior segment of the right upper lobe and both lower lobes raises suspicion of an infectious cause.

CASE CONTINUED: SHE UNDERGOES DIAGNOSTIC TESTING

Let us recap some of the laboratory studies that document the extent of our patient’s pancytopenia and the pattern of her anemia:

  • Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL (reference range 11.5–15.5 g/dL)
  • Platelet count 27 × 109/L (150–400)
  • Leukopenia with profound T-cell lymphopenia
  • Iron 59 μg/dL (30–140)
  • Total iron-binding capacity 110 μg/dL (210–415)
  • Ferritin 3,004 ng/mL (18–300)
  • Transferrin saturation 54% (11%–46%).

2. Which of the following would be the best test to obtain next?

  • Bone marrow examination
  • Blood cultures
  • Tuberculin skin test
  • Liver biopsy
  • Positron emission tomography and CT

Our patient has unexplained pancytopenia. While all the tests listed above might shed light on her condition, a bone marrow examination would be the best test to obtain next.

Figure 1. The patient’s bone marrow aspirate. Histiocytes containing numerous small budding yeast forms are seen. Cultures of the marrow eventually grew Histoplasma capsulatum. Wright-Giemsa, × 1,000.
Our patient undergoes bone marrow biopsy. Examination of the marrow shows histiocytes containing numerous small budding yeast forms with morphologic characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum (Figure 1).

Urine histoplasma antigen studies are positive at greater than 39 ng/mL (normal 0, low positive < 0.6–3.9, moderate positive 4.0–19.9, high positive 20–39 ng/mL). A culture of the marrow subsequently grows this organism.

 

 

3. Which of the following tests would establish a definitive diagnosis in this patient?

  • Methenamine silver stain of the marrow
  • Serum antibody testing
  • Fungal culture
  • Peripheral blood smear
  • Carbolfuchsin stain of marrow
  • Urine histoplasma antigen

A prompt diagnosis is critical in patients with acute pulmonary histoplasmosis or progressive disseminated histoplasmosis because early treatment may shorten the clinical course and length of treatment and, in cases of disseminated histoplasmosis, prevent death.8–10

Histopathologic examination of the bone marrow gives the most rapid results, although biopsy to obtain the tissue is invasive. It can give a definitive diagnosis if it reveals the typical 2- to 4-μm yeast structures of H capsulatum. These are observed on an aspirate smear of the patient’s bone marrow biopsy (Figure 1) and can be confirmed by methenamine silver or periodic acid-Schiff staining of the tissue.

Antibody detection is less practical because the antibodies take 2 to 6 weeks after infection to form.11 Also, it is less useful in cases of disseminated infection because many of these patients are immunosuppressed.

Fungal culture remains the gold standard diagnostic test for histoplasmosis. However, results may take up to 1 month and may be falsely negative in less severe cases.

Histoplasma antigen testing is of greater utility in patients with severe disease, including cases of disseminated histoplasmosis. Rates of antigen detection approach 90% in urine specimens from non-AIDS patients with disseminated infection.12 The urine assay has a greater sensitivity and specificity than the serum assay. The rate of detection is lower (ie, around 82%) in patients with acute pulmonary histoplasmosis when both the serum and urine specimens are tested.13

The immunoassay for histoplasma antigen is particularly useful for monitoring the response to therapy. Antigen levels should be measured before treatment is started and at 2 weeks, 1 month, and then approximately every 3 months during therapy.14 If the treatment is effective, antigens should decline by at least 20% in the first month of treatment and by another 20% in each of the following 3-month intervals. Antigen testing should be done every 3 months until a negative antigen level is achieved. The antigen level should also be followed for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped.14

HISTOPLASMA IS INHALED

H capsulatum is the cause of one of the most common pulmonary and systemic mycotic infections in the world, with hundreds of thousands of new cases annually. In areas where the soil is contaminated by bird or bat guano, the fungus is inhaled, resulting in an asymptomatic or a self-limiting influenza-like syndrome in an immunocompetent individual.15

An antigen-specific CD4+ T lymphocytemediated immunity occurs. The immune response of the host is thought to be fungistatic rather than fungicidal, resulting in a persistent inactive infection capable of reactivation in the presence of a host-pathogen imbalance.16

Most infections are asymptomatic or self-limited. For every 2,000 acute infections there is one that results in severe and progressive dissemination, usually in an immunocompromised host.17,18

TREATMENT OF HISTOPLASMOSIS

4. What is the appropriate initial choice of treatment for a severe case of disseminated histoplasmosis?

  • Amphotericin B in a lipid complex formulation (Abelcet)
  • Itraconazole (Sporanox)
  • Fluconazole (Diflucan)
  • Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

Untreated, acute disseminated histoplasmosis can progress over a period of 2 to 12 weeks, ultimately killing the patient.17,19

The leading therapies include amphotericin B in a lipid formulation and azole drugs, in particular itraconazole. Fluconazole and ketoconazole are not first-line options in severe cases because they are less predictably effective, and ketoconazole has a higher rate of side effects.20–23 The current recommendation is to treat severely ill hospitalized patients with one of the liposomal formulations or the lipid complex formulation of amphotericin B. Itraconazole is used for patients who have mild to moderate symptoms and as a step-down therapy in patients who improve after initial use of amphotericin B.

CASE CONCLUDED: THE PATIENT RECOVERS

The patient’s symptoms improve after 2 weeks of treatment with intravenous amphotericin B lipid complex, followed by an oral itraconazole regimen. Two months later, her total leukocyte count and hemoglobin levels have normalized, and her platelet and T-cell counts have steadily increased but are still subnormal. Her urine histoplasma antigen levels have decreased but are still detectable after 6 months (Table 3). She continues to receive oral itraconazole for 1 year.

At the time of the initial patient encounter, there was no history of or obvious cause of immunosuppression in this patient. She was found to be HIV-negative and was subsequently diagnosed with “profound immunosuppression of unknown etiology” resulting in a low CD4 count.

The patient receives trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) and azithromycin (Zithromax) for prophylaxis against Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia and Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection. Two months after the hospitalization, she recalls being at a corn maze 1 month before becoming ill.

References
  1. Clarke V, Weston-Smith S. Severe folate-deficiency pancytopenia. BMJ Case Reports 2010; published online.
  2. Anthony AC. Megaloblastic anemias. In:Hoffman R, Benz EJ, Shattil SJ, Furie B, Cohebn HJ, Silberstein LE, editors. Hematology: Basic Principles and Practice, 2nd ed. New York, NY: Churchill Livingston, 1995:552586.
  3. Macrae FA, St John DJ. Relationship between patterns of bleeding and Hemoccult sensitivity in patients with colorectal cancers or adenomas. Gastroenterology 1982; 82:891898.
  4. Meyers CA, Albitar M, Estey E. Cognitive impairment, fatigue, and cytokine levels in patients with acute myelogenous leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome. Cancer 2005; 104:788793.
  5. Parker CJ. Bone marrow failure syndromes: paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. Hematol Oncol Clin North Am 2009; 23:333346.
  6. Young NS, Maciejewski JP, Sloand E, et al. The relationship of aplastic anemia and PNH. Int J Hematol 2002; 76(suppl 2):168172.
  7. Rosse W. A new way to prevent thrombosis? Blood 2007; 110:3821.
  8. Wheat LJ, Freifeld AG, Kleiman MB, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clinical practice guidelines for the management of patients with histoplasmosis: 2007 update by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clin Infect Dis 2007; 45:807825.
  9. Meals LT, McKinney WP. Acute pulmonary histoplasmosis: progressive pneumonia resulting from high inoculum exposure. J Ky Med Assoc 1998; 96:258260.
  10. Salomon J, Flament Saillour M, De Truchis P, et al. An outbreak of acute pulmonary histoplasmosis in members of a trekking trip in Martinique, French West Indies. J Travel Med 2003; 10:8793.
  11. Joseph Wheat L. Current diagnosis of histoplasmosis. Trends Microbiol 2003; 11:488494.
  12. Wheat LJ, Kauffman CA. Histoplasmosis. Infect Dis Clin North Am 2003; 17:119.
  13. Swartzentruber S, Rhodes L, Kurkjian K, et al. Diagnosis of acute pulmonary histoplasmosis by antigen detection. Clin Infect Dis 2009; 49:18781882.
  14. Wheat LJ, Freifeld AG, Kleiman MB, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clinical practice guidelines for the management of patients with histoplasmosis: 2007 update by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clin Infect Dis 2007; 45:807825.
  15. Retallack DM, Woods JP. Molecular epidemiology, pathogenesis, and genetics of the dimorphic fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. Microbes Infect 1999; 1:817825.
  16. Deepe GS. The immune response to Histoplasma capsulatum: unearthing its secrets. J Lab Clin Med 1994; 123:201205.
  17. Goodwin RA, Shapiro JL, Thurman GH, Thurman SS, Des Prez RM. Disseminated histoplasmosis: clinical and pathologic correlations. Medicine (Baltimore) 1980; 59:133.
  18. Wheat LJ, Connolly-Stringfield PA, Baker RL, et al. Disseminated histoplasmosis in the acquired immune deficiency syndrome: clinical findings, diagnosis and treatment, and review of the literature. Medicine (Baltimore) 1990; 69:361374.
  19. Rubin H, Furcolow ML, Yates JL, Brasher CA. The course and prognosis of histoplasmosis. Am J Med 1959; 27:278288.
  20. Wheat J, MaWhinney S, Hafner R, et al. Treatment of histoplasmosis with fluconazole in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome Clinical Trials Group and Mycoses Study Group. Am J Med 1997; 103:223232.
  21. McKinsey DS, Kauffman CA, Pappas PG, et al. Fluconazole therapy for histoplasmosis. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Mycoses Study Group. Clin Infect Dis 1996; 23:9961001.
  22. Slama TG. Treatment of disseminated and progressive cavitary histoplasmosis with ketoconazole. Am J Med 1983; 74:7073.
  23. Treatment of blastomycosis and histoplasmosis with ketoconazole. Results of a prospective randomized clinical trial. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Mycoses Study Group. Ann Intern Med 1985; 103:861872.
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Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine, Athens, OH

Armin Jegalian, MD, PhD
Department of Clinical Pathology, Cleveland Clinic

Alan E. Lichtin, MD
Department of Hematologic Oncology, and Blood Disorders, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Alan Lichtin, MD, Department of Hematologic Oncology and Blood Disorders, R35, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Department of Hematologic Oncology, and Blood Disorders, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Alan Lichtin, MD, Department of Hematologic Oncology and Blood Disorders, R35, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine, Athens, OH

Armin Jegalian, MD, PhD
Department of Clinical Pathology, Cleveland Clinic

Alan E. Lichtin, MD
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Address: Alan Lichtin, MD, Department of Hematologic Oncology and Blood Disorders, R35, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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A 54-year-old woman with a 1-month history of progressive weakness was transported to the emergency department of a local hospital when a family member found her unresponsive. Before this event, the patient had said she had been feeling tired and cold and looking pale for several weeks.

In the emergency department, her temperature was low. Cableomputed tomography (CT) of the head showed a 1.4-cm hyperdense extraaxial mass. Imaging of the chest showed focal consolidations within the anterior segment of the right upper lobe and the left and right lower lobes.

A urine toxicology screen was positive for acetaminophen (Tylenol), opiates, and benzodiazepines. She was given three doses of naloxone (Narcan), which raised her level of arousal; however, she later became obtunded again and was intubated and transferred to Cleveland Clinic.

A new CT scan of the head confirmed a small left temporal, extradural, calcified lesion with no mass effect or overt bleeding; it appeared most compatible with a solitary calcified meningioma—a likely benign finding.

Her medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes (controlled with diet), and osteoarthritis of the spine. In 1999, she had undergone a hysterectomy that necessitated a blood transfusion. She has never smoked tobacco and does not consume alcohol or use illicit drugs. In the past she worked as a nurse’s aid in a nursing home. However, for the past several years she has stayed at home. Her only avocation of note is gardening.

Initial physical examination

The patient is intubated and sedated. Her temperature is 35.3°C (95.5°F), blood pressure 122/81 mm Hg, heart rate 83 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 14 on assist-controlled ventilator settings with an Fio2 of 100% and a positive end-expiratory pressure of 5 cm H2O.

Her pupils are round, equal, and reactive to light. Her face is symmetric and notable for hirsutism over the chin. Her neck is supple and without lymphadenopathy or thyromegaly.

Rhonchi can be heard at both lung bases. She has normal bowel sounds, and her abdomen is soft and nondistended, with no masses or palpable hepatosplenomegaly. She has no pedal edema on either side, and no clubbing or cyanosis. Her skin is intact, without rashes, lesions, or tattoos. She is able to withdraw from painful stimuli in all four extremities.

INITIAL TESTS PROVIDE A CLUE

The patient’s initial laboratory tests (Table 1) reveal low counts in all of her blood cell types. A peripheral blood smear shows crenated red blood cells with rare fragments, normal-appearing white blood cells (but in low numbers), and a low number of platelets.

1. Which of the following is the likely cause of this patient’s pancytopenia?

  • Folate deficiency
  • Gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to colon cancer
  • Acute myeloid leukemia
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  • Myelophthisis
  • Other

Causes of pancytopenia are listed in Table 2.

Folate deficiency

Folate is necessary for thymidylate synthesis, a rate-limiting step in DNA synthesis. The minimum daily requirement for dietary folate intake is 50 μg.

Severe deficiency of folate has been reported to cause pancytopenia in alcoholics.1 Abuse of alcohol leads to an abrupt decrease in serum folate (within 2 to 4 days of ceasing intake of proper amounts of folate, as in an alcoholic binge) by inhibiting its absorption in the proximal jejunum as well as its metabolism in the liver.2 The resulting folate deficiency, if sustained, can develop into megaloblastosis in 5 to 10 weeks.

The duration of weakness and pallor reported by this patient would raise suspicion of folate deficiency if she had a history of malnutrition or of alcohol abuse, but she has neither. Further, her mean corpuscular volume is 82.5 fL, red blood cell folate 391 ng/mL (reference range 257–800 ng/mL), and serum vitamin B12 1,886 pg/mL (22–700 pg/mL), and she has no macro-ovalocytes or hypersegmented neutrophils on a peripheral blood smear. This makes folate or vitamin B12 deficiency less likely.

Gastrointestinal bleeding due to colon cancer

Iron-deficiency anemia, hematochezia, melena, a change in bowel habits, and abdominal pain may be manifestations of colon cancer. Cancers of the colon originate from adenomatous polyps arising from the colonic mucosa.

The quantity of occult blood loss depends on the site of the tumor. Patients with tumors in the cecum or ascending colon lose an average of 9 mL/day, whereas those with tumors in the transverse, descending, or sigmoid colon or rectum lose less than 2 mL/day.3

Pertinent laboratory findings in iron-deficiency anemia are a low iron concentration, a low transferrin saturation, a depleted serum ferritin, and a normal to high total iron-binding capacity. An initial microcytic normochromic anemia eventually progresses to a microcytic hypochromic anemia that has a tendency to increasingly demonstrate anisocytosis and poikilocytosis.

Our patient’s symptoms, signs, and laboratory values (with normocytic normochromic anemia) are inconsistent with symptomatic colon cancer leading to iron-deficiency anemia.

 

 

Acute myeloid leukemia

Acute myeloid leukemia generally manifests with symptoms related to pancytopenia, with weakness and fatigability being the most common.4

In this condition, genetic alterations in hematopoietic precursor cells result in reduced differentiation capacity and accumulation of leukemic blasts in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and other tissues.

Peripheral blood analysis usually reveals normocytic normochromic anemia with blasts. To establish a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia, one must observe at least 20% myeloblasts in the blood, the bone marrow, or both.

No blasts are seen on our patient’s peripheral blood smear, making acute myeloid leukemia less likely.

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is a possibility in the setting of intravascular hemolytic anemia, bone marrow failure, and thrombosis.

These processes are due to a defect in the glycosyl phosphatidyl inositol (GPI) anchor caused by an abnormality in the PIG-A gene. Partial or complete absence of the GPI anchor allows for activation of complement-mediated hemolysis. A diminished rate of hematopoiesis is presumably responsible for reticulocytopenia, granulocytopenia, or thrombocytopenia, though reticulocytosis can also be seen.5,6 The highly thrombogenic state is believed to occur because of microparticles rich in phosphatidylserine.7

Our patient’s peripheral smear has rare fragmented red blood cells and lacks teardrop red cells. Although paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria does not have characteristic morphologic features in the peripheral blood, there are no signs of thrombosis in our patient. Her lactate dehydrogenase level is 395 U/L (reference range 100–220 U/L), and her haptoglobin level is less than 20 mg/dL (33–246). These findings could indicate a low level of intravascular hemolysis.

Myelophthisis

Myelophthisis refers to any disorder in which an abnormal cell process invades the bone marrow, damaging hematopoietic tissue. These processes include neoplastic diseases, storage disorders, and a variety of infections. A decrease in all three cell types may result, depending on the severity of invasion. Documented infectious causes include hepatitis viruses, Epstein-Barr virus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), mycobacteria, and fungi.

Our patient’s condition is likely due to a marrow-based process of uncertain etiology. In myelophthisic processes, one may see teardrop red cells, which are not seen in this patient’s smear. However, on her chest imaging, the finding of focal consolidations within the anterior segment of the right upper lobe and both lower lobes raises suspicion of an infectious cause.

CASE CONTINUED: SHE UNDERGOES DIAGNOSTIC TESTING

Let us recap some of the laboratory studies that document the extent of our patient’s pancytopenia and the pattern of her anemia:

  • Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL (reference range 11.5–15.5 g/dL)
  • Platelet count 27 × 109/L (150–400)
  • Leukopenia with profound T-cell lymphopenia
  • Iron 59 μg/dL (30–140)
  • Total iron-binding capacity 110 μg/dL (210–415)
  • Ferritin 3,004 ng/mL (18–300)
  • Transferrin saturation 54% (11%–46%).

2. Which of the following would be the best test to obtain next?

  • Bone marrow examination
  • Blood cultures
  • Tuberculin skin test
  • Liver biopsy
  • Positron emission tomography and CT

Our patient has unexplained pancytopenia. While all the tests listed above might shed light on her condition, a bone marrow examination would be the best test to obtain next.

Figure 1. The patient’s bone marrow aspirate. Histiocytes containing numerous small budding yeast forms are seen. Cultures of the marrow eventually grew Histoplasma capsulatum. Wright-Giemsa, × 1,000.
Our patient undergoes bone marrow biopsy. Examination of the marrow shows histiocytes containing numerous small budding yeast forms with morphologic characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum (Figure 1).

Urine histoplasma antigen studies are positive at greater than 39 ng/mL (normal 0, low positive < 0.6–3.9, moderate positive 4.0–19.9, high positive 20–39 ng/mL). A culture of the marrow subsequently grows this organism.

 

 

3. Which of the following tests would establish a definitive diagnosis in this patient?

  • Methenamine silver stain of the marrow
  • Serum antibody testing
  • Fungal culture
  • Peripheral blood smear
  • Carbolfuchsin stain of marrow
  • Urine histoplasma antigen

A prompt diagnosis is critical in patients with acute pulmonary histoplasmosis or progressive disseminated histoplasmosis because early treatment may shorten the clinical course and length of treatment and, in cases of disseminated histoplasmosis, prevent death.8–10

Histopathologic examination of the bone marrow gives the most rapid results, although biopsy to obtain the tissue is invasive. It can give a definitive diagnosis if it reveals the typical 2- to 4-μm yeast structures of H capsulatum. These are observed on an aspirate smear of the patient’s bone marrow biopsy (Figure 1) and can be confirmed by methenamine silver or periodic acid-Schiff staining of the tissue.

Antibody detection is less practical because the antibodies take 2 to 6 weeks after infection to form.11 Also, it is less useful in cases of disseminated infection because many of these patients are immunosuppressed.

Fungal culture remains the gold standard diagnostic test for histoplasmosis. However, results may take up to 1 month and may be falsely negative in less severe cases.

Histoplasma antigen testing is of greater utility in patients with severe disease, including cases of disseminated histoplasmosis. Rates of antigen detection approach 90% in urine specimens from non-AIDS patients with disseminated infection.12 The urine assay has a greater sensitivity and specificity than the serum assay. The rate of detection is lower (ie, around 82%) in patients with acute pulmonary histoplasmosis when both the serum and urine specimens are tested.13

The immunoassay for histoplasma antigen is particularly useful for monitoring the response to therapy. Antigen levels should be measured before treatment is started and at 2 weeks, 1 month, and then approximately every 3 months during therapy.14 If the treatment is effective, antigens should decline by at least 20% in the first month of treatment and by another 20% in each of the following 3-month intervals. Antigen testing should be done every 3 months until a negative antigen level is achieved. The antigen level should also be followed for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped.14

HISTOPLASMA IS INHALED

H capsulatum is the cause of one of the most common pulmonary and systemic mycotic infections in the world, with hundreds of thousands of new cases annually. In areas where the soil is contaminated by bird or bat guano, the fungus is inhaled, resulting in an asymptomatic or a self-limiting influenza-like syndrome in an immunocompetent individual.15

An antigen-specific CD4+ T lymphocytemediated immunity occurs. The immune response of the host is thought to be fungistatic rather than fungicidal, resulting in a persistent inactive infection capable of reactivation in the presence of a host-pathogen imbalance.16

Most infections are asymptomatic or self-limited. For every 2,000 acute infections there is one that results in severe and progressive dissemination, usually in an immunocompromised host.17,18

TREATMENT OF HISTOPLASMOSIS

4. What is the appropriate initial choice of treatment for a severe case of disseminated histoplasmosis?

  • Amphotericin B in a lipid complex formulation (Abelcet)
  • Itraconazole (Sporanox)
  • Fluconazole (Diflucan)
  • Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

Untreated, acute disseminated histoplasmosis can progress over a period of 2 to 12 weeks, ultimately killing the patient.17,19

The leading therapies include amphotericin B in a lipid formulation and azole drugs, in particular itraconazole. Fluconazole and ketoconazole are not first-line options in severe cases because they are less predictably effective, and ketoconazole has a higher rate of side effects.20–23 The current recommendation is to treat severely ill hospitalized patients with one of the liposomal formulations or the lipid complex formulation of amphotericin B. Itraconazole is used for patients who have mild to moderate symptoms and as a step-down therapy in patients who improve after initial use of amphotericin B.

CASE CONCLUDED: THE PATIENT RECOVERS

The patient’s symptoms improve after 2 weeks of treatment with intravenous amphotericin B lipid complex, followed by an oral itraconazole regimen. Two months later, her total leukocyte count and hemoglobin levels have normalized, and her platelet and T-cell counts have steadily increased but are still subnormal. Her urine histoplasma antigen levels have decreased but are still detectable after 6 months (Table 3). She continues to receive oral itraconazole for 1 year.

At the time of the initial patient encounter, there was no history of or obvious cause of immunosuppression in this patient. She was found to be HIV-negative and was subsequently diagnosed with “profound immunosuppression of unknown etiology” resulting in a low CD4 count.

The patient receives trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) and azithromycin (Zithromax) for prophylaxis against Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia and Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection. Two months after the hospitalization, she recalls being at a corn maze 1 month before becoming ill.

A 54-year-old woman with a 1-month history of progressive weakness was transported to the emergency department of a local hospital when a family member found her unresponsive. Before this event, the patient had said she had been feeling tired and cold and looking pale for several weeks.

In the emergency department, her temperature was low. Cableomputed tomography (CT) of the head showed a 1.4-cm hyperdense extraaxial mass. Imaging of the chest showed focal consolidations within the anterior segment of the right upper lobe and the left and right lower lobes.

A urine toxicology screen was positive for acetaminophen (Tylenol), opiates, and benzodiazepines. She was given three doses of naloxone (Narcan), which raised her level of arousal; however, she later became obtunded again and was intubated and transferred to Cleveland Clinic.

A new CT scan of the head confirmed a small left temporal, extradural, calcified lesion with no mass effect or overt bleeding; it appeared most compatible with a solitary calcified meningioma—a likely benign finding.

Her medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes (controlled with diet), and osteoarthritis of the spine. In 1999, she had undergone a hysterectomy that necessitated a blood transfusion. She has never smoked tobacco and does not consume alcohol or use illicit drugs. In the past she worked as a nurse’s aid in a nursing home. However, for the past several years she has stayed at home. Her only avocation of note is gardening.

Initial physical examination

The patient is intubated and sedated. Her temperature is 35.3°C (95.5°F), blood pressure 122/81 mm Hg, heart rate 83 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 14 on assist-controlled ventilator settings with an Fio2 of 100% and a positive end-expiratory pressure of 5 cm H2O.

Her pupils are round, equal, and reactive to light. Her face is symmetric and notable for hirsutism over the chin. Her neck is supple and without lymphadenopathy or thyromegaly.

Rhonchi can be heard at both lung bases. She has normal bowel sounds, and her abdomen is soft and nondistended, with no masses or palpable hepatosplenomegaly. She has no pedal edema on either side, and no clubbing or cyanosis. Her skin is intact, without rashes, lesions, or tattoos. She is able to withdraw from painful stimuli in all four extremities.

INITIAL TESTS PROVIDE A CLUE

The patient’s initial laboratory tests (Table 1) reveal low counts in all of her blood cell types. A peripheral blood smear shows crenated red blood cells with rare fragments, normal-appearing white blood cells (but in low numbers), and a low number of platelets.

1. Which of the following is the likely cause of this patient’s pancytopenia?

  • Folate deficiency
  • Gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to colon cancer
  • Acute myeloid leukemia
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  • Myelophthisis
  • Other

Causes of pancytopenia are listed in Table 2.

Folate deficiency

Folate is necessary for thymidylate synthesis, a rate-limiting step in DNA synthesis. The minimum daily requirement for dietary folate intake is 50 μg.

Severe deficiency of folate has been reported to cause pancytopenia in alcoholics.1 Abuse of alcohol leads to an abrupt decrease in serum folate (within 2 to 4 days of ceasing intake of proper amounts of folate, as in an alcoholic binge) by inhibiting its absorption in the proximal jejunum as well as its metabolism in the liver.2 The resulting folate deficiency, if sustained, can develop into megaloblastosis in 5 to 10 weeks.

The duration of weakness and pallor reported by this patient would raise suspicion of folate deficiency if she had a history of malnutrition or of alcohol abuse, but she has neither. Further, her mean corpuscular volume is 82.5 fL, red blood cell folate 391 ng/mL (reference range 257–800 ng/mL), and serum vitamin B12 1,886 pg/mL (22–700 pg/mL), and she has no macro-ovalocytes or hypersegmented neutrophils on a peripheral blood smear. This makes folate or vitamin B12 deficiency less likely.

Gastrointestinal bleeding due to colon cancer

Iron-deficiency anemia, hematochezia, melena, a change in bowel habits, and abdominal pain may be manifestations of colon cancer. Cancers of the colon originate from adenomatous polyps arising from the colonic mucosa.

The quantity of occult blood loss depends on the site of the tumor. Patients with tumors in the cecum or ascending colon lose an average of 9 mL/day, whereas those with tumors in the transverse, descending, or sigmoid colon or rectum lose less than 2 mL/day.3

Pertinent laboratory findings in iron-deficiency anemia are a low iron concentration, a low transferrin saturation, a depleted serum ferritin, and a normal to high total iron-binding capacity. An initial microcytic normochromic anemia eventually progresses to a microcytic hypochromic anemia that has a tendency to increasingly demonstrate anisocytosis and poikilocytosis.

Our patient’s symptoms, signs, and laboratory values (with normocytic normochromic anemia) are inconsistent with symptomatic colon cancer leading to iron-deficiency anemia.

 

 

Acute myeloid leukemia

Acute myeloid leukemia generally manifests with symptoms related to pancytopenia, with weakness and fatigability being the most common.4

In this condition, genetic alterations in hematopoietic precursor cells result in reduced differentiation capacity and accumulation of leukemic blasts in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and other tissues.

Peripheral blood analysis usually reveals normocytic normochromic anemia with blasts. To establish a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia, one must observe at least 20% myeloblasts in the blood, the bone marrow, or both.

No blasts are seen on our patient’s peripheral blood smear, making acute myeloid leukemia less likely.

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is a possibility in the setting of intravascular hemolytic anemia, bone marrow failure, and thrombosis.

These processes are due to a defect in the glycosyl phosphatidyl inositol (GPI) anchor caused by an abnormality in the PIG-A gene. Partial or complete absence of the GPI anchor allows for activation of complement-mediated hemolysis. A diminished rate of hematopoiesis is presumably responsible for reticulocytopenia, granulocytopenia, or thrombocytopenia, though reticulocytosis can also be seen.5,6 The highly thrombogenic state is believed to occur because of microparticles rich in phosphatidylserine.7

Our patient’s peripheral smear has rare fragmented red blood cells and lacks teardrop red cells. Although paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria does not have characteristic morphologic features in the peripheral blood, there are no signs of thrombosis in our patient. Her lactate dehydrogenase level is 395 U/L (reference range 100–220 U/L), and her haptoglobin level is less than 20 mg/dL (33–246). These findings could indicate a low level of intravascular hemolysis.

Myelophthisis

Myelophthisis refers to any disorder in which an abnormal cell process invades the bone marrow, damaging hematopoietic tissue. These processes include neoplastic diseases, storage disorders, and a variety of infections. A decrease in all three cell types may result, depending on the severity of invasion. Documented infectious causes include hepatitis viruses, Epstein-Barr virus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), mycobacteria, and fungi.

Our patient’s condition is likely due to a marrow-based process of uncertain etiology. In myelophthisic processes, one may see teardrop red cells, which are not seen in this patient’s smear. However, on her chest imaging, the finding of focal consolidations within the anterior segment of the right upper lobe and both lower lobes raises suspicion of an infectious cause.

CASE CONTINUED: SHE UNDERGOES DIAGNOSTIC TESTING

Let us recap some of the laboratory studies that document the extent of our patient’s pancytopenia and the pattern of her anemia:

  • Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL (reference range 11.5–15.5 g/dL)
  • Platelet count 27 × 109/L (150–400)
  • Leukopenia with profound T-cell lymphopenia
  • Iron 59 μg/dL (30–140)
  • Total iron-binding capacity 110 μg/dL (210–415)
  • Ferritin 3,004 ng/mL (18–300)
  • Transferrin saturation 54% (11%–46%).

2. Which of the following would be the best test to obtain next?

  • Bone marrow examination
  • Blood cultures
  • Tuberculin skin test
  • Liver biopsy
  • Positron emission tomography and CT

Our patient has unexplained pancytopenia. While all the tests listed above might shed light on her condition, a bone marrow examination would be the best test to obtain next.

Figure 1. The patient’s bone marrow aspirate. Histiocytes containing numerous small budding yeast forms are seen. Cultures of the marrow eventually grew Histoplasma capsulatum. Wright-Giemsa, × 1,000.
Our patient undergoes bone marrow biopsy. Examination of the marrow shows histiocytes containing numerous small budding yeast forms with morphologic characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum (Figure 1).

Urine histoplasma antigen studies are positive at greater than 39 ng/mL (normal 0, low positive < 0.6–3.9, moderate positive 4.0–19.9, high positive 20–39 ng/mL). A culture of the marrow subsequently grows this organism.

 

 

3. Which of the following tests would establish a definitive diagnosis in this patient?

  • Methenamine silver stain of the marrow
  • Serum antibody testing
  • Fungal culture
  • Peripheral blood smear
  • Carbolfuchsin stain of marrow
  • Urine histoplasma antigen

A prompt diagnosis is critical in patients with acute pulmonary histoplasmosis or progressive disseminated histoplasmosis because early treatment may shorten the clinical course and length of treatment and, in cases of disseminated histoplasmosis, prevent death.8–10

Histopathologic examination of the bone marrow gives the most rapid results, although biopsy to obtain the tissue is invasive. It can give a definitive diagnosis if it reveals the typical 2- to 4-μm yeast structures of H capsulatum. These are observed on an aspirate smear of the patient’s bone marrow biopsy (Figure 1) and can be confirmed by methenamine silver or periodic acid-Schiff staining of the tissue.

Antibody detection is less practical because the antibodies take 2 to 6 weeks after infection to form.11 Also, it is less useful in cases of disseminated infection because many of these patients are immunosuppressed.

Fungal culture remains the gold standard diagnostic test for histoplasmosis. However, results may take up to 1 month and may be falsely negative in less severe cases.

Histoplasma antigen testing is of greater utility in patients with severe disease, including cases of disseminated histoplasmosis. Rates of antigen detection approach 90% in urine specimens from non-AIDS patients with disseminated infection.12 The urine assay has a greater sensitivity and specificity than the serum assay. The rate of detection is lower (ie, around 82%) in patients with acute pulmonary histoplasmosis when both the serum and urine specimens are tested.13

The immunoassay for histoplasma antigen is particularly useful for monitoring the response to therapy. Antigen levels should be measured before treatment is started and at 2 weeks, 1 month, and then approximately every 3 months during therapy.14 If the treatment is effective, antigens should decline by at least 20% in the first month of treatment and by another 20% in each of the following 3-month intervals. Antigen testing should be done every 3 months until a negative antigen level is achieved. The antigen level should also be followed for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped.14

HISTOPLASMA IS INHALED

H capsulatum is the cause of one of the most common pulmonary and systemic mycotic infections in the world, with hundreds of thousands of new cases annually. In areas where the soil is contaminated by bird or bat guano, the fungus is inhaled, resulting in an asymptomatic or a self-limiting influenza-like syndrome in an immunocompetent individual.15

An antigen-specific CD4+ T lymphocytemediated immunity occurs. The immune response of the host is thought to be fungistatic rather than fungicidal, resulting in a persistent inactive infection capable of reactivation in the presence of a host-pathogen imbalance.16

Most infections are asymptomatic or self-limited. For every 2,000 acute infections there is one that results in severe and progressive dissemination, usually in an immunocompromised host.17,18

TREATMENT OF HISTOPLASMOSIS

4. What is the appropriate initial choice of treatment for a severe case of disseminated histoplasmosis?

  • Amphotericin B in a lipid complex formulation (Abelcet)
  • Itraconazole (Sporanox)
  • Fluconazole (Diflucan)
  • Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

Untreated, acute disseminated histoplasmosis can progress over a period of 2 to 12 weeks, ultimately killing the patient.17,19

The leading therapies include amphotericin B in a lipid formulation and azole drugs, in particular itraconazole. Fluconazole and ketoconazole are not first-line options in severe cases because they are less predictably effective, and ketoconazole has a higher rate of side effects.20–23 The current recommendation is to treat severely ill hospitalized patients with one of the liposomal formulations or the lipid complex formulation of amphotericin B. Itraconazole is used for patients who have mild to moderate symptoms and as a step-down therapy in patients who improve after initial use of amphotericin B.

CASE CONCLUDED: THE PATIENT RECOVERS

The patient’s symptoms improve after 2 weeks of treatment with intravenous amphotericin B lipid complex, followed by an oral itraconazole regimen. Two months later, her total leukocyte count and hemoglobin levels have normalized, and her platelet and T-cell counts have steadily increased but are still subnormal. Her urine histoplasma antigen levels have decreased but are still detectable after 6 months (Table 3). She continues to receive oral itraconazole for 1 year.

At the time of the initial patient encounter, there was no history of or obvious cause of immunosuppression in this patient. She was found to be HIV-negative and was subsequently diagnosed with “profound immunosuppression of unknown etiology” resulting in a low CD4 count.

The patient receives trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) and azithromycin (Zithromax) for prophylaxis against Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia and Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection. Two months after the hospitalization, she recalls being at a corn maze 1 month before becoming ill.

References
  1. Clarke V, Weston-Smith S. Severe folate-deficiency pancytopenia. BMJ Case Reports 2010; published online.
  2. Anthony AC. Megaloblastic anemias. In:Hoffman R, Benz EJ, Shattil SJ, Furie B, Cohebn HJ, Silberstein LE, editors. Hematology: Basic Principles and Practice, 2nd ed. New York, NY: Churchill Livingston, 1995:552586.
  3. Macrae FA, St John DJ. Relationship between patterns of bleeding and Hemoccult sensitivity in patients with colorectal cancers or adenomas. Gastroenterology 1982; 82:891898.
  4. Meyers CA, Albitar M, Estey E. Cognitive impairment, fatigue, and cytokine levels in patients with acute myelogenous leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome. Cancer 2005; 104:788793.
  5. Parker CJ. Bone marrow failure syndromes: paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. Hematol Oncol Clin North Am 2009; 23:333346.
  6. Young NS, Maciejewski JP, Sloand E, et al. The relationship of aplastic anemia and PNH. Int J Hematol 2002; 76(suppl 2):168172.
  7. Rosse W. A new way to prevent thrombosis? Blood 2007; 110:3821.
  8. Wheat LJ, Freifeld AG, Kleiman MB, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clinical practice guidelines for the management of patients with histoplasmosis: 2007 update by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clin Infect Dis 2007; 45:807825.
  9. Meals LT, McKinney WP. Acute pulmonary histoplasmosis: progressive pneumonia resulting from high inoculum exposure. J Ky Med Assoc 1998; 96:258260.
  10. Salomon J, Flament Saillour M, De Truchis P, et al. An outbreak of acute pulmonary histoplasmosis in members of a trekking trip in Martinique, French West Indies. J Travel Med 2003; 10:8793.
  11. Joseph Wheat L. Current diagnosis of histoplasmosis. Trends Microbiol 2003; 11:488494.
  12. Wheat LJ, Kauffman CA. Histoplasmosis. Infect Dis Clin North Am 2003; 17:119.
  13. Swartzentruber S, Rhodes L, Kurkjian K, et al. Diagnosis of acute pulmonary histoplasmosis by antigen detection. Clin Infect Dis 2009; 49:18781882.
  14. Wheat LJ, Freifeld AG, Kleiman MB, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clinical practice guidelines for the management of patients with histoplasmosis: 2007 update by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clin Infect Dis 2007; 45:807825.
  15. Retallack DM, Woods JP. Molecular epidemiology, pathogenesis, and genetics of the dimorphic fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. Microbes Infect 1999; 1:817825.
  16. Deepe GS. The immune response to Histoplasma capsulatum: unearthing its secrets. J Lab Clin Med 1994; 123:201205.
  17. Goodwin RA, Shapiro JL, Thurman GH, Thurman SS, Des Prez RM. Disseminated histoplasmosis: clinical and pathologic correlations. Medicine (Baltimore) 1980; 59:133.
  18. Wheat LJ, Connolly-Stringfield PA, Baker RL, et al. Disseminated histoplasmosis in the acquired immune deficiency syndrome: clinical findings, diagnosis and treatment, and review of the literature. Medicine (Baltimore) 1990; 69:361374.
  19. Rubin H, Furcolow ML, Yates JL, Brasher CA. The course and prognosis of histoplasmosis. Am J Med 1959; 27:278288.
  20. Wheat J, MaWhinney S, Hafner R, et al. Treatment of histoplasmosis with fluconazole in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome Clinical Trials Group and Mycoses Study Group. Am J Med 1997; 103:223232.
  21. McKinsey DS, Kauffman CA, Pappas PG, et al. Fluconazole therapy for histoplasmosis. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Mycoses Study Group. Clin Infect Dis 1996; 23:9961001.
  22. Slama TG. Treatment of disseminated and progressive cavitary histoplasmosis with ketoconazole. Am J Med 1983; 74:7073.
  23. Treatment of blastomycosis and histoplasmosis with ketoconazole. Results of a prospective randomized clinical trial. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Mycoses Study Group. Ann Intern Med 1985; 103:861872.
References
  1. Clarke V, Weston-Smith S. Severe folate-deficiency pancytopenia. BMJ Case Reports 2010; published online.
  2. Anthony AC. Megaloblastic anemias. In:Hoffman R, Benz EJ, Shattil SJ, Furie B, Cohebn HJ, Silberstein LE, editors. Hematology: Basic Principles and Practice, 2nd ed. New York, NY: Churchill Livingston, 1995:552586.
  3. Macrae FA, St John DJ. Relationship between patterns of bleeding and Hemoccult sensitivity in patients with colorectal cancers or adenomas. Gastroenterology 1982; 82:891898.
  4. Meyers CA, Albitar M, Estey E. Cognitive impairment, fatigue, and cytokine levels in patients with acute myelogenous leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome. Cancer 2005; 104:788793.
  5. Parker CJ. Bone marrow failure syndromes: paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. Hematol Oncol Clin North Am 2009; 23:333346.
  6. Young NS, Maciejewski JP, Sloand E, et al. The relationship of aplastic anemia and PNH. Int J Hematol 2002; 76(suppl 2):168172.
  7. Rosse W. A new way to prevent thrombosis? Blood 2007; 110:3821.
  8. Wheat LJ, Freifeld AG, Kleiman MB, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clinical practice guidelines for the management of patients with histoplasmosis: 2007 update by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clin Infect Dis 2007; 45:807825.
  9. Meals LT, McKinney WP. Acute pulmonary histoplasmosis: progressive pneumonia resulting from high inoculum exposure. J Ky Med Assoc 1998; 96:258260.
  10. Salomon J, Flament Saillour M, De Truchis P, et al. An outbreak of acute pulmonary histoplasmosis in members of a trekking trip in Martinique, French West Indies. J Travel Med 2003; 10:8793.
  11. Joseph Wheat L. Current diagnosis of histoplasmosis. Trends Microbiol 2003; 11:488494.
  12. Wheat LJ, Kauffman CA. Histoplasmosis. Infect Dis Clin North Am 2003; 17:119.
  13. Swartzentruber S, Rhodes L, Kurkjian K, et al. Diagnosis of acute pulmonary histoplasmosis by antigen detection. Clin Infect Dis 2009; 49:18781882.
  14. Wheat LJ, Freifeld AG, Kleiman MB, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clinical practice guidelines for the management of patients with histoplasmosis: 2007 update by the Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clin Infect Dis 2007; 45:807825.
  15. Retallack DM, Woods JP. Molecular epidemiology, pathogenesis, and genetics of the dimorphic fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. Microbes Infect 1999; 1:817825.
  16. Deepe GS. The immune response to Histoplasma capsulatum: unearthing its secrets. J Lab Clin Med 1994; 123:201205.
  17. Goodwin RA, Shapiro JL, Thurman GH, Thurman SS, Des Prez RM. Disseminated histoplasmosis: clinical and pathologic correlations. Medicine (Baltimore) 1980; 59:133.
  18. Wheat LJ, Connolly-Stringfield PA, Baker RL, et al. Disseminated histoplasmosis in the acquired immune deficiency syndrome: clinical findings, diagnosis and treatment, and review of the literature. Medicine (Baltimore) 1990; 69:361374.
  19. Rubin H, Furcolow ML, Yates JL, Brasher CA. The course and prognosis of histoplasmosis. Am J Med 1959; 27:278288.
  20. Wheat J, MaWhinney S, Hafner R, et al. Treatment of histoplasmosis with fluconazole in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome Clinical Trials Group and Mycoses Study Group. Am J Med 1997; 103:223232.
  21. McKinsey DS, Kauffman CA, Pappas PG, et al. Fluconazole therapy for histoplasmosis. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Mycoses Study Group. Clin Infect Dis 1996; 23:9961001.
  22. Slama TG. Treatment of disseminated and progressive cavitary histoplasmosis with ketoconazole. Am J Med 1983; 74:7073.
  23. Treatment of blastomycosis and histoplasmosis with ketoconazole. Results of a prospective randomized clinical trial. National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Mycoses Study Group. Ann Intern Med 1985; 103:861872.
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Presumed premature ventricular contractions

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Presumed premature ventricular contractions

Figure 1. The electrocardiogram shows atrial fibrillation. The sixth beat has a long cycle (A), with a short subsequent cycle (B). It is followed by two aberrantly conducted beats (white and black arrows). In lead V1, morphology similar to right bundle branch block is evident (rsR’) in the first aberrant beat (white arrow), with a QRS duration of 120 msec. The second aberrant beat has an rSR’ morphology.
A 52-year-old man with atrial fibrillation due to severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of his lung disease. Telemetric monitoring showed what appeared to be premature ventricular contractions, and so an electrocardiogram was obtained (Figure 1).

What is the diagnosis? Is a cardiology consult warranted?

AN ABERRANT CONDUCTION PATTERN

The finding seen in this electrocardiogram is known as the Ashman phenomenon, an aberrant conduction pattern seen in atrial dysrhythmias, mainly atrial fibrillation, atrial tachycardia, and atrial ectopy, when a relatively long cycle is followed by a relatively short cycle. The beat terminating the short cycle often has the morphology of right bundle branch block.

This pattern was first described by Gouaux and Ashman in 1947; however, the aberrant conduction of supraventricular impulses was first described by Lewis in 1910.1,2

Ashman phenomenon and right bundle branch block

The three criteria for the diagnosis of right bundle branch block in adults are:

  • A QRS duration of 120 msec or more
  • An rsr', rsR', or rSR' in leads V1 or V2 (the R' or r' deflection is usually wider than the initial R wave)
  • The duration of the S wave in I and V6 is usually greater than that of the R wave or is greater than 40 msec.3

Variation in the heart rate (due to atrial fibrillation in this patient) affects the width of the QRS interval; the refractory period of a cycle is influenced by the RR interval of the previous cycle. Therefore, if after a long cycle with a consequent long refractory period, a shorter cycle follows, then the beat terminating the short cycle is likely to be aberrantly conducted because one of the bundle branches is still in the refractory period. Because the refractory period for the right bundle branch is longer than that of the left bundle branch, the right bundle branch block pattern is more common.4

In our patient’s tracing (Figure 1), the aberrantly conducted beat has the shortest coupling intervals of any of the conducted beats on the tracing. Although the RR interval preceding the short cycle is not the longest on this tracing, it is moderately long, and so the refractory period of the right bundle branch is moderately long.

The Ashman pattern vs ventricular premature beat

Atrial arrhythmias cause a variation in the refractory period of the bundle branches and the ventricular conduction system, and this explains why the Ashman phenomenon occurs more often in this setting. It is important to distinguish the aberrant conduction seen in the Ashman phenomenon, which electrophysiologically is restricted to the His-Purkinje system, from premature ventricular complexes and ventricular tachycardia.

The current criteria used to distinguish the Ashman phenomenon were described by Fisch5,6:

  • A relatively long cycle immediately preceding the cycle terminated by the aberrant QRS complex: a short-long-short interval is even more likely to initiate aberration. The aberration can be left or right bundle branch block, or both, even in the same patient.
  • Right bundle branch block morphology, with normal orientation of the initial QRS vector. Concealed perpetuation of the aberration is possible, and so a series of wide QRS supraventricular beats is possible.
  • Irregular coupling of aberrant QRS complexes.
  • Lack of a fully compensatory pause.

In Figure 1, the second aberrantly conducted beat is not as aberrant as the first, even though it is even more premature than the first. This can be explained because the refractory period of the right bundle branch has now shortened.

Also, the mechanism of aberrancy of the second beat may be partly the result of concealed perpetuation, ie, incomplete penetration of the His bundle depolarizations in either direction with secondary abnormalities of antegrade or retrograde conduction. This pattern is not directly reflected on the surface electrocardiogram but can be detected on intracardiac electrophysiologic studies.7 In concealed perpetuation, instead of inducing tachycardia, the extra stimuli are followed by pauses that exceed the tachycardia cycle length.8

Treated by managing the atrial arrhythmia

There is no specific treatment for the aberrant cycles. Rather, treatment is directed at the atrial arrhythmia.9 Adequate control of the underlying process and the atrial tachyarrhythmia itself is important. In our patient, control of the exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and of the heart rate improved the ventricular response to atrial fibrillation.

References
  1. Fisch C, Knoebel SB. Vagaries of acceleration dependent aberration. Br Heart J 1992; 67:1624.
  2. Gouaux JL, Ashman R. Auricular fibrillation with aberration simulating ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia. Am Heart J 1947; 34:366373.
  3. Surawicz B, Childers R, Deal BJ, et al; American Heart Association Electrocardiography and Arrhythmias Committee, Council on Clinical Cardiology; American College of Cardiology Foundation; Heart Rhythm Society. AHA/ACCF/HRS recommendations for the standardization and interpretation of the electrocardiogram: part III: intraventricular conduction disturbances: a scientific statement from the American Heart Association Electrocardiography and Arrhythmias Committee, Council on Clinical Cardiology; the American College of Cardiology Foundation; and the Heart Rhythm Society. Endorsed by the International Society for Computerized Electrocardiology. J Am Coll Cardiol 2009; 53:976981.
  4. Antunes E, Brugada J, Steurer G, Andries E, Brugada P. The differential diagnosis of a regular tachycardia with a wide QRS complex on the 12-lead ECG: ventricular tachycardia, supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant intraventricular conduction, and supraventricular tachycardia with anterograde conduction over an accessory pathway. Pacing Clin Electrophysiol 1994; 17:15151524.
  5. Fisch C, Knoebel SB, eds. Clinical Electrocardiography of Arrhythmias. Armonk, NY: Futura Publishing Company, 2000:407.
  6. Gulamhusein S, Yee R, Ko PT, Klein GJ. Electrocardiographic criteria for differentiating aberrancy and ventricular extrasystole in chronic atrial fibrillation: validation by intracardiac recordings. J Electrocardiol 1985; 18:4150.
  7. Josephson ME. Miscellaneous phenomena related to atrioventricular conduction. In: Clinical Cardiac Electrophysiology: Techniques and Interpretations. 3rd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2002:140154.
  8. Josephson ME. Recurrent ventricular tachycardia. In: Clinical Cardiac Electrophysiology: Techniques and Interpretations. 3rd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2002:425610.
  9. Hope RR, Lazzara R, Scherlag BJ. The induction of ventricular arrhythmias in acute myocardial ischemia by atrial pacing with long-short cycle sequences. Chest 1977; 71:651658.
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Section of Clinical Cardiology, Department of Cardiovascular Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Moises Auron, MD, FAAP, FACP, SFHM, Department of Hospital Medicine, M2 Annex, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Address: Moises Auron, MD, FAAP, FACP, SFHM, Department of Hospital Medicine, M2 Annex, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Section of Clinical Cardiology, Department of Cardiovascular Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Moises Auron, MD, FAAP, FACP, SFHM, Department of Hospital Medicine, M2 Annex, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Figure 1. The electrocardiogram shows atrial fibrillation. The sixth beat has a long cycle (A), with a short subsequent cycle (B). It is followed by two aberrantly conducted beats (white and black arrows). In lead V1, morphology similar to right bundle branch block is evident (rsR’) in the first aberrant beat (white arrow), with a QRS duration of 120 msec. The second aberrant beat has an rSR’ morphology.
A 52-year-old man with atrial fibrillation due to severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of his lung disease. Telemetric monitoring showed what appeared to be premature ventricular contractions, and so an electrocardiogram was obtained (Figure 1).

What is the diagnosis? Is a cardiology consult warranted?

AN ABERRANT CONDUCTION PATTERN

The finding seen in this electrocardiogram is known as the Ashman phenomenon, an aberrant conduction pattern seen in atrial dysrhythmias, mainly atrial fibrillation, atrial tachycardia, and atrial ectopy, when a relatively long cycle is followed by a relatively short cycle. The beat terminating the short cycle often has the morphology of right bundle branch block.

This pattern was first described by Gouaux and Ashman in 1947; however, the aberrant conduction of supraventricular impulses was first described by Lewis in 1910.1,2

Ashman phenomenon and right bundle branch block

The three criteria for the diagnosis of right bundle branch block in adults are:

  • A QRS duration of 120 msec or more
  • An rsr', rsR', or rSR' in leads V1 or V2 (the R' or r' deflection is usually wider than the initial R wave)
  • The duration of the S wave in I and V6 is usually greater than that of the R wave or is greater than 40 msec.3

Variation in the heart rate (due to atrial fibrillation in this patient) affects the width of the QRS interval; the refractory period of a cycle is influenced by the RR interval of the previous cycle. Therefore, if after a long cycle with a consequent long refractory period, a shorter cycle follows, then the beat terminating the short cycle is likely to be aberrantly conducted because one of the bundle branches is still in the refractory period. Because the refractory period for the right bundle branch is longer than that of the left bundle branch, the right bundle branch block pattern is more common.4

In our patient’s tracing (Figure 1), the aberrantly conducted beat has the shortest coupling intervals of any of the conducted beats on the tracing. Although the RR interval preceding the short cycle is not the longest on this tracing, it is moderately long, and so the refractory period of the right bundle branch is moderately long.

The Ashman pattern vs ventricular premature beat

Atrial arrhythmias cause a variation in the refractory period of the bundle branches and the ventricular conduction system, and this explains why the Ashman phenomenon occurs more often in this setting. It is important to distinguish the aberrant conduction seen in the Ashman phenomenon, which electrophysiologically is restricted to the His-Purkinje system, from premature ventricular complexes and ventricular tachycardia.

The current criteria used to distinguish the Ashman phenomenon were described by Fisch5,6:

  • A relatively long cycle immediately preceding the cycle terminated by the aberrant QRS complex: a short-long-short interval is even more likely to initiate aberration. The aberration can be left or right bundle branch block, or both, even in the same patient.
  • Right bundle branch block morphology, with normal orientation of the initial QRS vector. Concealed perpetuation of the aberration is possible, and so a series of wide QRS supraventricular beats is possible.
  • Irregular coupling of aberrant QRS complexes.
  • Lack of a fully compensatory pause.

In Figure 1, the second aberrantly conducted beat is not as aberrant as the first, even though it is even more premature than the first. This can be explained because the refractory period of the right bundle branch has now shortened.

Also, the mechanism of aberrancy of the second beat may be partly the result of concealed perpetuation, ie, incomplete penetration of the His bundle depolarizations in either direction with secondary abnormalities of antegrade or retrograde conduction. This pattern is not directly reflected on the surface electrocardiogram but can be detected on intracardiac electrophysiologic studies.7 In concealed perpetuation, instead of inducing tachycardia, the extra stimuli are followed by pauses that exceed the tachycardia cycle length.8

Treated by managing the atrial arrhythmia

There is no specific treatment for the aberrant cycles. Rather, treatment is directed at the atrial arrhythmia.9 Adequate control of the underlying process and the atrial tachyarrhythmia itself is important. In our patient, control of the exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and of the heart rate improved the ventricular response to atrial fibrillation.

Figure 1. The electrocardiogram shows atrial fibrillation. The sixth beat has a long cycle (A), with a short subsequent cycle (B). It is followed by two aberrantly conducted beats (white and black arrows). In lead V1, morphology similar to right bundle branch block is evident (rsR’) in the first aberrant beat (white arrow), with a QRS duration of 120 msec. The second aberrant beat has an rSR’ morphology.
A 52-year-old man with atrial fibrillation due to severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of his lung disease. Telemetric monitoring showed what appeared to be premature ventricular contractions, and so an electrocardiogram was obtained (Figure 1).

What is the diagnosis? Is a cardiology consult warranted?

AN ABERRANT CONDUCTION PATTERN

The finding seen in this electrocardiogram is known as the Ashman phenomenon, an aberrant conduction pattern seen in atrial dysrhythmias, mainly atrial fibrillation, atrial tachycardia, and atrial ectopy, when a relatively long cycle is followed by a relatively short cycle. The beat terminating the short cycle often has the morphology of right bundle branch block.

This pattern was first described by Gouaux and Ashman in 1947; however, the aberrant conduction of supraventricular impulses was first described by Lewis in 1910.1,2

Ashman phenomenon and right bundle branch block

The three criteria for the diagnosis of right bundle branch block in adults are:

  • A QRS duration of 120 msec or more
  • An rsr', rsR', or rSR' in leads V1 or V2 (the R' or r' deflection is usually wider than the initial R wave)
  • The duration of the S wave in I and V6 is usually greater than that of the R wave or is greater than 40 msec.3

Variation in the heart rate (due to atrial fibrillation in this patient) affects the width of the QRS interval; the refractory period of a cycle is influenced by the RR interval of the previous cycle. Therefore, if after a long cycle with a consequent long refractory period, a shorter cycle follows, then the beat terminating the short cycle is likely to be aberrantly conducted because one of the bundle branches is still in the refractory period. Because the refractory period for the right bundle branch is longer than that of the left bundle branch, the right bundle branch block pattern is more common.4

In our patient’s tracing (Figure 1), the aberrantly conducted beat has the shortest coupling intervals of any of the conducted beats on the tracing. Although the RR interval preceding the short cycle is not the longest on this tracing, it is moderately long, and so the refractory period of the right bundle branch is moderately long.

The Ashman pattern vs ventricular premature beat

Atrial arrhythmias cause a variation in the refractory period of the bundle branches and the ventricular conduction system, and this explains why the Ashman phenomenon occurs more often in this setting. It is important to distinguish the aberrant conduction seen in the Ashman phenomenon, which electrophysiologically is restricted to the His-Purkinje system, from premature ventricular complexes and ventricular tachycardia.

The current criteria used to distinguish the Ashman phenomenon were described by Fisch5,6:

  • A relatively long cycle immediately preceding the cycle terminated by the aberrant QRS complex: a short-long-short interval is even more likely to initiate aberration. The aberration can be left or right bundle branch block, or both, even in the same patient.
  • Right bundle branch block morphology, with normal orientation of the initial QRS vector. Concealed perpetuation of the aberration is possible, and so a series of wide QRS supraventricular beats is possible.
  • Irregular coupling of aberrant QRS complexes.
  • Lack of a fully compensatory pause.

In Figure 1, the second aberrantly conducted beat is not as aberrant as the first, even though it is even more premature than the first. This can be explained because the refractory period of the right bundle branch has now shortened.

Also, the mechanism of aberrancy of the second beat may be partly the result of concealed perpetuation, ie, incomplete penetration of the His bundle depolarizations in either direction with secondary abnormalities of antegrade or retrograde conduction. This pattern is not directly reflected on the surface electrocardiogram but can be detected on intracardiac electrophysiologic studies.7 In concealed perpetuation, instead of inducing tachycardia, the extra stimuli are followed by pauses that exceed the tachycardia cycle length.8

Treated by managing the atrial arrhythmia

There is no specific treatment for the aberrant cycles. Rather, treatment is directed at the atrial arrhythmia.9 Adequate control of the underlying process and the atrial tachyarrhythmia itself is important. In our patient, control of the exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and of the heart rate improved the ventricular response to atrial fibrillation.

References
  1. Fisch C, Knoebel SB. Vagaries of acceleration dependent aberration. Br Heart J 1992; 67:1624.
  2. Gouaux JL, Ashman R. Auricular fibrillation with aberration simulating ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia. Am Heart J 1947; 34:366373.
  3. Surawicz B, Childers R, Deal BJ, et al; American Heart Association Electrocardiography and Arrhythmias Committee, Council on Clinical Cardiology; American College of Cardiology Foundation; Heart Rhythm Society. AHA/ACCF/HRS recommendations for the standardization and interpretation of the electrocardiogram: part III: intraventricular conduction disturbances: a scientific statement from the American Heart Association Electrocardiography and Arrhythmias Committee, Council on Clinical Cardiology; the American College of Cardiology Foundation; and the Heart Rhythm Society. Endorsed by the International Society for Computerized Electrocardiology. J Am Coll Cardiol 2009; 53:976981.
  4. Antunes E, Brugada J, Steurer G, Andries E, Brugada P. The differential diagnosis of a regular tachycardia with a wide QRS complex on the 12-lead ECG: ventricular tachycardia, supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant intraventricular conduction, and supraventricular tachycardia with anterograde conduction over an accessory pathway. Pacing Clin Electrophysiol 1994; 17:15151524.
  5. Fisch C, Knoebel SB, eds. Clinical Electrocardiography of Arrhythmias. Armonk, NY: Futura Publishing Company, 2000:407.
  6. Gulamhusein S, Yee R, Ko PT, Klein GJ. Electrocardiographic criteria for differentiating aberrancy and ventricular extrasystole in chronic atrial fibrillation: validation by intracardiac recordings. J Electrocardiol 1985; 18:4150.
  7. Josephson ME. Miscellaneous phenomena related to atrioventricular conduction. In: Clinical Cardiac Electrophysiology: Techniques and Interpretations. 3rd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2002:140154.
  8. Josephson ME. Recurrent ventricular tachycardia. In: Clinical Cardiac Electrophysiology: Techniques and Interpretations. 3rd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2002:425610.
  9. Hope RR, Lazzara R, Scherlag BJ. The induction of ventricular arrhythmias in acute myocardial ischemia by atrial pacing with long-short cycle sequences. Chest 1977; 71:651658.
References
  1. Fisch C, Knoebel SB. Vagaries of acceleration dependent aberration. Br Heart J 1992; 67:1624.
  2. Gouaux JL, Ashman R. Auricular fibrillation with aberration simulating ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia. Am Heart J 1947; 34:366373.
  3. Surawicz B, Childers R, Deal BJ, et al; American Heart Association Electrocardiography and Arrhythmias Committee, Council on Clinical Cardiology; American College of Cardiology Foundation; Heart Rhythm Society. AHA/ACCF/HRS recommendations for the standardization and interpretation of the electrocardiogram: part III: intraventricular conduction disturbances: a scientific statement from the American Heart Association Electrocardiography and Arrhythmias Committee, Council on Clinical Cardiology; the American College of Cardiology Foundation; and the Heart Rhythm Society. Endorsed by the International Society for Computerized Electrocardiology. J Am Coll Cardiol 2009; 53:976981.
  4. Antunes E, Brugada J, Steurer G, Andries E, Brugada P. The differential diagnosis of a regular tachycardia with a wide QRS complex on the 12-lead ECG: ventricular tachycardia, supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant intraventricular conduction, and supraventricular tachycardia with anterograde conduction over an accessory pathway. Pacing Clin Electrophysiol 1994; 17:15151524.
  5. Fisch C, Knoebel SB, eds. Clinical Electrocardiography of Arrhythmias. Armonk, NY: Futura Publishing Company, 2000:407.
  6. Gulamhusein S, Yee R, Ko PT, Klein GJ. Electrocardiographic criteria for differentiating aberrancy and ventricular extrasystole in chronic atrial fibrillation: validation by intracardiac recordings. J Electrocardiol 1985; 18:4150.
  7. Josephson ME. Miscellaneous phenomena related to atrioventricular conduction. In: Clinical Cardiac Electrophysiology: Techniques and Interpretations. 3rd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2002:140154.
  8. Josephson ME. Recurrent ventricular tachycardia. In: Clinical Cardiac Electrophysiology: Techniques and Interpretations. 3rd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2002:425610.
  9. Hope RR, Lazzara R, Scherlag BJ. The induction of ventricular arrhythmias in acute myocardial ischemia by atrial pacing with long-short cycle sequences. Chest 1977; 71:651658.
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A less common source of dyspnea in scleroderma

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A less common source of dyspnea in scleroderma

A 48-year-old man reports progressive exercise intolerance, shortness of breath, fatigue, and melena over the past month. He has a long history of Raynaud phenomenon, and 5 months ago he developed severe sclerodactyly in both hands, diagnosed as limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (scleroderma).

He has no chest pain, swelling of the lower limbs, change in weight, cough, fever, chills, or sick contacts, and he has not traveled recently.

His symptoms began as fatigue and shortness of breath, which worsened until he began having episodes of abdominal pain with melena and dizzy spills, although he never passed out.

He is currently taking long-term low-dose prednisone and mycophenolate mofetil (Cell-Cept) for the systemic sclerosis, and omeprazole (Prilosec) for gastroesophageal reflux. His father had lupus, and his grandmother had colon cancer.

An outpatient workup for sclerosis-related lung and heart involvement is negative. The workup includes computed tomography of the chest, pulmonary function tests, and Doppler echocardiography.

He is afebrile, with a blood pressure of 105/60 mm Hg and a pulse of 98. His cardiopulmonary examination results are normal. He has mild epigastric tenderness without rebound or guarding. His hemoglobin concentration at the time of hospital admission is 7.8 g/dL, down from 14.5 g/dL recorded when limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis was diagnosed. Iron studies reveal iron deficiency.

Figure 1. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy of the antrum of the stomach shows the classic “watermelon stomach,” ie, the striped distribution of angioectasia, consistent with gastric antral vascular ectasia. The areas of ectasia were cauterized with argon plasma coagulation.
He receives two units of packed red blood cells and is started on an esomeprazole (Nexium) drip for suspected upper gastrointestinal bleeding. He then undergoes esophagogastro-duodenoscopy, which reveals the source of the bleeding: the classic “watermelon” distribution of angioectasia in the antrum of the stomach, consistent with gastric antral vascular ectasia (Figure 1).

The antral ectasia is treated with argon plasma coagulation during the endoscopic examination.

Afterward, the patient's hemoglobin stabilizes, and the melena resolves. He is discharged on an oral proton pump inhibitor, with instructions to follow up for another endoscopic session in 1 month.

GASTROINTESTINAL FEATURES OF SYSTEMIC SCLEROSIS

Sclerodermal disorders have diverse manifestations that always include characteristic cutaneous signs. While there are several well-recognized symptomatic conditions commonly associated with scleroderma, attention must also be paid to the less common causes of these symptoms. Scleroderma has gastrointestinal complications that can easily be missed and may not respond to immunomodulatory or proton pump inhibitor therapy: complications can include esophageal dysmotility, hypomotility, gastric paresis, reflux esophagitis, strictures, drug-related ulcer, malabsorption, bacterial overgrowth, and pseudo-obstruction.1

This patient had an underrecognized cause of dyspnea in the setting of systemic sclerosis. Vascular symptoms of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis are typically attributed to Raynaud phenomenon; gastrointestinal symptoms are typically attributed to esophageal dysmotility; and associated dyspnea is often considered to represent pulmonary or cardiac involvement of the sclerosis. However, gastric antral vascular ectasia should be considered in any patient with scleroderma and evidence of anemia.

The prevalence of gastric antral vascular ectasia in patients with systemic sclerosis is estimated to be about 6%.2–4 It is a relatively rare cause of upper gastrointestinal blood loss that can be clinically silent until the patient develops severe iron deficiency anemia and symptoms of dyspnea, fatigue, or congestive heart failure.

Gastric antral vascular ectasia in scleroderma usually presents as iron deficiency anemia, and only presents overtly as hematemesis or melena 10% to 14% of the time.4 Because of the often occult nature of the bleeding, the condition may be clinically silent in the early phase. Symptoms of shortness of breath and fatigue may not develop until the anemia worsens rapidly or becomes severe. Anemia is present in almost all cases of gastric antral vascular ectasia (96% to 100%) and should be a strong clinical clue for early endoscopic evaluation in patients with scleroderma, especially if there is already suspicion of upper gastrointestinal bleeding.2–5

The distinctive endoscopic streaky pattern of ectasia along the stomach antrum seen in gastric antral vascular ectasia is called “watermelon stomach”4,5 because the striped pattern recalls the stripes of a watermelon. The endoscopic appearance can vary, however, from the watermelon pattern to a coalescence of angiodysplastic lesions termed “honeycomb stomach,” which can easily be mistaken for antral gastritis.4,5 Therefore, biopsy often serves to confirm the diagnosis, with histologic features including dilated mucosal capillaries with focal fibrin thrombosis and fibromuscular hyperplasia of the lamina propria.

Gastric antral vascular ectasia often requires multiple transfusions of red blood cells, as well as repeated treatments with endoscopic argon plasma coagulation, whereby ionized argon gas is used to conduct an electric current that coagulates the surface of the mucosa to a few millimeters depth.4–6

A knowledge of the association between scleroderma and gastric antral vascular ectasia can lead to earlier recognition and treatment and can avoid unnecessary testing and complications of severe anemia.

References
  1. Forbes A, Marie I. Gastrointestinal complications: the most frequent internal complications of systemic sclerosis. Rheumatology (Oxford) 2009; 48(suppl 3):iii36iii39.
  2. Ingraham KM, O’Brien MS, Shenin M, Derk CT, Steen VD. Gastric antral vascular ectasia in systemic sclerosis: demographics and disease predictors. J Rheumatol 2010; 37:603607.
  3. Watson M, Hally RJ, McCue PA, Varga J, Jiménez SA. Gastric antral vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach) in patients with systemic sclerosis. Arthritis Rheum 1996; 39:341346.
  4. Marie I, Ducrotte P, Antonietti M, Herve S, Levesque H. Watermelon stomach in systemic sclerosis: its incidence and management. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2008; 28:412421.
  5. Selinger CP, Ang YS. Gastric antral vascular ectasia (GAVE): an update on clinical presentation, pathophysiology and treatment. Digestion 2008; 77:131137.
  6. Chaves DM, Sakai P, Oliveira CV, Cheng S, Ishioka S. Watermelon stomach: clinical aspects and treatment with argon plasma coagulation. Arq Gastroenterol 2006; 43:191195.
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Address: M. Chadi Alraies, MD, FACP, Department of Hospital Medicine, A13, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Cleveland Clinic Lerner College of Medicine, of Case Western Reserve University, Cleveland, OH

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A 48-year-old man reports progressive exercise intolerance, shortness of breath, fatigue, and melena over the past month. He has a long history of Raynaud phenomenon, and 5 months ago he developed severe sclerodactyly in both hands, diagnosed as limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (scleroderma).

He has no chest pain, swelling of the lower limbs, change in weight, cough, fever, chills, or sick contacts, and he has not traveled recently.

His symptoms began as fatigue and shortness of breath, which worsened until he began having episodes of abdominal pain with melena and dizzy spills, although he never passed out.

He is currently taking long-term low-dose prednisone and mycophenolate mofetil (Cell-Cept) for the systemic sclerosis, and omeprazole (Prilosec) for gastroesophageal reflux. His father had lupus, and his grandmother had colon cancer.

An outpatient workup for sclerosis-related lung and heart involvement is negative. The workup includes computed tomography of the chest, pulmonary function tests, and Doppler echocardiography.

He is afebrile, with a blood pressure of 105/60 mm Hg and a pulse of 98. His cardiopulmonary examination results are normal. He has mild epigastric tenderness without rebound or guarding. His hemoglobin concentration at the time of hospital admission is 7.8 g/dL, down from 14.5 g/dL recorded when limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis was diagnosed. Iron studies reveal iron deficiency.

Figure 1. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy of the antrum of the stomach shows the classic “watermelon stomach,” ie, the striped distribution of angioectasia, consistent with gastric antral vascular ectasia. The areas of ectasia were cauterized with argon plasma coagulation.
He receives two units of packed red blood cells and is started on an esomeprazole (Nexium) drip for suspected upper gastrointestinal bleeding. He then undergoes esophagogastro-duodenoscopy, which reveals the source of the bleeding: the classic “watermelon” distribution of angioectasia in the antrum of the stomach, consistent with gastric antral vascular ectasia (Figure 1).

The antral ectasia is treated with argon plasma coagulation during the endoscopic examination.

Afterward, the patient's hemoglobin stabilizes, and the melena resolves. He is discharged on an oral proton pump inhibitor, with instructions to follow up for another endoscopic session in 1 month.

GASTROINTESTINAL FEATURES OF SYSTEMIC SCLEROSIS

Sclerodermal disorders have diverse manifestations that always include characteristic cutaneous signs. While there are several well-recognized symptomatic conditions commonly associated with scleroderma, attention must also be paid to the less common causes of these symptoms. Scleroderma has gastrointestinal complications that can easily be missed and may not respond to immunomodulatory or proton pump inhibitor therapy: complications can include esophageal dysmotility, hypomotility, gastric paresis, reflux esophagitis, strictures, drug-related ulcer, malabsorption, bacterial overgrowth, and pseudo-obstruction.1

This patient had an underrecognized cause of dyspnea in the setting of systemic sclerosis. Vascular symptoms of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis are typically attributed to Raynaud phenomenon; gastrointestinal symptoms are typically attributed to esophageal dysmotility; and associated dyspnea is often considered to represent pulmonary or cardiac involvement of the sclerosis. However, gastric antral vascular ectasia should be considered in any patient with scleroderma and evidence of anemia.

The prevalence of gastric antral vascular ectasia in patients with systemic sclerosis is estimated to be about 6%.2–4 It is a relatively rare cause of upper gastrointestinal blood loss that can be clinically silent until the patient develops severe iron deficiency anemia and symptoms of dyspnea, fatigue, or congestive heart failure.

Gastric antral vascular ectasia in scleroderma usually presents as iron deficiency anemia, and only presents overtly as hematemesis or melena 10% to 14% of the time.4 Because of the often occult nature of the bleeding, the condition may be clinically silent in the early phase. Symptoms of shortness of breath and fatigue may not develop until the anemia worsens rapidly or becomes severe. Anemia is present in almost all cases of gastric antral vascular ectasia (96% to 100%) and should be a strong clinical clue for early endoscopic evaluation in patients with scleroderma, especially if there is already suspicion of upper gastrointestinal bleeding.2–5

The distinctive endoscopic streaky pattern of ectasia along the stomach antrum seen in gastric antral vascular ectasia is called “watermelon stomach”4,5 because the striped pattern recalls the stripes of a watermelon. The endoscopic appearance can vary, however, from the watermelon pattern to a coalescence of angiodysplastic lesions termed “honeycomb stomach,” which can easily be mistaken for antral gastritis.4,5 Therefore, biopsy often serves to confirm the diagnosis, with histologic features including dilated mucosal capillaries with focal fibrin thrombosis and fibromuscular hyperplasia of the lamina propria.

Gastric antral vascular ectasia often requires multiple transfusions of red blood cells, as well as repeated treatments with endoscopic argon plasma coagulation, whereby ionized argon gas is used to conduct an electric current that coagulates the surface of the mucosa to a few millimeters depth.4–6

A knowledge of the association between scleroderma and gastric antral vascular ectasia can lead to earlier recognition and treatment and can avoid unnecessary testing and complications of severe anemia.

A 48-year-old man reports progressive exercise intolerance, shortness of breath, fatigue, and melena over the past month. He has a long history of Raynaud phenomenon, and 5 months ago he developed severe sclerodactyly in both hands, diagnosed as limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (scleroderma).

He has no chest pain, swelling of the lower limbs, change in weight, cough, fever, chills, or sick contacts, and he has not traveled recently.

His symptoms began as fatigue and shortness of breath, which worsened until he began having episodes of abdominal pain with melena and dizzy spills, although he never passed out.

He is currently taking long-term low-dose prednisone and mycophenolate mofetil (Cell-Cept) for the systemic sclerosis, and omeprazole (Prilosec) for gastroesophageal reflux. His father had lupus, and his grandmother had colon cancer.

An outpatient workup for sclerosis-related lung and heart involvement is negative. The workup includes computed tomography of the chest, pulmonary function tests, and Doppler echocardiography.

He is afebrile, with a blood pressure of 105/60 mm Hg and a pulse of 98. His cardiopulmonary examination results are normal. He has mild epigastric tenderness without rebound or guarding. His hemoglobin concentration at the time of hospital admission is 7.8 g/dL, down from 14.5 g/dL recorded when limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis was diagnosed. Iron studies reveal iron deficiency.

Figure 1. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy of the antrum of the stomach shows the classic “watermelon stomach,” ie, the striped distribution of angioectasia, consistent with gastric antral vascular ectasia. The areas of ectasia were cauterized with argon plasma coagulation.
He receives two units of packed red blood cells and is started on an esomeprazole (Nexium) drip for suspected upper gastrointestinal bleeding. He then undergoes esophagogastro-duodenoscopy, which reveals the source of the bleeding: the classic “watermelon” distribution of angioectasia in the antrum of the stomach, consistent with gastric antral vascular ectasia (Figure 1).

The antral ectasia is treated with argon plasma coagulation during the endoscopic examination.

Afterward, the patient's hemoglobin stabilizes, and the melena resolves. He is discharged on an oral proton pump inhibitor, with instructions to follow up for another endoscopic session in 1 month.

GASTROINTESTINAL FEATURES OF SYSTEMIC SCLEROSIS

Sclerodermal disorders have diverse manifestations that always include characteristic cutaneous signs. While there are several well-recognized symptomatic conditions commonly associated with scleroderma, attention must also be paid to the less common causes of these symptoms. Scleroderma has gastrointestinal complications that can easily be missed and may not respond to immunomodulatory or proton pump inhibitor therapy: complications can include esophageal dysmotility, hypomotility, gastric paresis, reflux esophagitis, strictures, drug-related ulcer, malabsorption, bacterial overgrowth, and pseudo-obstruction.1

This patient had an underrecognized cause of dyspnea in the setting of systemic sclerosis. Vascular symptoms of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis are typically attributed to Raynaud phenomenon; gastrointestinal symptoms are typically attributed to esophageal dysmotility; and associated dyspnea is often considered to represent pulmonary or cardiac involvement of the sclerosis. However, gastric antral vascular ectasia should be considered in any patient with scleroderma and evidence of anemia.

The prevalence of gastric antral vascular ectasia in patients with systemic sclerosis is estimated to be about 6%.2–4 It is a relatively rare cause of upper gastrointestinal blood loss that can be clinically silent until the patient develops severe iron deficiency anemia and symptoms of dyspnea, fatigue, or congestive heart failure.

Gastric antral vascular ectasia in scleroderma usually presents as iron deficiency anemia, and only presents overtly as hematemesis or melena 10% to 14% of the time.4 Because of the often occult nature of the bleeding, the condition may be clinically silent in the early phase. Symptoms of shortness of breath and fatigue may not develop until the anemia worsens rapidly or becomes severe. Anemia is present in almost all cases of gastric antral vascular ectasia (96% to 100%) and should be a strong clinical clue for early endoscopic evaluation in patients with scleroderma, especially if there is already suspicion of upper gastrointestinal bleeding.2–5

The distinctive endoscopic streaky pattern of ectasia along the stomach antrum seen in gastric antral vascular ectasia is called “watermelon stomach”4,5 because the striped pattern recalls the stripes of a watermelon. The endoscopic appearance can vary, however, from the watermelon pattern to a coalescence of angiodysplastic lesions termed “honeycomb stomach,” which can easily be mistaken for antral gastritis.4,5 Therefore, biopsy often serves to confirm the diagnosis, with histologic features including dilated mucosal capillaries with focal fibrin thrombosis and fibromuscular hyperplasia of the lamina propria.

Gastric antral vascular ectasia often requires multiple transfusions of red blood cells, as well as repeated treatments with endoscopic argon plasma coagulation, whereby ionized argon gas is used to conduct an electric current that coagulates the surface of the mucosa to a few millimeters depth.4–6

A knowledge of the association between scleroderma and gastric antral vascular ectasia can lead to earlier recognition and treatment and can avoid unnecessary testing and complications of severe anemia.

References
  1. Forbes A, Marie I. Gastrointestinal complications: the most frequent internal complications of systemic sclerosis. Rheumatology (Oxford) 2009; 48(suppl 3):iii36iii39.
  2. Ingraham KM, O’Brien MS, Shenin M, Derk CT, Steen VD. Gastric antral vascular ectasia in systemic sclerosis: demographics and disease predictors. J Rheumatol 2010; 37:603607.
  3. Watson M, Hally RJ, McCue PA, Varga J, Jiménez SA. Gastric antral vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach) in patients with systemic sclerosis. Arthritis Rheum 1996; 39:341346.
  4. Marie I, Ducrotte P, Antonietti M, Herve S, Levesque H. Watermelon stomach in systemic sclerosis: its incidence and management. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2008; 28:412421.
  5. Selinger CP, Ang YS. Gastric antral vascular ectasia (GAVE): an update on clinical presentation, pathophysiology and treatment. Digestion 2008; 77:131137.
  6. Chaves DM, Sakai P, Oliveira CV, Cheng S, Ishioka S. Watermelon stomach: clinical aspects and treatment with argon plasma coagulation. Arq Gastroenterol 2006; 43:191195.
References
  1. Forbes A, Marie I. Gastrointestinal complications: the most frequent internal complications of systemic sclerosis. Rheumatology (Oxford) 2009; 48(suppl 3):iii36iii39.
  2. Ingraham KM, O’Brien MS, Shenin M, Derk CT, Steen VD. Gastric antral vascular ectasia in systemic sclerosis: demographics and disease predictors. J Rheumatol 2010; 37:603607.
  3. Watson M, Hally RJ, McCue PA, Varga J, Jiménez SA. Gastric antral vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach) in patients with systemic sclerosis. Arthritis Rheum 1996; 39:341346.
  4. Marie I, Ducrotte P, Antonietti M, Herve S, Levesque H. Watermelon stomach in systemic sclerosis: its incidence and management. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2008; 28:412421.
  5. Selinger CP, Ang YS. Gastric antral vascular ectasia (GAVE): an update on clinical presentation, pathophysiology and treatment. Digestion 2008; 77:131137.
  6. Chaves DM, Sakai P, Oliveira CV, Cheng S, Ishioka S. Watermelon stomach: clinical aspects and treatment with argon plasma coagulation. Arq Gastroenterol 2006; 43:191195.
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A 25-year-old man with very high alkaline phosphatase

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A 25-year-old man with very high alkaline phosphatase

A 25-year-old man presented to his primary care physician with generalized malaise. His symptoms started around 2 months earlier with progressive fatigue, nausea, decreased appetite, and weight loss (15 lb in 2 months). He denied having fever, chills, night sweats, abdominal pain, diarrhea, melena, or hematochezia.

His medical history was remarkable only for depression, well controlled with sertraline (Zoloft), which he started taking 3 years ago. He was not taking any other prescribed, over-the-counter, or herbal medications.

He had no family history of cancer or liver disease. He did not smoke and rarely drank alcohol. He had never used recreational drugs. He was sexually active with one female partner, used condoms for protection, and had never been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease. He had not traveled recently and had not been exposed to any pet.

On physical examination, the patient was alert and oriented. He was afebrile, his heart rate was 90 beats per minute and regular, his respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute, and his blood pressure was 125/77 mm Hg. Auscultation of the chest was clear. His heart sounds were normal, and there was no murmur, gallop, or rub. His right upper quadrant was mildly tender, and his liver was palpably enlarged. He had no peripheral edema, clubbing, rash, telangiectasia, or other skin changes. Examination of the joints revealed no warmth, swelling, or erythema.

The patient’s laboratory values on admission are shown in Table 1. Of note, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was 1,307 U/L (reference range 40–150 U/L).

LIVER TESTS CAN NARROW THE DIAGNOSIS

The most commonly used laboratory tests of the liver can be classified into those that measure either:

  • Liver synthetic function (eg, the serum albumin and bilirubin concentrations and the prothrombin time) or
  • Liver damage, as reflected by the serum concentrations of the enzymes alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT).1,2

ALT and AST are normally concentrated in the hepatocytes and thus, when present in the serum in elevated concentrations, are markers of liver cell injury. The serum levels of these enzymes start to increase within a few hours of liver cell injury as they leak out of the cells via the damaged cell membrane. AST is less liver-specific than ALT, since AST levels can be elevated not only in liver injury but also in muscle, cardiac, and red blood cell injury.3,4

Alkaline phosphatase is actually a heterogeneous group of enzymes found mainly in liver and bone cells. Hepatic alkaline phosphatase is concentrated near the biliary canalicular membrane of the hepatocyte. Accordingly, increased levels of hepatic alkaline phosphatase are mainly seen in liver diseases that predominantly affect the biliary system.3

GGT is also concentrated in hepatic biliary epithelial cells, and thus GGT elevation is another marker of hepatobiliary disease. In fact, measuring the GGT level can help to determine whether an isolated elevation of alkaline phosphatase is due to liver injury.2,3

Accordingly, liver diseases can be classified into two broad categories:

  • Hepatocellular injury, in which the primary injury occurs to the hepatocytes
  • Cholestatic injury, in which the primary injury is to the bile ducts.

In the former, elevated levels of ALT and AST predominate, while in the latter, elevated alkaline phosphatase is the main finding.3

 

 

WHAT TEST NEXT FOR OUR PATIENT?

1. What is the next most appropriate diagnostic step for our patient?

  • Liver biopsy
  • Ultrasonography of the liver
  • Computed tomography (CT) of the liver
  • Observation

Our patient has an elevated GGT level, which suggests that his elevated alkaline phosphatase is of hepatic rather than bony origin. Moreover, a serum alkaline phosphatase level that is elevated out of proportion to the aminotransferase levels reflects cholestatic liver injury.

Figure 1.
Cholestatic liver diseases can be classified into two broad categories based on whether the injury affects the microscopic intrahepatic bile ducts (intrahepatic cholestasis) or extrahepatic large bile duct (extrahepatic cholestasis). The simplest diagnostic test to differentiate between the two is ultrasonography, which can identify extrahepatic biliary obstruction fairly well. Therefore, the diagnostic workup of cholestatic liver injury should start with ultrasonography of the liver to differentiate between intrahepatic and extrahepatic processes (Figure 1).

CASE CONTINUED: ULTRASONOGRAPHY IS MOSTLY NORMAL

Ultrasonography of the right upper quadrant revealed that the liver had normal echogenicity and was mildly enlarged. There was no focal hepatic lesion. The gallbladder appeared normal, with no stones or sludge. No dilated intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary ducts were seen. The common bile duct measured 4 mm. A small amount of ascites not amenable to paracentesis was present.

Thus, in the absence of biliary dilation on ultrasonography, we are dealing with an intrahepatic cholestatic process.

CAUSES OF CHOLESTATIC LIVER DISEASE

Table 2 lists the common causes of cholestatic liver disease.

Viral hepatitis

Viral hepatitis most often produces a hepatocellular pattern of injury (ie, AST and ALT elevations predominate). However, in rare cases it can cause a cholestatic pattern of injury.

Our patient subsequently had serologic tests for viral hepatitis, including hepatitis A, B, and C, and the results were negative.

Autoimmune liver disease

The three most common forms of autoimmune liver disease are autoimmune hepatitis, primary biliary cirrhosis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.

Autoimmune hepatitis is characterized by high serum ALT and AST levels, whereas primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis are associated with predominant elevations of alkaline phosphatase, since they are cholestatic disorders.

Our patient’s alkaline phosphatase level was much higher than his ALT and AST levels, making the latter two diseases more likely.

Primary biliary cirrhosis (and autoimmune hepatitis) are associated with autoantibodies in the serum, such as antinuclear antibody, smooth muscle antibody, and antimitochondrial antibody.

Our patient subsequently was tested for these antibodies, and the results were negative.

Primary sclerosing cholangitis usually affects the extrahepatic biliary system. Thus, if it is present, abnormalities should be seen on imaging.

As mentioned previously, no dilated intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary ducts were seen on ultrasonography in our patient. Moreover, primary sclerosing cholangitis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis, which our patient did not have.

Drug-induced liver injury

Drug-induced liver injury is a common cause of cholestatic liver disease. However, our patient was not taking any prescribed, over-the-counter, or herbal medications. Additionally, he denied heavy alcohol use.

Infiltrative disorders

Infiltrative disorders such as amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, or lymphoma should be considered in the differential diagnosis of cholestatic liver disease. A clue to a possible infiltrative process is a markedly elevated level of alkaline phosphatase with a mildly increased serum bilirubin concentration, both of which our patient had.

 

 

AFTER ULTRASONOGRAPHY, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP?

2. Which of the following is the next most appropriate diagnostic test for our patient?

  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
  • Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
  • Liver biopsy
  • CT of the abdomen

Figure 1 shows a proposed algorithm for evaluating increased alkaline phosphatase levels.

If there is no biliary duct dilation on ultrasonography, then abnormal levels of alkaline phosphatase most likely represent an intrahepatic pattern of cholestatic liver injury. Therefore, additional imaging with CT or magnetic resonance imaging is of limited diagnostic value. ERCP is used today for therapy rather than diagnosis, so its use is limited to patients known to have dilated biliary ducts on imaging. Liver biopsy, however, can provide useful findings.

Case continued: He undergoes biopsy

Our patient underwent transjugular liver biopsy. During the procedure, transjugular venography showed stenosis in the right, middle, and left hepatic veins and the hepatic portion of the inferior vena cava, consistent with Budd-Chiari syndrome.

The liver biopsy specimen was positive for extensive deposition of slight eosinophilic and amorphous material in a sinusoidal pattern in the liver parenchyma, as well as in the portal tracts, with markedly atrophic hepatocytes. Congo red birefringence confirmed the diagnosis of amyloidosis. The immunohistochemical phenotype was positive for kappa light chains, which is diagnostic for primary-type amyloidosis, also called amyloidosis of light chain composition, or AL.

Bone marrow aspiration and bone marrow biopsy were performed and showed 22% plasma cells, well above the normal range (0–2%), consistent with the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.

BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME: A CHALLENGING DIAGNOSIS

Budd-Chiari syndrome is a rare condition characterized by obstruction of venous outflow from the liver at a site that may vary from the small hepatic veins up to the inferior vena cava or even the right atrium.5,6 Obstruction of hepatic venous outflow leads to sinusoidal congestion and hypoxic damage of the hepatocytes.7 Hypoxia and necrosis of the hepatocytes result in the release of free radicals. Cirrhosis can eventually occur secondary to ischemic necrosis of hepatocytes and hepatic fibrosis.8

The estimated incidence of this syndrome is 1 in 2.5 million persons per year.7 It is more prevalent in women and young adults.8

Heterogeneous in its causes and manifestations

In about 75% of patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome, a hereditary or acquired hematologic abnormality or thrombotic diathesis can be found.8–10 Some of the major causes are summarized in Table 3. The most common causes are hematologic diseases, especially myeloproliferative disorders.7,8,11

Budd-Chiari syndrome is also heterogeneous in its manifestations, which depend on the extent of the occlusion, on the acuteness of the obstruction, and on whether venous collateral circulation has developed to decompress the liver sinusoids.9,12,13 Therefore, on the basis of its clinical manifestations, it can be classified as fulminant, acute, subacute, or chronic.12–16

The fulminant form presents with hepatic encephalopathy within 8 weeks after the development of jaundice. The subacute form, which is the most common, has a more insidious onset in which hepatic sinusoids are decompressed by portal and hepatic venous collateral circulation. The patient usually presents with abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly, nausea, vomiting, and mild jaundice. Finally the chronic form presents as complications of cirrhosis.12–16

Imaging plays an important role in diagnosing Budd-Chiari syndrome

Imaging plays an important role in detecting and classifying Budd-Chiari syndrome.

Duplex ultrasonography is useful for detecting this syndrome and has a sensitivity and specificity of 85%.9

CT and magnetic resonance imaging can also help in the diagnosis by showing thrombosis, obstruction, or occlusion in the hepatic vein or the inferior vena cava.5

Venography is the gold standard for diagnosis. However, it should be performed only if noninvasive tests are negative or nondiagnostic and there is a high clinical suspicion of this disease.17 Budd-Chiari syndrome has a characteristic pattern on venography known as “spider web,” which is due to the formation of venous collaterals to bypass the occluded hepatic veins.9

Liver biopsy is not necessarily required to confirm the diagnosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome, but it can help in diagnosing the acute or subacute forms and also in ruling out other causes. Histologic findings can include centrizonal congestion, loss of hepatocytes, hemorrhage, and fibrosis.18,19 Regenerative nodules are found in about 25% of patients.19

 

 

TREATING BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME

The primary goal of treatment is to prevent further extension of the venous thrombosis in the hepatic veins, in their collaterals, and in the intrahepatic and extrahepatic portal venous system. Resolution of hepatic congestion improves liver perfusion and preserves function of the hepatocytes.

Anticoagulation is recommended in the early stages. Heparin therapy should be initiated and subsequently switched to warfarin with the goal of achieving an international normalized ratio of the prothrombin time of 2.0 to 2.5.8,9,19

Thrombolysis is effective in the acute form.20,21 Recanalization, including percutaneous or transhepatic angioplasty of localized segments of the narrowed hepatic veins or inferior vena cava, has long-term patency rates of 80% to 90%.22

If thrombolytic therapy and angioplasty are unsuccessful, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt or a surgical procedure (side-to-side portocaval shunt, central splenorenal shunt, or mesocaval shunt) should be considered.9

Liver transplantation is another treatment option in those with fulminant Budd-Chiari syndrome or advanced liver cirrhosis.8

PROGNOSIS HAS IMPROVED

The prognosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome has improved, thanks to both earlier diagnosis and new treatments. The 1-year survival rate, which was about 60% before 1985, has increased to more than 80% in recent cohort studies.19

Studies have shown that the Child-Pugh score, which is based on a combination of serum albumin, bilirubin, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites, can be considered as an independent prognostic factor. A lower Child-Pugh score and a younger age are associated with a good prognosis.19,23,24 (The Child-Pugh score cannot be applied to our patient because he does not have cirrhosis.)

What happened to our patient?

Our patient was started on anticoagulation for his Budd-Chiari syndrome and on bortezomib (Velcade) and dexamethasone for his multiple myeloma. He achieved remarkable improvement in his liver function tests. Follow-up duplex ultrasonography 1 month after discharge revealed that the stenosis in the hepatic veins had resolved. He is following up with the oncology clinic for management of his multiple myeloma.

References
  1. Folwaczny C. Efficient diagnostics for elevated transaminases. [Article in German] MMW Fortschr Med 2007; 149:4448.
  2. Moussavian SN, Becker RC, Piepmeyer JL, Mezey E, Bozian RC. Serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase and chronic alcoholism. Influence of alcohol ingestion and liver disease. Dig Dis Sci 1985; 30:211214.
  3. Aragon G, Younossi ZM. When and how to evaluate mildly elevated liver enzymes in apparently healthy patients. Cleve Clin J Med 2010; 77:195204.
  4. Lepper PM, Dufour JF. Elevated transaminases—what to do if everything was done?. [Article in German] Praxis (Bern 1994) 2009; 98:330334.
  5. Buzas C, Sparchez Z, Cucuianu A, Manole S, Lupescu I, Acalovschi M. Budd-Chiari syndrome secondary to polycythemia vera. A case report. J Gastrointestin Liver Dis 2009; 18:363366.
  6. Valla DC. Primary Budd-Chiari syndrome. J Hepatol 2009; 50:195203.
  7. Rautou PE, Moucari R, Cazals-Hatem D, et al. Levels and initial course of serum alanine aminotransferase can predict outcome of patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2009; 7:12301235.
  8. Cura M, Haskal Z, Lopera J. Diagnostic and interventional radiology for Budd-Chiari syndrome. Radiographics 2009; 29:669681.
  9. Menon KV, Shah V, Kamath PS. The Budd-Chiari syndrome. N Engl J Med 2004; 350:578585.
  10. Darwish Murad S, Plessier A, Hernandez-Guerra M, et al; EN-Vie (European Network for Vascular Disorders of the Liver). Etiology, management, and outcome of the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Intern Med 2009; 151:167175.
  11. Valla D, Le MG, Poynard T, Zucman N, Rueff B, Benhamou JP. Risk of hepatic vein thrombosis in relation to recent use of oral contraceptives. A case-control study. Gastroenterology 1986; 90:807811.
  12. Bismuth H, Sherlock DJ. Portasystemic shunting versus liver transplantation for the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Surg 1991; 214:581589.
  13. Orloff MJ, Daily PO, Orloff SL, Girard B, Orloff MS. A 27-year experience with surgical treatment of Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Surg 2000; 232:340352.
  14. Dilawari JB, Bambery P, Chawla Y, et al. Hepatic outflow obstruction (Budd-Chiari syndrome). Experience with 177 patients and a review of the literature. Medicine (Baltimore) 1994; 73:2136.
  15. Mahmoud AE, Mendoza A, Meshikhes AN, et al. Clinical spectrum, investigations and treatment of Budd-Chiari syndrome. QJM 1996; 89:3743.
  16. Klein AS, Cameron JL. Diagnosis and management of the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Am J Surg 1990; 160:128133.
  17. Plessier A, Valla DC. Budd-Chiari syndrome. Semin Liver Dis 2008; 28:259269.
  18. Cazals-Hatem D, Vilgrain V, Genin P, et al. Arterial and portal circulation and parenchymal changes in Budd-Chiari syndrome: a study in 17 explanted livers. Hepatology 2003; 37:510519.
  19. Hoekstra J, Janssen HL. Vascular liver disorders (I): diagnosis, treatment and prognosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome. Neth J Med 2008; 66:334359.
  20. Frank JW, Kamath PS, Stanson AW. Budd-Chiari syndrome: early intervention with angioplasty and thrombolytic therapy. Mayo Clin Proc 1994; 69:877881.
  21. Raju GS, Felver M, Olin JW, Satti SD. Thrombolysis for acute Budd-Chiari syndrome: case report and literature review. Am J Gastroenterol 1996; 91:12621263.
  22. Fisher NC, McCafferty I, Dolapci M, et al. Managing Budd-Chiari syndrome: a retrospective review of percutaneous hepatic vein angioplasty and surgical shunting. Gut 1999; 44:568574.
  23. Zeitoun G, Escolano S, Hadengue A, et al. Outcome of Budd-Chiari syndrome: a multivariate analysis of factors related to survival including surgical portosystemic shunting. Hepatology 1999; 30:8489.
  24. Darwish Murad S, Valla DC, de Groen PC, et al. Determinants of survival and the effect of portosystemic shunting in patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome. Hepatology 2004; 39:500508.
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Jamak Modaresi Esfeh, MD
Department of Internal Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Ibrahim A. Hanouneh, MD
Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Cleveland Clinic

Nizar N. Zein, MD, FAASLD
Mikati Foundation Endowed Chair in Liver, Diseases, Chief, Section of Hepatology, and Medical Director of Liver Transplantation, Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Nizar N. Zein, MD, FAASLD, Section of Hepatology, A51, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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Department of Internal Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Ibrahim A. Hanouneh, MD
Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Cleveland Clinic

Nizar N. Zein, MD, FAASLD
Mikati Foundation Endowed Chair in Liver, Diseases, Chief, Section of Hepatology, and Medical Director of Liver Transplantation, Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Nizar N. Zein, MD, FAASLD, Section of Hepatology, A51, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

Author and Disclosure Information

Jamak Modaresi Esfeh, MD
Department of Internal Medicine, Cleveland Clinic

Ibrahim A. Hanouneh, MD
Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Cleveland Clinic

Nizar N. Zein, MD, FAASLD
Mikati Foundation Endowed Chair in Liver, Diseases, Chief, Section of Hepatology, and Medical Director of Liver Transplantation, Department of Gastroenterology and Hepatology, Cleveland Clinic

Address: Nizar N. Zein, MD, FAASLD, Section of Hepatology, A51, Cleveland Clinic, 9500 Euclid Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44195; e-mail [email protected]

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A 25-year-old man presented to his primary care physician with generalized malaise. His symptoms started around 2 months earlier with progressive fatigue, nausea, decreased appetite, and weight loss (15 lb in 2 months). He denied having fever, chills, night sweats, abdominal pain, diarrhea, melena, or hematochezia.

His medical history was remarkable only for depression, well controlled with sertraline (Zoloft), which he started taking 3 years ago. He was not taking any other prescribed, over-the-counter, or herbal medications.

He had no family history of cancer or liver disease. He did not smoke and rarely drank alcohol. He had never used recreational drugs. He was sexually active with one female partner, used condoms for protection, and had never been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease. He had not traveled recently and had not been exposed to any pet.

On physical examination, the patient was alert and oriented. He was afebrile, his heart rate was 90 beats per minute and regular, his respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute, and his blood pressure was 125/77 mm Hg. Auscultation of the chest was clear. His heart sounds were normal, and there was no murmur, gallop, or rub. His right upper quadrant was mildly tender, and his liver was palpably enlarged. He had no peripheral edema, clubbing, rash, telangiectasia, or other skin changes. Examination of the joints revealed no warmth, swelling, or erythema.

The patient’s laboratory values on admission are shown in Table 1. Of note, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was 1,307 U/L (reference range 40–150 U/L).

LIVER TESTS CAN NARROW THE DIAGNOSIS

The most commonly used laboratory tests of the liver can be classified into those that measure either:

  • Liver synthetic function (eg, the serum albumin and bilirubin concentrations and the prothrombin time) or
  • Liver damage, as reflected by the serum concentrations of the enzymes alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT).1,2

ALT and AST are normally concentrated in the hepatocytes and thus, when present in the serum in elevated concentrations, are markers of liver cell injury. The serum levels of these enzymes start to increase within a few hours of liver cell injury as they leak out of the cells via the damaged cell membrane. AST is less liver-specific than ALT, since AST levels can be elevated not only in liver injury but also in muscle, cardiac, and red blood cell injury.3,4

Alkaline phosphatase is actually a heterogeneous group of enzymes found mainly in liver and bone cells. Hepatic alkaline phosphatase is concentrated near the biliary canalicular membrane of the hepatocyte. Accordingly, increased levels of hepatic alkaline phosphatase are mainly seen in liver diseases that predominantly affect the biliary system.3

GGT is also concentrated in hepatic biliary epithelial cells, and thus GGT elevation is another marker of hepatobiliary disease. In fact, measuring the GGT level can help to determine whether an isolated elevation of alkaline phosphatase is due to liver injury.2,3

Accordingly, liver diseases can be classified into two broad categories:

  • Hepatocellular injury, in which the primary injury occurs to the hepatocytes
  • Cholestatic injury, in which the primary injury is to the bile ducts.

In the former, elevated levels of ALT and AST predominate, while in the latter, elevated alkaline phosphatase is the main finding.3

 

 

WHAT TEST NEXT FOR OUR PATIENT?

1. What is the next most appropriate diagnostic step for our patient?

  • Liver biopsy
  • Ultrasonography of the liver
  • Computed tomography (CT) of the liver
  • Observation

Our patient has an elevated GGT level, which suggests that his elevated alkaline phosphatase is of hepatic rather than bony origin. Moreover, a serum alkaline phosphatase level that is elevated out of proportion to the aminotransferase levels reflects cholestatic liver injury.

Figure 1.
Cholestatic liver diseases can be classified into two broad categories based on whether the injury affects the microscopic intrahepatic bile ducts (intrahepatic cholestasis) or extrahepatic large bile duct (extrahepatic cholestasis). The simplest diagnostic test to differentiate between the two is ultrasonography, which can identify extrahepatic biliary obstruction fairly well. Therefore, the diagnostic workup of cholestatic liver injury should start with ultrasonography of the liver to differentiate between intrahepatic and extrahepatic processes (Figure 1).

CASE CONTINUED: ULTRASONOGRAPHY IS MOSTLY NORMAL

Ultrasonography of the right upper quadrant revealed that the liver had normal echogenicity and was mildly enlarged. There was no focal hepatic lesion. The gallbladder appeared normal, with no stones or sludge. No dilated intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary ducts were seen. The common bile duct measured 4 mm. A small amount of ascites not amenable to paracentesis was present.

Thus, in the absence of biliary dilation on ultrasonography, we are dealing with an intrahepatic cholestatic process.

CAUSES OF CHOLESTATIC LIVER DISEASE

Table 2 lists the common causes of cholestatic liver disease.

Viral hepatitis

Viral hepatitis most often produces a hepatocellular pattern of injury (ie, AST and ALT elevations predominate). However, in rare cases it can cause a cholestatic pattern of injury.

Our patient subsequently had serologic tests for viral hepatitis, including hepatitis A, B, and C, and the results were negative.

Autoimmune liver disease

The three most common forms of autoimmune liver disease are autoimmune hepatitis, primary biliary cirrhosis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.

Autoimmune hepatitis is characterized by high serum ALT and AST levels, whereas primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis are associated with predominant elevations of alkaline phosphatase, since they are cholestatic disorders.

Our patient’s alkaline phosphatase level was much higher than his ALT and AST levels, making the latter two diseases more likely.

Primary biliary cirrhosis (and autoimmune hepatitis) are associated with autoantibodies in the serum, such as antinuclear antibody, smooth muscle antibody, and antimitochondrial antibody.

Our patient subsequently was tested for these antibodies, and the results were negative.

Primary sclerosing cholangitis usually affects the extrahepatic biliary system. Thus, if it is present, abnormalities should be seen on imaging.

As mentioned previously, no dilated intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary ducts were seen on ultrasonography in our patient. Moreover, primary sclerosing cholangitis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis, which our patient did not have.

Drug-induced liver injury

Drug-induced liver injury is a common cause of cholestatic liver disease. However, our patient was not taking any prescribed, over-the-counter, or herbal medications. Additionally, he denied heavy alcohol use.

Infiltrative disorders

Infiltrative disorders such as amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, or lymphoma should be considered in the differential diagnosis of cholestatic liver disease. A clue to a possible infiltrative process is a markedly elevated level of alkaline phosphatase with a mildly increased serum bilirubin concentration, both of which our patient had.

 

 

AFTER ULTRASONOGRAPHY, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP?

2. Which of the following is the next most appropriate diagnostic test for our patient?

  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
  • Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
  • Liver biopsy
  • CT of the abdomen

Figure 1 shows a proposed algorithm for evaluating increased alkaline phosphatase levels.

If there is no biliary duct dilation on ultrasonography, then abnormal levels of alkaline phosphatase most likely represent an intrahepatic pattern of cholestatic liver injury. Therefore, additional imaging with CT or magnetic resonance imaging is of limited diagnostic value. ERCP is used today for therapy rather than diagnosis, so its use is limited to patients known to have dilated biliary ducts on imaging. Liver biopsy, however, can provide useful findings.

Case continued: He undergoes biopsy

Our patient underwent transjugular liver biopsy. During the procedure, transjugular venography showed stenosis in the right, middle, and left hepatic veins and the hepatic portion of the inferior vena cava, consistent with Budd-Chiari syndrome.

The liver biopsy specimen was positive for extensive deposition of slight eosinophilic and amorphous material in a sinusoidal pattern in the liver parenchyma, as well as in the portal tracts, with markedly atrophic hepatocytes. Congo red birefringence confirmed the diagnosis of amyloidosis. The immunohistochemical phenotype was positive for kappa light chains, which is diagnostic for primary-type amyloidosis, also called amyloidosis of light chain composition, or AL.

Bone marrow aspiration and bone marrow biopsy were performed and showed 22% plasma cells, well above the normal range (0–2%), consistent with the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.

BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME: A CHALLENGING DIAGNOSIS

Budd-Chiari syndrome is a rare condition characterized by obstruction of venous outflow from the liver at a site that may vary from the small hepatic veins up to the inferior vena cava or even the right atrium.5,6 Obstruction of hepatic venous outflow leads to sinusoidal congestion and hypoxic damage of the hepatocytes.7 Hypoxia and necrosis of the hepatocytes result in the release of free radicals. Cirrhosis can eventually occur secondary to ischemic necrosis of hepatocytes and hepatic fibrosis.8

The estimated incidence of this syndrome is 1 in 2.5 million persons per year.7 It is more prevalent in women and young adults.8

Heterogeneous in its causes and manifestations

In about 75% of patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome, a hereditary or acquired hematologic abnormality or thrombotic diathesis can be found.8–10 Some of the major causes are summarized in Table 3. The most common causes are hematologic diseases, especially myeloproliferative disorders.7,8,11

Budd-Chiari syndrome is also heterogeneous in its manifestations, which depend on the extent of the occlusion, on the acuteness of the obstruction, and on whether venous collateral circulation has developed to decompress the liver sinusoids.9,12,13 Therefore, on the basis of its clinical manifestations, it can be classified as fulminant, acute, subacute, or chronic.12–16

The fulminant form presents with hepatic encephalopathy within 8 weeks after the development of jaundice. The subacute form, which is the most common, has a more insidious onset in which hepatic sinusoids are decompressed by portal and hepatic venous collateral circulation. The patient usually presents with abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly, nausea, vomiting, and mild jaundice. Finally the chronic form presents as complications of cirrhosis.12–16

Imaging plays an important role in diagnosing Budd-Chiari syndrome

Imaging plays an important role in detecting and classifying Budd-Chiari syndrome.

Duplex ultrasonography is useful for detecting this syndrome and has a sensitivity and specificity of 85%.9

CT and magnetic resonance imaging can also help in the diagnosis by showing thrombosis, obstruction, or occlusion in the hepatic vein or the inferior vena cava.5

Venography is the gold standard for diagnosis. However, it should be performed only if noninvasive tests are negative or nondiagnostic and there is a high clinical suspicion of this disease.17 Budd-Chiari syndrome has a characteristic pattern on venography known as “spider web,” which is due to the formation of venous collaterals to bypass the occluded hepatic veins.9

Liver biopsy is not necessarily required to confirm the diagnosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome, but it can help in diagnosing the acute or subacute forms and also in ruling out other causes. Histologic findings can include centrizonal congestion, loss of hepatocytes, hemorrhage, and fibrosis.18,19 Regenerative nodules are found in about 25% of patients.19

 

 

TREATING BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME

The primary goal of treatment is to prevent further extension of the venous thrombosis in the hepatic veins, in their collaterals, and in the intrahepatic and extrahepatic portal venous system. Resolution of hepatic congestion improves liver perfusion and preserves function of the hepatocytes.

Anticoagulation is recommended in the early stages. Heparin therapy should be initiated and subsequently switched to warfarin with the goal of achieving an international normalized ratio of the prothrombin time of 2.0 to 2.5.8,9,19

Thrombolysis is effective in the acute form.20,21 Recanalization, including percutaneous or transhepatic angioplasty of localized segments of the narrowed hepatic veins or inferior vena cava, has long-term patency rates of 80% to 90%.22

If thrombolytic therapy and angioplasty are unsuccessful, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt or a surgical procedure (side-to-side portocaval shunt, central splenorenal shunt, or mesocaval shunt) should be considered.9

Liver transplantation is another treatment option in those with fulminant Budd-Chiari syndrome or advanced liver cirrhosis.8

PROGNOSIS HAS IMPROVED

The prognosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome has improved, thanks to both earlier diagnosis and new treatments. The 1-year survival rate, which was about 60% before 1985, has increased to more than 80% in recent cohort studies.19

Studies have shown that the Child-Pugh score, which is based on a combination of serum albumin, bilirubin, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites, can be considered as an independent prognostic factor. A lower Child-Pugh score and a younger age are associated with a good prognosis.19,23,24 (The Child-Pugh score cannot be applied to our patient because he does not have cirrhosis.)

What happened to our patient?

Our patient was started on anticoagulation for his Budd-Chiari syndrome and on bortezomib (Velcade) and dexamethasone for his multiple myeloma. He achieved remarkable improvement in his liver function tests. Follow-up duplex ultrasonography 1 month after discharge revealed that the stenosis in the hepatic veins had resolved. He is following up with the oncology clinic for management of his multiple myeloma.

A 25-year-old man presented to his primary care physician with generalized malaise. His symptoms started around 2 months earlier with progressive fatigue, nausea, decreased appetite, and weight loss (15 lb in 2 months). He denied having fever, chills, night sweats, abdominal pain, diarrhea, melena, or hematochezia.

His medical history was remarkable only for depression, well controlled with sertraline (Zoloft), which he started taking 3 years ago. He was not taking any other prescribed, over-the-counter, or herbal medications.

He had no family history of cancer or liver disease. He did not smoke and rarely drank alcohol. He had never used recreational drugs. He was sexually active with one female partner, used condoms for protection, and had never been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease. He had not traveled recently and had not been exposed to any pet.

On physical examination, the patient was alert and oriented. He was afebrile, his heart rate was 90 beats per minute and regular, his respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute, and his blood pressure was 125/77 mm Hg. Auscultation of the chest was clear. His heart sounds were normal, and there was no murmur, gallop, or rub. His right upper quadrant was mildly tender, and his liver was palpably enlarged. He had no peripheral edema, clubbing, rash, telangiectasia, or other skin changes. Examination of the joints revealed no warmth, swelling, or erythema.

The patient’s laboratory values on admission are shown in Table 1. Of note, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was 1,307 U/L (reference range 40–150 U/L).

LIVER TESTS CAN NARROW THE DIAGNOSIS

The most commonly used laboratory tests of the liver can be classified into those that measure either:

  • Liver synthetic function (eg, the serum albumin and bilirubin concentrations and the prothrombin time) or
  • Liver damage, as reflected by the serum concentrations of the enzymes alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT).1,2

ALT and AST are normally concentrated in the hepatocytes and thus, when present in the serum in elevated concentrations, are markers of liver cell injury. The serum levels of these enzymes start to increase within a few hours of liver cell injury as they leak out of the cells via the damaged cell membrane. AST is less liver-specific than ALT, since AST levels can be elevated not only in liver injury but also in muscle, cardiac, and red blood cell injury.3,4

Alkaline phosphatase is actually a heterogeneous group of enzymes found mainly in liver and bone cells. Hepatic alkaline phosphatase is concentrated near the biliary canalicular membrane of the hepatocyte. Accordingly, increased levels of hepatic alkaline phosphatase are mainly seen in liver diseases that predominantly affect the biliary system.3

GGT is also concentrated in hepatic biliary epithelial cells, and thus GGT elevation is another marker of hepatobiliary disease. In fact, measuring the GGT level can help to determine whether an isolated elevation of alkaline phosphatase is due to liver injury.2,3

Accordingly, liver diseases can be classified into two broad categories:

  • Hepatocellular injury, in which the primary injury occurs to the hepatocytes
  • Cholestatic injury, in which the primary injury is to the bile ducts.

In the former, elevated levels of ALT and AST predominate, while in the latter, elevated alkaline phosphatase is the main finding.3

 

 

WHAT TEST NEXT FOR OUR PATIENT?

1. What is the next most appropriate diagnostic step for our patient?

  • Liver biopsy
  • Ultrasonography of the liver
  • Computed tomography (CT) of the liver
  • Observation

Our patient has an elevated GGT level, which suggests that his elevated alkaline phosphatase is of hepatic rather than bony origin. Moreover, a serum alkaline phosphatase level that is elevated out of proportion to the aminotransferase levels reflects cholestatic liver injury.

Figure 1.
Cholestatic liver diseases can be classified into two broad categories based on whether the injury affects the microscopic intrahepatic bile ducts (intrahepatic cholestasis) or extrahepatic large bile duct (extrahepatic cholestasis). The simplest diagnostic test to differentiate between the two is ultrasonography, which can identify extrahepatic biliary obstruction fairly well. Therefore, the diagnostic workup of cholestatic liver injury should start with ultrasonography of the liver to differentiate between intrahepatic and extrahepatic processes (Figure 1).

CASE CONTINUED: ULTRASONOGRAPHY IS MOSTLY NORMAL

Ultrasonography of the right upper quadrant revealed that the liver had normal echogenicity and was mildly enlarged. There was no focal hepatic lesion. The gallbladder appeared normal, with no stones or sludge. No dilated intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary ducts were seen. The common bile duct measured 4 mm. A small amount of ascites not amenable to paracentesis was present.

Thus, in the absence of biliary dilation on ultrasonography, we are dealing with an intrahepatic cholestatic process.

CAUSES OF CHOLESTATIC LIVER DISEASE

Table 2 lists the common causes of cholestatic liver disease.

Viral hepatitis

Viral hepatitis most often produces a hepatocellular pattern of injury (ie, AST and ALT elevations predominate). However, in rare cases it can cause a cholestatic pattern of injury.

Our patient subsequently had serologic tests for viral hepatitis, including hepatitis A, B, and C, and the results were negative.

Autoimmune liver disease

The three most common forms of autoimmune liver disease are autoimmune hepatitis, primary biliary cirrhosis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.

Autoimmune hepatitis is characterized by high serum ALT and AST levels, whereas primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis are associated with predominant elevations of alkaline phosphatase, since they are cholestatic disorders.

Our patient’s alkaline phosphatase level was much higher than his ALT and AST levels, making the latter two diseases more likely.

Primary biliary cirrhosis (and autoimmune hepatitis) are associated with autoantibodies in the serum, such as antinuclear antibody, smooth muscle antibody, and antimitochondrial antibody.

Our patient subsequently was tested for these antibodies, and the results were negative.

Primary sclerosing cholangitis usually affects the extrahepatic biliary system. Thus, if it is present, abnormalities should be seen on imaging.

As mentioned previously, no dilated intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary ducts were seen on ultrasonography in our patient. Moreover, primary sclerosing cholangitis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis, which our patient did not have.

Drug-induced liver injury

Drug-induced liver injury is a common cause of cholestatic liver disease. However, our patient was not taking any prescribed, over-the-counter, or herbal medications. Additionally, he denied heavy alcohol use.

Infiltrative disorders

Infiltrative disorders such as amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, or lymphoma should be considered in the differential diagnosis of cholestatic liver disease. A clue to a possible infiltrative process is a markedly elevated level of alkaline phosphatase with a mildly increased serum bilirubin concentration, both of which our patient had.

 

 

AFTER ULTRASONOGRAPHY, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP?

2. Which of the following is the next most appropriate diagnostic test for our patient?

  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
  • Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
  • Liver biopsy
  • CT of the abdomen

Figure 1 shows a proposed algorithm for evaluating increased alkaline phosphatase levels.

If there is no biliary duct dilation on ultrasonography, then abnormal levels of alkaline phosphatase most likely represent an intrahepatic pattern of cholestatic liver injury. Therefore, additional imaging with CT or magnetic resonance imaging is of limited diagnostic value. ERCP is used today for therapy rather than diagnosis, so its use is limited to patients known to have dilated biliary ducts on imaging. Liver biopsy, however, can provide useful findings.

Case continued: He undergoes biopsy

Our patient underwent transjugular liver biopsy. During the procedure, transjugular venography showed stenosis in the right, middle, and left hepatic veins and the hepatic portion of the inferior vena cava, consistent with Budd-Chiari syndrome.

The liver biopsy specimen was positive for extensive deposition of slight eosinophilic and amorphous material in a sinusoidal pattern in the liver parenchyma, as well as in the portal tracts, with markedly atrophic hepatocytes. Congo red birefringence confirmed the diagnosis of amyloidosis. The immunohistochemical phenotype was positive for kappa light chains, which is diagnostic for primary-type amyloidosis, also called amyloidosis of light chain composition, or AL.

Bone marrow aspiration and bone marrow biopsy were performed and showed 22% plasma cells, well above the normal range (0–2%), consistent with the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.

BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME: A CHALLENGING DIAGNOSIS

Budd-Chiari syndrome is a rare condition characterized by obstruction of venous outflow from the liver at a site that may vary from the small hepatic veins up to the inferior vena cava or even the right atrium.5,6 Obstruction of hepatic venous outflow leads to sinusoidal congestion and hypoxic damage of the hepatocytes.7 Hypoxia and necrosis of the hepatocytes result in the release of free radicals. Cirrhosis can eventually occur secondary to ischemic necrosis of hepatocytes and hepatic fibrosis.8

The estimated incidence of this syndrome is 1 in 2.5 million persons per year.7 It is more prevalent in women and young adults.8

Heterogeneous in its causes and manifestations

In about 75% of patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome, a hereditary or acquired hematologic abnormality or thrombotic diathesis can be found.8–10 Some of the major causes are summarized in Table 3. The most common causes are hematologic diseases, especially myeloproliferative disorders.7,8,11

Budd-Chiari syndrome is also heterogeneous in its manifestations, which depend on the extent of the occlusion, on the acuteness of the obstruction, and on whether venous collateral circulation has developed to decompress the liver sinusoids.9,12,13 Therefore, on the basis of its clinical manifestations, it can be classified as fulminant, acute, subacute, or chronic.12–16

The fulminant form presents with hepatic encephalopathy within 8 weeks after the development of jaundice. The subacute form, which is the most common, has a more insidious onset in which hepatic sinusoids are decompressed by portal and hepatic venous collateral circulation. The patient usually presents with abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly, nausea, vomiting, and mild jaundice. Finally the chronic form presents as complications of cirrhosis.12–16

Imaging plays an important role in diagnosing Budd-Chiari syndrome

Imaging plays an important role in detecting and classifying Budd-Chiari syndrome.

Duplex ultrasonography is useful for detecting this syndrome and has a sensitivity and specificity of 85%.9

CT and magnetic resonance imaging can also help in the diagnosis by showing thrombosis, obstruction, or occlusion in the hepatic vein or the inferior vena cava.5

Venography is the gold standard for diagnosis. However, it should be performed only if noninvasive tests are negative or nondiagnostic and there is a high clinical suspicion of this disease.17 Budd-Chiari syndrome has a characteristic pattern on venography known as “spider web,” which is due to the formation of venous collaterals to bypass the occluded hepatic veins.9

Liver biopsy is not necessarily required to confirm the diagnosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome, but it can help in diagnosing the acute or subacute forms and also in ruling out other causes. Histologic findings can include centrizonal congestion, loss of hepatocytes, hemorrhage, and fibrosis.18,19 Regenerative nodules are found in about 25% of patients.19

 

 

TREATING BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME

The primary goal of treatment is to prevent further extension of the venous thrombosis in the hepatic veins, in their collaterals, and in the intrahepatic and extrahepatic portal venous system. Resolution of hepatic congestion improves liver perfusion and preserves function of the hepatocytes.

Anticoagulation is recommended in the early stages. Heparin therapy should be initiated and subsequently switched to warfarin with the goal of achieving an international normalized ratio of the prothrombin time of 2.0 to 2.5.8,9,19

Thrombolysis is effective in the acute form.20,21 Recanalization, including percutaneous or transhepatic angioplasty of localized segments of the narrowed hepatic veins or inferior vena cava, has long-term patency rates of 80% to 90%.22

If thrombolytic therapy and angioplasty are unsuccessful, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt or a surgical procedure (side-to-side portocaval shunt, central splenorenal shunt, or mesocaval shunt) should be considered.9

Liver transplantation is another treatment option in those with fulminant Budd-Chiari syndrome or advanced liver cirrhosis.8

PROGNOSIS HAS IMPROVED

The prognosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome has improved, thanks to both earlier diagnosis and new treatments. The 1-year survival rate, which was about 60% before 1985, has increased to more than 80% in recent cohort studies.19

Studies have shown that the Child-Pugh score, which is based on a combination of serum albumin, bilirubin, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites, can be considered as an independent prognostic factor. A lower Child-Pugh score and a younger age are associated with a good prognosis.19,23,24 (The Child-Pugh score cannot be applied to our patient because he does not have cirrhosis.)

What happened to our patient?

Our patient was started on anticoagulation for his Budd-Chiari syndrome and on bortezomib (Velcade) and dexamethasone for his multiple myeloma. He achieved remarkable improvement in his liver function tests. Follow-up duplex ultrasonography 1 month after discharge revealed that the stenosis in the hepatic veins had resolved. He is following up with the oncology clinic for management of his multiple myeloma.

References
  1. Folwaczny C. Efficient diagnostics for elevated transaminases. [Article in German] MMW Fortschr Med 2007; 149:4448.
  2. Moussavian SN, Becker RC, Piepmeyer JL, Mezey E, Bozian RC. Serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase and chronic alcoholism. Influence of alcohol ingestion and liver disease. Dig Dis Sci 1985; 30:211214.
  3. Aragon G, Younossi ZM. When and how to evaluate mildly elevated liver enzymes in apparently healthy patients. Cleve Clin J Med 2010; 77:195204.
  4. Lepper PM, Dufour JF. Elevated transaminases—what to do if everything was done?. [Article in German] Praxis (Bern 1994) 2009; 98:330334.
  5. Buzas C, Sparchez Z, Cucuianu A, Manole S, Lupescu I, Acalovschi M. Budd-Chiari syndrome secondary to polycythemia vera. A case report. J Gastrointestin Liver Dis 2009; 18:363366.
  6. Valla DC. Primary Budd-Chiari syndrome. J Hepatol 2009; 50:195203.
  7. Rautou PE, Moucari R, Cazals-Hatem D, et al. Levels and initial course of serum alanine aminotransferase can predict outcome of patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2009; 7:12301235.
  8. Cura M, Haskal Z, Lopera J. Diagnostic and interventional radiology for Budd-Chiari syndrome. Radiographics 2009; 29:669681.
  9. Menon KV, Shah V, Kamath PS. The Budd-Chiari syndrome. N Engl J Med 2004; 350:578585.
  10. Darwish Murad S, Plessier A, Hernandez-Guerra M, et al; EN-Vie (European Network for Vascular Disorders of the Liver). Etiology, management, and outcome of the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Intern Med 2009; 151:167175.
  11. Valla D, Le MG, Poynard T, Zucman N, Rueff B, Benhamou JP. Risk of hepatic vein thrombosis in relation to recent use of oral contraceptives. A case-control study. Gastroenterology 1986; 90:807811.
  12. Bismuth H, Sherlock DJ. Portasystemic shunting versus liver transplantation for the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Surg 1991; 214:581589.
  13. Orloff MJ, Daily PO, Orloff SL, Girard B, Orloff MS. A 27-year experience with surgical treatment of Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Surg 2000; 232:340352.
  14. Dilawari JB, Bambery P, Chawla Y, et al. Hepatic outflow obstruction (Budd-Chiari syndrome). Experience with 177 patients and a review of the literature. Medicine (Baltimore) 1994; 73:2136.
  15. Mahmoud AE, Mendoza A, Meshikhes AN, et al. Clinical spectrum, investigations and treatment of Budd-Chiari syndrome. QJM 1996; 89:3743.
  16. Klein AS, Cameron JL. Diagnosis and management of the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Am J Surg 1990; 160:128133.
  17. Plessier A, Valla DC. Budd-Chiari syndrome. Semin Liver Dis 2008; 28:259269.
  18. Cazals-Hatem D, Vilgrain V, Genin P, et al. Arterial and portal circulation and parenchymal changes in Budd-Chiari syndrome: a study in 17 explanted livers. Hepatology 2003; 37:510519.
  19. Hoekstra J, Janssen HL. Vascular liver disorders (I): diagnosis, treatment and prognosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome. Neth J Med 2008; 66:334359.
  20. Frank JW, Kamath PS, Stanson AW. Budd-Chiari syndrome: early intervention with angioplasty and thrombolytic therapy. Mayo Clin Proc 1994; 69:877881.
  21. Raju GS, Felver M, Olin JW, Satti SD. Thrombolysis for acute Budd-Chiari syndrome: case report and literature review. Am J Gastroenterol 1996; 91:12621263.
  22. Fisher NC, McCafferty I, Dolapci M, et al. Managing Budd-Chiari syndrome: a retrospective review of percutaneous hepatic vein angioplasty and surgical shunting. Gut 1999; 44:568574.
  23. Zeitoun G, Escolano S, Hadengue A, et al. Outcome of Budd-Chiari syndrome: a multivariate analysis of factors related to survival including surgical portosystemic shunting. Hepatology 1999; 30:8489.
  24. Darwish Murad S, Valla DC, de Groen PC, et al. Determinants of survival and the effect of portosystemic shunting in patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome. Hepatology 2004; 39:500508.
References
  1. Folwaczny C. Efficient diagnostics for elevated transaminases. [Article in German] MMW Fortschr Med 2007; 149:4448.
  2. Moussavian SN, Becker RC, Piepmeyer JL, Mezey E, Bozian RC. Serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase and chronic alcoholism. Influence of alcohol ingestion and liver disease. Dig Dis Sci 1985; 30:211214.
  3. Aragon G, Younossi ZM. When and how to evaluate mildly elevated liver enzymes in apparently healthy patients. Cleve Clin J Med 2010; 77:195204.
  4. Lepper PM, Dufour JF. Elevated transaminases—what to do if everything was done?. [Article in German] Praxis (Bern 1994) 2009; 98:330334.
  5. Buzas C, Sparchez Z, Cucuianu A, Manole S, Lupescu I, Acalovschi M. Budd-Chiari syndrome secondary to polycythemia vera. A case report. J Gastrointestin Liver Dis 2009; 18:363366.
  6. Valla DC. Primary Budd-Chiari syndrome. J Hepatol 2009; 50:195203.
  7. Rautou PE, Moucari R, Cazals-Hatem D, et al. Levels and initial course of serum alanine aminotransferase can predict outcome of patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2009; 7:12301235.
  8. Cura M, Haskal Z, Lopera J. Diagnostic and interventional radiology for Budd-Chiari syndrome. Radiographics 2009; 29:669681.
  9. Menon KV, Shah V, Kamath PS. The Budd-Chiari syndrome. N Engl J Med 2004; 350:578585.
  10. Darwish Murad S, Plessier A, Hernandez-Guerra M, et al; EN-Vie (European Network for Vascular Disorders of the Liver). Etiology, management, and outcome of the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Intern Med 2009; 151:167175.
  11. Valla D, Le MG, Poynard T, Zucman N, Rueff B, Benhamou JP. Risk of hepatic vein thrombosis in relation to recent use of oral contraceptives. A case-control study. Gastroenterology 1986; 90:807811.
  12. Bismuth H, Sherlock DJ. Portasystemic shunting versus liver transplantation for the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Surg 1991; 214:581589.
  13. Orloff MJ, Daily PO, Orloff SL, Girard B, Orloff MS. A 27-year experience with surgical treatment of Budd-Chiari syndrome. Ann Surg 2000; 232:340352.
  14. Dilawari JB, Bambery P, Chawla Y, et al. Hepatic outflow obstruction (Budd-Chiari syndrome). Experience with 177 patients and a review of the literature. Medicine (Baltimore) 1994; 73:2136.
  15. Mahmoud AE, Mendoza A, Meshikhes AN, et al. Clinical spectrum, investigations and treatment of Budd-Chiari syndrome. QJM 1996; 89:3743.
  16. Klein AS, Cameron JL. Diagnosis and management of the Budd-Chiari syndrome. Am J Surg 1990; 160:128133.
  17. Plessier A, Valla DC. Budd-Chiari syndrome. Semin Liver Dis 2008; 28:259269.
  18. Cazals-Hatem D, Vilgrain V, Genin P, et al. Arterial and portal circulation and parenchymal changes in Budd-Chiari syndrome: a study in 17 explanted livers. Hepatology 2003; 37:510519.
  19. Hoekstra J, Janssen HL. Vascular liver disorders (I): diagnosis, treatment and prognosis of Budd-Chiari syndrome. Neth J Med 2008; 66:334359.
  20. Frank JW, Kamath PS, Stanson AW. Budd-Chiari syndrome: early intervention with angioplasty and thrombolytic therapy. Mayo Clin Proc 1994; 69:877881.
  21. Raju GS, Felver M, Olin JW, Satti SD. Thrombolysis for acute Budd-Chiari syndrome: case report and literature review. Am J Gastroenterol 1996; 91:12621263.
  22. Fisher NC, McCafferty I, Dolapci M, et al. Managing Budd-Chiari syndrome: a retrospective review of percutaneous hepatic vein angioplasty and surgical shunting. Gut 1999; 44:568574.
  23. Zeitoun G, Escolano S, Hadengue A, et al. Outcome of Budd-Chiari syndrome: a multivariate analysis of factors related to survival including surgical portosystemic shunting. Hepatology 1999; 30:8489.
  24. Darwish Murad S, Valla DC, de Groen PC, et al. Determinants of survival and the effect of portosystemic shunting in patients with Budd-Chiari syndrome. Hepatology 2004; 39:500508.
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The negative U wave in the setting of demand ischemia

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The negative U wave in the setting of demand ischemia

To the Editor: We thank Drs. Venkatachalam and Rimmerman1 for their Clinical Picture article, “Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: It’s in the details,” in the August 2011 issue. This was very interesting, as usual for the Cleveland Clinic Journal of Medicine.

The maxim that “a negative U wave is never normal,” first noted about 50 years ago, still holds true. However, the authors’ statement on page 506—ie, that a negative U wave indicates structural heart disease—is too restrictive, since ischemia is not always due to a structural problem. Functional ischemia from excess demand, such as from tachycardia, sepsis, or gastrointestinal bleeding, can also cause negative U waves.2,3 The broader comment in the “sidebar” on page 505 could be considered to include demand ischemia, but for clarity, it would be helpful to state this explicitly.

References
  1. Venkatachalam S, Rimmerman CM. Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: It’s in the details. Cleve Clin J Med 2011; 78:505506.
  2. Sovari AA, Farokhi F, Kocheril AG. Inverted U wave, a specific electrocardiographic sign of cardiac ischemia. Am J Emerg Med 2007; 25:235237.
  3. Correale E, Battista R, Ricciardiello V, Martone A. The negative U wave: a pathogenetic enigma but a useful, often overlooked bedside diagnostic and prognostic clue in ischemic heart disease. Clin Cardiol 2004; 27:674677.
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Wisit Chenungpasitporn, MD
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Edward F. Bischof, MD
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Herbert Marx, MD
Bassett Medical Center, Cooperstown, NY

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Edward F. Bischof, MD
Bassett Medical Center, Cooperstown, NY

Herbert Marx, MD
Bassett Medical Center, Cooperstown, NY

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To the Editor: We thank Drs. Venkatachalam and Rimmerman1 for their Clinical Picture article, “Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: It’s in the details,” in the August 2011 issue. This was very interesting, as usual for the Cleveland Clinic Journal of Medicine.

The maxim that “a negative U wave is never normal,” first noted about 50 years ago, still holds true. However, the authors’ statement on page 506—ie, that a negative U wave indicates structural heart disease—is too restrictive, since ischemia is not always due to a structural problem. Functional ischemia from excess demand, such as from tachycardia, sepsis, or gastrointestinal bleeding, can also cause negative U waves.2,3 The broader comment in the “sidebar” on page 505 could be considered to include demand ischemia, but for clarity, it would be helpful to state this explicitly.

To the Editor: We thank Drs. Venkatachalam and Rimmerman1 for their Clinical Picture article, “Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: It’s in the details,” in the August 2011 issue. This was very interesting, as usual for the Cleveland Clinic Journal of Medicine.

The maxim that “a negative U wave is never normal,” first noted about 50 years ago, still holds true. However, the authors’ statement on page 506—ie, that a negative U wave indicates structural heart disease—is too restrictive, since ischemia is not always due to a structural problem. Functional ischemia from excess demand, such as from tachycardia, sepsis, or gastrointestinal bleeding, can also cause negative U waves.2,3 The broader comment in the “sidebar” on page 505 could be considered to include demand ischemia, but for clarity, it would be helpful to state this explicitly.

References
  1. Venkatachalam S, Rimmerman CM. Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: It’s in the details. Cleve Clin J Med 2011; 78:505506.
  2. Sovari AA, Farokhi F, Kocheril AG. Inverted U wave, a specific electrocardiographic sign of cardiac ischemia. Am J Emerg Med 2007; 25:235237.
  3. Correale E, Battista R, Ricciardiello V, Martone A. The negative U wave: a pathogenetic enigma but a useful, often overlooked bedside diagnostic and prognostic clue in ischemic heart disease. Clin Cardiol 2004; 27:674677.
References
  1. Venkatachalam S, Rimmerman CM. Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: It’s in the details. Cleve Clin J Med 2011; 78:505506.
  2. Sovari AA, Farokhi F, Kocheril AG. Inverted U wave, a specific electrocardiographic sign of cardiac ischemia. Am J Emerg Med 2007; 25:235237.
  3. Correale E, Battista R, Ricciardiello V, Martone A. The negative U wave: a pathogenetic enigma but a useful, often overlooked bedside diagnostic and prognostic clue in ischemic heart disease. Clin Cardiol 2004; 27:674677.
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In reply: The negative U wave in the setting of demand ischemia

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In Reply: We appreciate the comments from Drs. Suksaranjit, Cheungpasitporn, Bischof, and Marx on our recent article on the negative U wave in a patient with chronic aortic regurgitation.1 The clinical data including electrocardiography, echocardiography, and coronary angiography were presented to emphasize the importance of identifying the negative U wave in the setting of valvular heart disease. We outlined the common differential diagnosis for a negative U wave (page 506). We believe that in the appropriate clinical setting the presence of a negative U wave provides diagnostic utility.

Several published reports to date have described the occurrence of the negative U wave in the setting of obstructive coronary artery disease2–5 or coronary artery vasospasm.6 We were unable to find similar data in the setting of demand ischemia in the presence of normal coronary arteries (functional ischemia), but we fully recognize its likely occurrence, and we value the helpful insight.

References
  1. Venkatachalam S, Rimmerman CM. Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: it’s in the details. Cleve Clin J Med 2011; 78:505–506.
  2. Gerson MC, Phillips JF, Morris SN, McHenry PL. Exercise-induced U-wave inversion as a marker of stenosis of the left anterior descending coronary artery. Circulation 1979; 60:1014–1020.
  3. Galli M, Temporelli P. Images in clinical medicine. Negative U waves as an indicator of stress-induced myocardial ischemia. N Engl J Med 1994; 330:1791.
  4. Miwa K, Nakagawa K, Hirai T, Inoue H. Exercise-induced U-wave alterations as a marker of well-developed and well-functioning collateral vessels in patients with effort angina. J Am Coll Cardiol 2000; 35:757–763.
  5. Rimmerman CM. A 62-year-old man with an abnormal electrocardiogram. Cleve Clin J Med 2001; 68:975–976.
  6. Kodama-Takahashi K, Ohshima K, Yamamoto K, et al. Occurrence of transient U-wave inversion during vasospastic anginal attack is not related to the direction of concurrent ST-segment shift. Chest 2002; 122:535–541.
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Curtis M. Rimmerman, MD, MBA
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In Reply: We appreciate the comments from Drs. Suksaranjit, Cheungpasitporn, Bischof, and Marx on our recent article on the negative U wave in a patient with chronic aortic regurgitation.1 The clinical data including electrocardiography, echocardiography, and coronary angiography were presented to emphasize the importance of identifying the negative U wave in the setting of valvular heart disease. We outlined the common differential diagnosis for a negative U wave (page 506). We believe that in the appropriate clinical setting the presence of a negative U wave provides diagnostic utility.

Several published reports to date have described the occurrence of the negative U wave in the setting of obstructive coronary artery disease2–5 or coronary artery vasospasm.6 We were unable to find similar data in the setting of demand ischemia in the presence of normal coronary arteries (functional ischemia), but we fully recognize its likely occurrence, and we value the helpful insight.

In Reply: We appreciate the comments from Drs. Suksaranjit, Cheungpasitporn, Bischof, and Marx on our recent article on the negative U wave in a patient with chronic aortic regurgitation.1 The clinical data including electrocardiography, echocardiography, and coronary angiography were presented to emphasize the importance of identifying the negative U wave in the setting of valvular heart disease. We outlined the common differential diagnosis for a negative U wave (page 506). We believe that in the appropriate clinical setting the presence of a negative U wave provides diagnostic utility.

Several published reports to date have described the occurrence of the negative U wave in the setting of obstructive coronary artery disease2–5 or coronary artery vasospasm.6 We were unable to find similar data in the setting of demand ischemia in the presence of normal coronary arteries (functional ischemia), but we fully recognize its likely occurrence, and we value the helpful insight.

References
  1. Venkatachalam S, Rimmerman CM. Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: it’s in the details. Cleve Clin J Med 2011; 78:505–506.
  2. Gerson MC, Phillips JF, Morris SN, McHenry PL. Exercise-induced U-wave inversion as a marker of stenosis of the left anterior descending coronary artery. Circulation 1979; 60:1014–1020.
  3. Galli M, Temporelli P. Images in clinical medicine. Negative U waves as an indicator of stress-induced myocardial ischemia. N Engl J Med 1994; 330:1791.
  4. Miwa K, Nakagawa K, Hirai T, Inoue H. Exercise-induced U-wave alterations as a marker of well-developed and well-functioning collateral vessels in patients with effort angina. J Am Coll Cardiol 2000; 35:757–763.
  5. Rimmerman CM. A 62-year-old man with an abnormal electrocardiogram. Cleve Clin J Med 2001; 68:975–976.
  6. Kodama-Takahashi K, Ohshima K, Yamamoto K, et al. Occurrence of transient U-wave inversion during vasospastic anginal attack is not related to the direction of concurrent ST-segment shift. Chest 2002; 122:535–541.
References
  1. Venkatachalam S, Rimmerman CM. Electrocardiography in aortic regurgitation: it’s in the details. Cleve Clin J Med 2011; 78:505–506.
  2. Gerson MC, Phillips JF, Morris SN, McHenry PL. Exercise-induced U-wave inversion as a marker of stenosis of the left anterior descending coronary artery. Circulation 1979; 60:1014–1020.
  3. Galli M, Temporelli P. Images in clinical medicine. Negative U waves as an indicator of stress-induced myocardial ischemia. N Engl J Med 1994; 330:1791.
  4. Miwa K, Nakagawa K, Hirai T, Inoue H. Exercise-induced U-wave alterations as a marker of well-developed and well-functioning collateral vessels in patients with effort angina. J Am Coll Cardiol 2000; 35:757–763.
  5. Rimmerman CM. A 62-year-old man with an abnormal electrocardiogram. Cleve Clin J Med 2001; 68:975–976.
  6. Kodama-Takahashi K, Ohshima K, Yamamoto K, et al. Occurrence of transient U-wave inversion during vasospastic anginal attack is not related to the direction of concurrent ST-segment shift. Chest 2002; 122:535–541.
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