Imaging

CHICAGO – New U.S. cholesterol guidelines spell out the role for ezetimibe and PCSK9 inhibitors, expand the scope of individualized risk assessment, and cite the potential value of a coronary artery calcium score as an additional risk determinant.

Neil J. Stone MD, vice chair of the of the 2018 Cholesterol Guidelines Committee, sat down for an interview and detailed the research behind the guidelines and how new features can help guide treatment decisions for patients at risk for a cardiovascular event.

[email protected]

CHICAGO – New U.S. cholesterol guidelines spell out the role for ezetimibe and PCSK9 inhibitors, expand the scope of individualized risk assessment, and cite the potential value of a coronary artery calcium score as an additional risk determinant.

Neil J. Stone MD, vice chair of the of the 2018 Cholesterol Guidelines Committee, sat down for an interview and detailed the research behind the guidelines and how new features can help guide treatment decisions for patients at risk for a cardiovascular event.

[email protected]

CHICAGO – New U.S. cholesterol guidelines spell out the role for ezetimibe and PCSK9 inhibitors, expand the scope of individualized risk assessment, and cite the potential value of a coronary artery calcium score as an additional risk determinant.

Neil J. Stone MD, vice chair of the of the 2018 Cholesterol Guidelines Committee, sat down for an interview and detailed the research behind the guidelines and how new features can help guide treatment decisions for patients at risk for a cardiovascular event.

[email protected]

SAN DIEGO – Point-of-care ultrasound should be the go-to approach for the routine assessment of suspected shoulder dislocations in the ED, based on data from a prospective, multicenter study presented at the annual meeting of the American College of Emergency Physicians.

In the observational study, the average time needed to diagnose shoulder dislocation using ultrasound was 18 seconds, far faster than time from triage to x-ray, according to Michael Secko, MD, director of the emergency ultrasound division at Stony Brook University (NY).

The results from this study, called MUDDS (Musculoskeletal Ultrasound to Diagnose Dislocated Shoulders), support point-of-care ultrasound as a faster and more readily performed alternative to x-ray. Of the 46 adult patients enrolled so far in the ongoing study, ultrasound’s sensitivity has been 96% and its specificity 100% when validated by x-ray findings.

In the study, adults presenting to the ED are evaluated with point-of-care ultrasound from a posterior approach using either a curvilinear or linear transducer in the transverse plane. About half of the patients enrolled so far had injuries caused by falls, and many of the others had a shoulder complaint related to being pulled. Slightly more than one-third had a previous shoulder dislocation.

When evaluated with point-of-care ultrasound and x-ray, 23 of the 42 evaluable patients had a dislocation. The time from triage to ultrasound evaluation averaged 60 minutes, 40 minutes faster than the average of 100 minutes from triage to x-ray. Both tests were ordered at the same time.

Ultrasound performed less well for the diagnosis of a fracture, with a sensitivity of only 53%. Dr. Secko said the anterior approach would not be expected to provide a comprehensive assessment for fracture. He noted, for example, that there was no attempt in this study to evaluate patients for the presence of Bankart lesions. However, in those found to have a fracture on point-of-care ultrasound, the specificity of this imaging tool was 96%.

Ultimately, a major goal of this study was to determine whether a posterior point-of-care ultrasound could provide a quick answer to the question, “is it in or out?” Although patients are still being enrolled, Dr. Secko believed there is already good evidence that ultrasound is fast and effective for diagnosing dislocations.

Others have addressed this same question. Citing a meta-analysis published last year, Dr. Secko reported that all but one of four studies evaluating ultrasound for shoulder dislocations found a sensitivity and specificity of 100% (Gottlieb M et al. West J Emerg Med. 2017 Aug;18[5]:937-942).

Many centers have already switched to ultrasound for the evaluation of shoulder dislocations, according to Andrew S. Liteplo, MD, who moderated the ACEP session in which Dr. Secko presented his data. “If you are not already doing this for suspected shoulder dislocation, start right away because it is easy and awesome,” said Dr. Liteplo, who is chief of the division of ultrasound in emergency medicine at Massachusetts General Hospital, Boston. He also advised that ultrasound can also can be performed after reduction to confirm the efficacy of treatment.

Dr. Secko reported no financial relationships relevant to this study.
 

SAN DIEGO – Point-of-care ultrasound should be the go-to approach for the routine assessment of suspected shoulder dislocations in the ED, based on data from a prospective, multicenter study presented at the annual meeting of the American College of Emergency Physicians.

In the observational study, the average time needed to diagnose shoulder dislocation using ultrasound was 18 seconds, far faster than time from triage to x-ray, according to Michael Secko, MD, director of the emergency ultrasound division at Stony Brook University (NY).

The results from this study, called MUDDS (Musculoskeletal Ultrasound to Diagnose Dislocated Shoulders), support point-of-care ultrasound as a faster and more readily performed alternative to x-ray. Of the 46 adult patients enrolled so far in the ongoing study, ultrasound’s sensitivity has been 96% and its specificity 100% when validated by x-ray findings.

In the study, adults presenting to the ED are evaluated with point-of-care ultrasound from a posterior approach using either a curvilinear or linear transducer in the transverse plane. About half of the patients enrolled so far had injuries caused by falls, and many of the others had a shoulder complaint related to being pulled. Slightly more than one-third had a previous shoulder dislocation.

When evaluated with point-of-care ultrasound and x-ray, 23 of the 42 evaluable patients had a dislocation. The time from triage to ultrasound evaluation averaged 60 minutes, 40 minutes faster than the average of 100 minutes from triage to x-ray. Both tests were ordered at the same time.

Ultrasound performed less well for the diagnosis of a fracture, with a sensitivity of only 53%. Dr. Secko said the anterior approach would not be expected to provide a comprehensive assessment for fracture. He noted, for example, that there was no attempt in this study to evaluate patients for the presence of Bankart lesions. However, in those found to have a fracture on point-of-care ultrasound, the specificity of this imaging tool was 96%.

Ultimately, a major goal of this study was to determine whether a posterior point-of-care ultrasound could provide a quick answer to the question, “is it in or out?” Although patients are still being enrolled, Dr. Secko believed there is already good evidence that ultrasound is fast and effective for diagnosing dislocations.

Others have addressed this same question. Citing a meta-analysis published last year, Dr. Secko reported that all but one of four studies evaluating ultrasound for shoulder dislocations found a sensitivity and specificity of 100% (Gottlieb M et al. West J Emerg Med. 2017 Aug;18[5]:937-942).

Many centers have already switched to ultrasound for the evaluation of shoulder dislocations, according to Andrew S. Liteplo, MD, who moderated the ACEP session in which Dr. Secko presented his data. “If you are not already doing this for suspected shoulder dislocation, start right away because it is easy and awesome,” said Dr. Liteplo, who is chief of the division of ultrasound in emergency medicine at Massachusetts General Hospital, Boston. He also advised that ultrasound can also can be performed after reduction to confirm the efficacy of treatment.

Dr. Secko reported no financial relationships relevant to this study.
 

SAN DIEGO – Point-of-care ultrasound should be the go-to approach for the routine assessment of suspected shoulder dislocations in the ED, based on data from a prospective, multicenter study presented at the annual meeting of the American College of Emergency Physicians.

In the observational study, the average time needed to diagnose shoulder dislocation using ultrasound was 18 seconds, far faster than time from triage to x-ray, according to Michael Secko, MD, director of the emergency ultrasound division at Stony Brook University (NY).

The results from this study, called MUDDS (Musculoskeletal Ultrasound to Diagnose Dislocated Shoulders), support point-of-care ultrasound as a faster and more readily performed alternative to x-ray. Of the 46 adult patients enrolled so far in the ongoing study, ultrasound’s sensitivity has been 96% and its specificity 100% when validated by x-ray findings.

In the study, adults presenting to the ED are evaluated with point-of-care ultrasound from a posterior approach using either a curvilinear or linear transducer in the transverse plane. About half of the patients enrolled so far had injuries caused by falls, and many of the others had a shoulder complaint related to being pulled. Slightly more than one-third had a previous shoulder dislocation.

When evaluated with point-of-care ultrasound and x-ray, 23 of the 42 evaluable patients had a dislocation. The time from triage to ultrasound evaluation averaged 60 minutes, 40 minutes faster than the average of 100 minutes from triage to x-ray. Both tests were ordered at the same time.

Ultrasound performed less well for the diagnosis of a fracture, with a sensitivity of only 53%. Dr. Secko said the anterior approach would not be expected to provide a comprehensive assessment for fracture. He noted, for example, that there was no attempt in this study to evaluate patients for the presence of Bankart lesions. However, in those found to have a fracture on point-of-care ultrasound, the specificity of this imaging tool was 96%.

Ultimately, a major goal of this study was to determine whether a posterior point-of-care ultrasound could provide a quick answer to the question, “is it in or out?” Although patients are still being enrolled, Dr. Secko believed there is already good evidence that ultrasound is fast and effective for diagnosing dislocations.

Others have addressed this same question. Citing a meta-analysis published last year, Dr. Secko reported that all but one of four studies evaluating ultrasound for shoulder dislocations found a sensitivity and specificity of 100% (Gottlieb M et al. West J Emerg Med. 2017 Aug;18[5]:937-942).

Many centers have already switched to ultrasound for the evaluation of shoulder dislocations, according to Andrew S. Liteplo, MD, who moderated the ACEP session in which Dr. Secko presented his data. “If you are not already doing this for suspected shoulder dislocation, start right away because it is easy and awesome,” said Dr. Liteplo, who is chief of the division of ultrasound in emergency medicine at Massachusetts General Hospital, Boston. He also advised that ultrasound can also can be performed after reduction to confirm the efficacy of treatment.

Dr. Secko reported no financial relationships relevant to this study.
 

The National Institutes of Health’s Brain Research through Advancing Innovative Neurotechnologies (BRAIN) Initiative will finish 2018 with its largest round of grant funding ever, giving $220 million to more than 200 research awards, and bringing this year’s total to more than $400 million, according to an announcement from the agency.

The BRAIN Initiative began in 2013 with the objective of revolutionizing our understanding of the human brain by accelerating the development and application of innovative technologies that will allow researchers to show how individual cells and complex neural circuits interact in both time and space and thereby seek new ways to treat, cure, and prevent brain disorders.

In the current round of funding that was authorized by Congress through the regular appropriations process and the 21st Century Cures Act, new projects include the creation of a wireless optical tomography cap for scanning human brain activity; the development of a noninvasive brain-computer interface system for improving the lives of paralysis patients; and the testing of noninvasive brain stimulation devices for treating schizophrenia, attention deficit disorders, and other brain diseases; the development of self-growing biological electrodes for recording brain activity; and the creation of an indestructible hydrogel system to help map neural circuits, according to the announcement.

Not all of the research involves technological advancement. In fact, one line of funding involves neuroethics. For instance, for epilepsy syndromes in the latest round of funding for 2018, researchers aim to explore ethical issues confronting families and clinicians when considering new treatment options for drug-resistant epilepsy in children.

The NIH is also leveraging some of the BRAIN Initiative funding toward finding new, nonaddictive pain treatments as part of the its HEAL (Helping to End Addiction Long-term) Initiative, such as support for research on the fundamental neurobiology of endogenous opioid systems.

[email protected]

The National Institutes of Health’s Brain Research through Advancing Innovative Neurotechnologies (BRAIN) Initiative will finish 2018 with its largest round of grant funding ever, giving $220 million to more than 200 research awards, and bringing this year’s total to more than $400 million, according to an announcement from the agency.

The BRAIN Initiative began in 2013 with the objective of revolutionizing our understanding of the human brain by accelerating the development and application of innovative technologies that will allow researchers to show how individual cells and complex neural circuits interact in both time and space and thereby seek new ways to treat, cure, and prevent brain disorders.

In the current round of funding that was authorized by Congress through the regular appropriations process and the 21st Century Cures Act, new projects include the creation of a wireless optical tomography cap for scanning human brain activity; the development of a noninvasive brain-computer interface system for improving the lives of paralysis patients; and the testing of noninvasive brain stimulation devices for treating schizophrenia, attention deficit disorders, and other brain diseases; the development of self-growing biological electrodes for recording brain activity; and the creation of an indestructible hydrogel system to help map neural circuits, according to the announcement.

Not all of the research involves technological advancement. In fact, one line of funding involves neuroethics. For instance, for epilepsy syndromes in the latest round of funding for 2018, researchers aim to explore ethical issues confronting families and clinicians when considering new treatment options for drug-resistant epilepsy in children.

The NIH is also leveraging some of the BRAIN Initiative funding toward finding new, nonaddictive pain treatments as part of the its HEAL (Helping to End Addiction Long-term) Initiative, such as support for research on the fundamental neurobiology of endogenous opioid systems.

[email protected]

The National Institutes of Health’s Brain Research through Advancing Innovative Neurotechnologies (BRAIN) Initiative will finish 2018 with its largest round of grant funding ever, giving $220 million to more than 200 research awards, and bringing this year’s total to more than $400 million, according to an announcement from the agency.

The BRAIN Initiative began in 2013 with the objective of revolutionizing our understanding of the human brain by accelerating the development and application of innovative technologies that will allow researchers to show how individual cells and complex neural circuits interact in both time and space and thereby seek new ways to treat, cure, and prevent brain disorders.

In the current round of funding that was authorized by Congress through the regular appropriations process and the 21st Century Cures Act, new projects include the creation of a wireless optical tomography cap for scanning human brain activity; the development of a noninvasive brain-computer interface system for improving the lives of paralysis patients; and the testing of noninvasive brain stimulation devices for treating schizophrenia, attention deficit disorders, and other brain diseases; the development of self-growing biological electrodes for recording brain activity; and the creation of an indestructible hydrogel system to help map neural circuits, according to the announcement.

Not all of the research involves technological advancement. In fact, one line of funding involves neuroethics. For instance, for epilepsy syndromes in the latest round of funding for 2018, researchers aim to explore ethical issues confronting families and clinicians when considering new treatment options for drug-resistant epilepsy in children.

The NIH is also leveraging some of the BRAIN Initiative funding toward finding new, nonaddictive pain treatments as part of the its HEAL (Helping to End Addiction Long-term) Initiative, such as support for research on the fundamental neurobiology of endogenous opioid systems.

[email protected]

Bisphosphonate therapy minimizes bone loss and reduces fracture risk by up to 50% in patients with osteoporosis,¹ but it is also associated with increased risks of osteonecrosis of the jaw and atypical femoral fracture. Although atypical femoral fractures are rare, they can have a devastating effect. Patient concern about this complication has contributed to a decrease in bisphosphonate use by about half in the last decade or so,^2,3 and we fear this could result in an increase in hip fracture rates.

In this article, we examine the evidence on bisphosphonate-associated atypical femoral fractures, including risks, pathogenesis, treatment, and prevention.

ATYPICAL FRACTURES INVOLVE THE FEMORAL SHAFT, NOT THE HEAD

An atypical femoral fracture is a transverse fracture of the femoral shaft (diaphysis), defined by both clinical criteria and radiographic appearance.

To be defined as atypical, a femoral fracture must meet 4 of the following 5 criteria⁴:

• Occurs with minimal or no trauma
• Has a predominantly transverse fracture line, originating at the lateral cortex and sometimes becoming oblique as it progresses medially across the femur
• Extends through both cortices and may be associated with a medial spike (complete fractures); or involves only the lateral cortex (incomplete fractures)
• Is noncomminuted or minimally comminuted
• Shows localized periosteal or endosteal thickening (termed “beaking” or “flaring”) of the lateral cortex at the fracture site.

Several minor features are also important but are not required, eg:

• Cortical thickening of the femoral shaft
• Unilateral or bilateral prodromal pain preceding the fracture
• Bilateral incomplete or complete femoral diaphysis fractures
• Delayed fracture healing.

Atypical femoral fracture can occur anywhere along the shaft, from just distal to the lesser trochanter to just proximal to the supracondylar flare. However, most occur in 2 areas, with 1 cluster centered at about 41 mm from the lesser trochanter (more common in relatively younger patients) and the other at 187 mm.⁵

ABSOLUTE RISK IS LOW BUT INCREASES WITH LONGER USE

Atypical femoral fractures are rare. Schilcher et al⁶ reviewed radiographs of 1,234 women who had a subtrochanteric or shaft fracture and found 59 (4.6%) of fractures were atypical. In a systematic review of 14 studies,⁷ the incidence ranged from 3.0 to 9.8 cases per 100,000 patient-years.

Furthermore, not all atypical femoral fractures are in bisphosphonate users: 7.4% were in nonusers in 1 series⁸ and 22% in another.⁹

Nevertheless, most studies show that bis­phosphonate use increases the incidence of atypical femoral fracture, and the incidence increases with duration of use, especially after 3 years.⁷

An international task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research listed the absolute risk as between 3.2 and 50 cases per 100,000 patient-years, with longer use (> 5 years) increasing the risk to about 100 per 100,000 patient-years.⁴ After stopping bis­phosphonate therapy, the risk diminished by 70% per year.⁹

In another study, for 0.1 to 1.9 years of therapy, the age-adjusted atypical fracture rates were 1.78 per 100,000 per year (95% confidence interval [CI] 1.5–2.0), increasing to 113.1 per 100,000 per year (95% CI 69.3–156.8) with exposure from 8 to 9.9 years.¹⁰

A case-control study found that more than 5 years of bisphosphonate use increased the fracture risk by an odds ratio of 2.74 (95% CI 1.25–6.02).¹¹

The incidence of typical femoral fracture was higher in those who adhered better to their oral bisphosphonate regimen in some studies,¹² but the opposite was true in others.¹³

The benefits of bisphosphonate therapy in reducing fracture risk, however, outweigh the risk of atypical fracture.⁴

We do not know whether the rate of atypical femoral fracture is increasing. A review of Kaiser Permanente Northwest records found that the rates of atypical femoral shaft fracture had remained stable from 1996 to 2009. However, 61.9% of patients who met the strict radiographic criteria had taken oral bisphosphonates.¹⁴ These data suggest that bisphosphonate use has not increased the overall population-based risk for subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures, but that bisphosphonates and other risk factors may have increased the likelihood that such fractures will exhibit atypical radiographic features.

A population-based study in Denmark¹³ found that alendronate use longer than 10 years was associated with an adjusted 30% lower risk of hip fracture and no increase in the risk of subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fracture. In addition, the risk of subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fracture was lower with high adherence to alendronate treatment (based on medication possession ratio > 80%) compared with low adherence (ratio < 50%) (odds ratio 0.88, 95% CI 0.77–0.99). The risk was not increased in current vs past users.

The Danish study¹³ used the coding of the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD-10) to identify subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures without radiologic review for atypical radiographic features. The lack of specific ICD-10 coding for subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures with atypical radiographic features has limited our knowledge of their incidence.

After an atypical femoral fracture, patients have a significant risk of fracture on the contralateral side. In a case-control study, 28% of patients with atypical femoral fracture suffered a contralateral fracture, compared with 0.9% of patients presenting with a typical fracture pattern (odds ratio 42.6, 95% CI 12.8–142.4).¹⁵

Contralateral fracture occurs from 1 month to 4 years after the index atypical femoral fracture.¹⁶

There are reports of bisphosphonate-related low-impact fractures in other sites such as the tibia¹⁷ and forearm.¹⁸ However, they may be too rare to warrant screening.

Mortality rates

A Swedish database study found that patients with atypical femoral fractures, whether bisphosphonate users or nonusers, do not have higher mortality rates than patients with ordinary subtrochanteric or femoral shaft fractures.¹⁹ Furthermore, the mortality rates for those with atypical femoral fracture were similar to rates in the general population. In contrast, patients with an ordinary femoral fracture had a higher mortality risk than the general population.¹⁹

Other studies suggest that atypical femoral fracture may be associated with a less favorable prognosis in older patients,²⁰ but this could be due to differences in demographics, treatment adherence, or postfracture care.²¹

In addition, functional outcomes as measured by independent mobility at discharge and at 3 months were comparable between patients with atypical fracture and those with typical fracture.²²

IMAGING STUDIES

If a long-term bisphosphonate user presents with hip, thigh, or groin pain, imaging studies are recommended.

Plain radiography

Radiography is usually the first step and should include a frontal view of the pelvis (Figure 1) and 2 views of the full length of each femur. If radiography is not conclusive, bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be considered.

A linear cortex transverse fracture pattern and focal lateral cortical thickening are the most sensitive and specific radiographic features.^23,24 Because of the risk of fracture on the contralateral side, radiographic study of that side is recommended as well.

Computed tomography

Computed tomography (CT) is not sensitive for early stress fractures and, given the radiation burden, is not recommended in the workup of atypical fracture.

Bone scanning

Bone scanning using technetium 99m-labeled methylene diphosphonate with a gamma camera shows active bone turnover. Stress fractures and atypical femoral fractures are most easily identified in the third (delayed) phase of the bone scan. Although bone scanning is highly sensitive, the specificity is limited by lack of spatial resolution. Atypical femoral fracture appears as increased activity in the subtrochanteric region with a predilection for the lateral cortex.

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

Conventional dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) extends only to 1 to 2 cm below the lesser trochanter and can therefore miss atypical fractures, which usually occur farther down. The overall detection rate for DXA was 61% in a sample of 33 patients.²⁵

Newer scanners can look at the entire femoral shaft.²⁶ In addition, newer software can quantify focal thickening (beaking) of the lateral cortex and screen patients who have no symptoms. The results of serial measurements can be graphed so that the practitioner can view trends to help assess or rule out potential asymptomatic atypical femoral fracture.

A localized reaction (periosteal thickening of the lateral cortex or beaking) often precedes atypical femoral fracture. A 2017 study reported that patients with high localized reaction (mean height 3.3 mm) that was of the pointed type and was accompanied by prodromal pain had an increased risk of complete or incomplete atypical femoral fracture at that site.²⁷ This finding is used by the newer DXA software. The predictive value of beaking on extended femoral DXA may be as high as 83%.²⁶

Magnetic resonance imaging

The MRI characteristics of atypical femoral fracture are similar to those of other stress fractures except that there is a lateral-to-medial pattern rather than a medial pattern. The earliest findings include periosteal reaction about the lateral cortex with a normal marrow signal.

MRI may be of particular benefit in patients with known atypical femoral fracture to screen the contralateral leg. It should image the entire length of both femurs. Contrast enhancement is not needed.

Regardless of whether initial findings were discovered on conventional radiographs or DXA, MRI confirmation is needed. Radio­nuclide bone scanning is currently not recommended because it lacks specificity. Combination imaging is recommended, with either radiography plus MRI or DXA plus MRI.

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

The differential diagnosis of atypical femoral fracture includes stress fracture, pathologic fracture, hypophosphatasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta.²⁸ Hypophosphatemic osteomalacia can cause Looser zones, which can be confused with atypical femoral fractures but usually occur on the medial side.⁴ Stress fracture of the femur can occur below the lesser trochanter but usually begins in the medial, not the lateral, cortex.

Pathologic fractures from underlying osseous lesions can mimic the cortical beaking of bisphosphonate-related fracture, but they usually show the associated underlying lucent lesion and poorly defined margins. A sinus tract along the region of a chronic osteomyelitis may also appear similar.

Hypophosphatasia is an inborn error of metabolism caused by a loss-of-function mutation in the gene encoding alkaline phosphatase, resulting in pyrophosphate accumulation and causing osteomalacia from impaired mineralization. This can result in femoral pseudofracture that is often bilateral and occurs in the subtrochanteric region.²⁹

Patients with atypical femoral fracture are generally a heterogeneous group, but there are risk factors to note other than bisphosphonate exposure.

Asian women had a risk 8 times higher than white women in 1 study.³⁰

Bone geometry. Mahjoub et al⁸ reported that compared with controls, patients with atypical femoral fracture had greater offset of the femoral shaft from the center of rotation of the femoral head, a more acute angle between the femoral neck and shaft, and greater proximal cortical thickness.

Medications. In addition to bisphosphonates, other drugs associated with atypical femoral fracture include RANK-ligand inhibitors such as denosumab (another drug for osteoporosis),³¹ glucocorticoids,^32,33 and proton pump inhibitors.^32,33

Genetics. Three sisters with atypical femoral fracture were found to have 37 rare mutations in 34 genes, including one in the GGPS1 gene, which codes for geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate synthase—an enzyme that bisphosphonates inhibit.³⁴

Medical conditions other than osteoporosis include collagen diseases, chronic pulmonary disease, asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, and diabetes.³⁵

Clinical recommendations

Current recommendations are to reevaluate bisphosphonate use in patients with osteoporosis after 5 or more years of therapy.³⁶

Given that patients with osteoporosis are at increased risk of typical fracture, those at higher risk should be considered for continued bisphosphonate therapy. Factors for high risk include the following:

• History of fracture on therapy
• Hip T score –2.5 or lower
• Older age (≥ 70)
• Other strong risk factors for fracture such as smoking, alcohol use, corticosteroid use, rheumatoid arthritis, and family history
• World Health Organization FRAX fracture risk score above the country-specific threshold.

Those at lower risk should be considered for a 2- to 3-year bisphosphonate holiday with periodic reevaluation of bone density and, possibly, bone markers.³⁶

WHAT IS THE UNDERLYING PATHOPHYSIOLOGY?

The mechanism by which bisphosphonates increase the risk of atypical femoral fracture is not clear. These drugs work by suppressing bone turnover; however, in theory, prolonged use could suppress it too much and increase bone fragility.

One hypothesis is that bisphosphonates impair the toughening of cortical bone, an important barrier to clinical fracture. This is supported by a study that found bisphosphonate users with atypical femoral fracture had deficits in intrinsic and extrinsic bone toughness, perhaps due to treatment-related increases in matrix mineralization.³⁷ Although this study and others showed an increase in matrix mineralization and reduced mineralization heterogeneity with bisphosphonate use,^38,39 it is unclear whether such changes contributed to reduced toughness or to atypical femoral fracture.

Changes in the skeletal geometry of the lower limb such as femoral neck-shaft angle and femoral curvature alter the stresses and strains experienced by the femoral diaphysis with loading. Because the incidence of incomplete atypical femoral fracture is much greater than that of complete fracture, most incomplete atypical femoral fractures heal before the fracture progresses.

Ultimately, all fractures, including atypical femoral fractures, occur when mechanical stress and strain exceed bone strength.

Antiresorptive drugs such as bisphosphonates, estrogen, calcitonin, and RANK ligand inhibitors prevent hip fracture by increasing the strength of the proximal femur—perhaps at the expense of the strength (or toughness) of the subtrochanteric shaft. It is also possible that treatment-related increases in hip strength (and reduced hip fracture rates) promote or sustain the transfer of stress and strain to femoral regions that experience lesser or no increases in strength from treatment, which likely includes the shaft.^40,41

CT studies in Japanese women with osteoporosis have shown that 2 years of zoledronate therapy had greater effects in the hip than in the femoral shaft, with significant increases in cortical thickness and volumetric bone mineral density at the femoral neck and intertrochanteric region compared with baseline.⁴² But zoledronate did not increase femoral shaft cortical thickness and caused only a minor increase in femoral shaft volumetric bone mineral density. Fracture patterns may have depended on damage and effects of bone turnover on mass and structure.

This hypothetical scenario portrays a possible “hip survival bias” mechanism for atypical femoral fracture, with the association with antiresorptive drugs arising from greater stress and strain in cortical regions where these fractures occur rather than from treatment-related reductions in cortical bone strength or toughness.

PRODROMAL PAIN IS COMMON

From 32% to 76% of patients who have incomplete or developing atypical femoral fracture present with a prodrome of groin or hip pain.^4,43 Prodromal pain occurs any time from 2 weeks to several years before the fracture, presenting as pain in the anterior or lateral thigh or in the groin.

Prodromal pain in a patient on antiresorptive therapy should be a signal for the clinician to obtain a radiograph of the hip and to look for contralateral symptoms and fractures. The most common mechanism of injury appears to be a ground-level fall or even a nontraumatic activity such as walking or stepping off a curb.

MEDICAL MANAGEMENT

In bisphosphonate users with radiographic evidence of atypical femoral fracture, the bis­phosphonate should be discontinued and the patient assessed for calcium and vitamin D deficiency, with supplements prescribed if needed.⁴

For patients with incomplete fracture and persistent pain after 3 months of medical management, prophylactic surgical nail fixation is recommended to prevent complete fracture.

Teriparatide, which has been associated with enhanced bone fracture healing, is a possible treatment to promote healing of atypical femoral fracture, either alone or as an adjunct to surgical fixation. A systematic review published in 2015 supported the use of teriparatide for enhancing fracture healing in atypical femoral fracture.⁴⁴ In addition, a 10-patient series⁴⁵ showed that incomplete fractures without radiolucent lines responded to teriparatide alone, whereas those with radiolucent lines needed intramedullary nailing.

These results suggest that teriparatide works best when the fracture site is stable, either inherently or with surgical fixation.

ORTHOPEDIC CARE

Orthopedic care for atypical femoral fracture differs depending on whether the patient experiences pain and whether the fracture is incomplete or complete. Figure 2 shows a treatment algorithm for atypical femoral fracture.

These are difficult fractures to manage, complicated by delayed healing in the elderly, complex displacement patterns, altered bone geometry, and risk of fracture in the opposite limb, all of which raise questions about recommending protected weight-bearing exercise.

Furthermore, atypical femoral fracture is often associated with increased anterolateral bowing of the femur, making it difficult to insert an intramedullary nail: the radius of curvature of the bone is shorter than that of a standard femoral nail. This mismatch can lead to intraoperative complications such as iatrogenic fracture during prophylactic nailing, malunion from excess straightening of the femur (which can itself lead to leg length discrepancy), and gapping of the fracture site, particularly on the medial side.

Intramedullary nailing is the first-line treatment for complete atypical femoral fracture, although the risk of delayed healing and revision surgery may be somewhat higher than with typical femoral fracture.⁴⁶ Prophylactic intramedullary nailing should be considered for a patient with intractable pain.²

A radiograph of the opposite leg should be obtained routinely, looking for an asymptomatic fracture. Bisphosphonates should be discontinued and calcium and vitamin D continued. Teriparatide therapy can be considered as an alternative treatment.

Conservative management for incomplete fracture without pain

Incomplete atypical femoral fracture unaccompanied by pain can be followed conservatively.⁴⁷ In addition to stopping antiresorptive therapy, patients need to avoid high-impact and repetitive-impact activities such as jumping or running. If pain occurs, patients should begin protected weight-bearing exercise.

Treatment is uncertain for incomplete fracture with pain

For patients with incomplete atypical femoral fracture and pain, treatment is controversial. Regimens that include 2 to 3 months of protected weight-bearing exercise, a full metabolic bone workup, calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and anabolic bone agents have produced some success. Some authors have reported poor results from conservative care, with few patients achieving pain relief or signs of complete healing.^48,49 Additionally, if an incomplete fracture is found in the opposite femur, protected weight-bearing of both legs may not be possible.

Patients with incomplete fracture should be monitored regularly with radiography and physical examination. If there is progression of the fracture, escalation of pain, or failure to heal within 2 to 3 months, then surgical treatment is necessary.

Prophylactic placement of an intramedullary nail to prevent completion of the fracture and allow a return to full weight-bearing is generally advised.⁵⁰ A long locking plate can be used if bone deformities make it difficult to place an intramedullary nail; however, nails are preferred because they allow formation of endochondral callus, which can be helpful in these difficult-to-heal fractures.

Results from retrospective reviews have shown that surgically treated patients with bis­phosphonate-associated incomplete atypical femoral fracture were more likely than those treated nonsurgically to be pain-free (81% vs 64%) and have radiographic healing (100% vs 18% at final follow-up).⁴⁶ Results have also been positive for those with complete atypical femoral fracture. At 6 months, 64% of surgically treated patients were pain-free and 98% were radiographically healed.⁵¹

The unusual geometry of the femur in patients with atypical femoral fracture and the presence of intramedullary cortical callus makes the placement of an intramedullary femoral rod more complex than in typical femoral fracture.⁸

Intramedullary nailing of atypical femoral fracture is a challenge for even the most experienced surgeon, and vigilance is imperative to avoid iatrogenic fracture and malunion.

MANY QUESTIONS REMAIN

We need more studies on the pathophysiology of bisphosphonate-associated atypical femoral fracture, the value of periodic screening with DXA, and which factors predict high risk (eg, Asian ethnicity, use of certain medications, femoral geometry). In addition, we need more data on the success of conservative management of incomplete fracture, including use of teriparatide.

Bisphosphonate therapy minimizes bone loss and reduces fracture risk by up to 50% in patients with osteoporosis,¹ but it is also associated with increased risks of osteonecrosis of the jaw and atypical femoral fracture. Although atypical femoral fractures are rare, they can have a devastating effect. Patient concern about this complication has contributed to a decrease in bisphosphonate use by about half in the last decade or so,^2,3 and we fear this could result in an increase in hip fracture rates.

In this article, we examine the evidence on bisphosphonate-associated atypical femoral fractures, including risks, pathogenesis, treatment, and prevention.

ATYPICAL FRACTURES INVOLVE THE FEMORAL SHAFT, NOT THE HEAD

An atypical femoral fracture is a transverse fracture of the femoral shaft (diaphysis), defined by both clinical criteria and radiographic appearance.

To be defined as atypical, a femoral fracture must meet 4 of the following 5 criteria⁴:

• Occurs with minimal or no trauma
• Has a predominantly transverse fracture line, originating at the lateral cortex and sometimes becoming oblique as it progresses medially across the femur
• Extends through both cortices and may be associated with a medial spike (complete fractures); or involves only the lateral cortex (incomplete fractures)
• Is noncomminuted or minimally comminuted
• Shows localized periosteal or endosteal thickening (termed “beaking” or “flaring”) of the lateral cortex at the fracture site.

Several minor features are also important but are not required, eg:

• Cortical thickening of the femoral shaft
• Unilateral or bilateral prodromal pain preceding the fracture
• Bilateral incomplete or complete femoral diaphysis fractures
• Delayed fracture healing.

Atypical femoral fracture can occur anywhere along the shaft, from just distal to the lesser trochanter to just proximal to the supracondylar flare. However, most occur in 2 areas, with 1 cluster centered at about 41 mm from the lesser trochanter (more common in relatively younger patients) and the other at 187 mm.⁵

ABSOLUTE RISK IS LOW BUT INCREASES WITH LONGER USE

Atypical femoral fractures are rare. Schilcher et al⁶ reviewed radiographs of 1,234 women who had a subtrochanteric or shaft fracture and found 59 (4.6%) of fractures were atypical. In a systematic review of 14 studies,⁷ the incidence ranged from 3.0 to 9.8 cases per 100,000 patient-years.

Furthermore, not all atypical femoral fractures are in bisphosphonate users: 7.4% were in nonusers in 1 series⁸ and 22% in another.⁹

Nevertheless, most studies show that bis­phosphonate use increases the incidence of atypical femoral fracture, and the incidence increases with duration of use, especially after 3 years.⁷

An international task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research listed the absolute risk as between 3.2 and 50 cases per 100,000 patient-years, with longer use (> 5 years) increasing the risk to about 100 per 100,000 patient-years.⁴ After stopping bis­phosphonate therapy, the risk diminished by 70% per year.⁹

In another study, for 0.1 to 1.9 years of therapy, the age-adjusted atypical fracture rates were 1.78 per 100,000 per year (95% confidence interval [CI] 1.5–2.0), increasing to 113.1 per 100,000 per year (95% CI 69.3–156.8) with exposure from 8 to 9.9 years.¹⁰

A case-control study found that more than 5 years of bisphosphonate use increased the fracture risk by an odds ratio of 2.74 (95% CI 1.25–6.02).¹¹

The incidence of typical femoral fracture was higher in those who adhered better to their oral bisphosphonate regimen in some studies,¹² but the opposite was true in others.¹³

The benefits of bisphosphonate therapy in reducing fracture risk, however, outweigh the risk of atypical fracture.⁴

We do not know whether the rate of atypical femoral fracture is increasing. A review of Kaiser Permanente Northwest records found that the rates of atypical femoral shaft fracture had remained stable from 1996 to 2009. However, 61.9% of patients who met the strict radiographic criteria had taken oral bisphosphonates.¹⁴ These data suggest that bisphosphonate use has not increased the overall population-based risk for subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures, but that bisphosphonates and other risk factors may have increased the likelihood that such fractures will exhibit atypical radiographic features.

A population-based study in Denmark¹³ found that alendronate use longer than 10 years was associated with an adjusted 30% lower risk of hip fracture and no increase in the risk of subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fracture. In addition, the risk of subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fracture was lower with high adherence to alendronate treatment (based on medication possession ratio > 80%) compared with low adherence (ratio < 50%) (odds ratio 0.88, 95% CI 0.77–0.99). The risk was not increased in current vs past users.

The Danish study¹³ used the coding of the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD-10) to identify subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures without radiologic review for atypical radiographic features. The lack of specific ICD-10 coding for subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures with atypical radiographic features has limited our knowledge of their incidence.

After an atypical femoral fracture, patients have a significant risk of fracture on the contralateral side. In a case-control study, 28% of patients with atypical femoral fracture suffered a contralateral fracture, compared with 0.9% of patients presenting with a typical fracture pattern (odds ratio 42.6, 95% CI 12.8–142.4).¹⁵

Contralateral fracture occurs from 1 month to 4 years after the index atypical femoral fracture.¹⁶

There are reports of bisphosphonate-related low-impact fractures in other sites such as the tibia¹⁷ and forearm.¹⁸ However, they may be too rare to warrant screening.

Mortality rates

A Swedish database study found that patients with atypical femoral fractures, whether bisphosphonate users or nonusers, do not have higher mortality rates than patients with ordinary subtrochanteric or femoral shaft fractures.¹⁹ Furthermore, the mortality rates for those with atypical femoral fracture were similar to rates in the general population. In contrast, patients with an ordinary femoral fracture had a higher mortality risk than the general population.¹⁹

Other studies suggest that atypical femoral fracture may be associated with a less favorable prognosis in older patients,²⁰ but this could be due to differences in demographics, treatment adherence, or postfracture care.²¹

In addition, functional outcomes as measured by independent mobility at discharge and at 3 months were comparable between patients with atypical fracture and those with typical fracture.²²

IMAGING STUDIES

If a long-term bisphosphonate user presents with hip, thigh, or groin pain, imaging studies are recommended.

Plain radiography

Radiography is usually the first step and should include a frontal view of the pelvis (Figure 1) and 2 views of the full length of each femur. If radiography is not conclusive, bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be considered.

A linear cortex transverse fracture pattern and focal lateral cortical thickening are the most sensitive and specific radiographic features.^23,24 Because of the risk of fracture on the contralateral side, radiographic study of that side is recommended as well.

Computed tomography

Computed tomography (CT) is not sensitive for early stress fractures and, given the radiation burden, is not recommended in the workup of atypical fracture.

Bone scanning

Bone scanning using technetium 99m-labeled methylene diphosphonate with a gamma camera shows active bone turnover. Stress fractures and atypical femoral fractures are most easily identified in the third (delayed) phase of the bone scan. Although bone scanning is highly sensitive, the specificity is limited by lack of spatial resolution. Atypical femoral fracture appears as increased activity in the subtrochanteric region with a predilection for the lateral cortex.

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

Conventional dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) extends only to 1 to 2 cm below the lesser trochanter and can therefore miss atypical fractures, which usually occur farther down. The overall detection rate for DXA was 61% in a sample of 33 patients.²⁵

Newer scanners can look at the entire femoral shaft.²⁶ In addition, newer software can quantify focal thickening (beaking) of the lateral cortex and screen patients who have no symptoms. The results of serial measurements can be graphed so that the practitioner can view trends to help assess or rule out potential asymptomatic atypical femoral fracture.

A localized reaction (periosteal thickening of the lateral cortex or beaking) often precedes atypical femoral fracture. A 2017 study reported that patients with high localized reaction (mean height 3.3 mm) that was of the pointed type and was accompanied by prodromal pain had an increased risk of complete or incomplete atypical femoral fracture at that site.²⁷ This finding is used by the newer DXA software. The predictive value of beaking on extended femoral DXA may be as high as 83%.²⁶

Magnetic resonance imaging

The MRI characteristics of atypical femoral fracture are similar to those of other stress fractures except that there is a lateral-to-medial pattern rather than a medial pattern. The earliest findings include periosteal reaction about the lateral cortex with a normal marrow signal.

MRI may be of particular benefit in patients with known atypical femoral fracture to screen the contralateral leg. It should image the entire length of both femurs. Contrast enhancement is not needed.

Regardless of whether initial findings were discovered on conventional radiographs or DXA, MRI confirmation is needed. Radio­nuclide bone scanning is currently not recommended because it lacks specificity. Combination imaging is recommended, with either radiography plus MRI or DXA plus MRI.

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

The differential diagnosis of atypical femoral fracture includes stress fracture, pathologic fracture, hypophosphatasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta.²⁸ Hypophosphatemic osteomalacia can cause Looser zones, which can be confused with atypical femoral fractures but usually occur on the medial side.⁴ Stress fracture of the femur can occur below the lesser trochanter but usually begins in the medial, not the lateral, cortex.

Pathologic fractures from underlying osseous lesions can mimic the cortical beaking of bisphosphonate-related fracture, but they usually show the associated underlying lucent lesion and poorly defined margins. A sinus tract along the region of a chronic osteomyelitis may also appear similar.

Hypophosphatasia is an inborn error of metabolism caused by a loss-of-function mutation in the gene encoding alkaline phosphatase, resulting in pyrophosphate accumulation and causing osteomalacia from impaired mineralization. This can result in femoral pseudofracture that is often bilateral and occurs in the subtrochanteric region.²⁹

Patients with atypical femoral fracture are generally a heterogeneous group, but there are risk factors to note other than bisphosphonate exposure.

Asian women had a risk 8 times higher than white women in 1 study.³⁰

Bone geometry. Mahjoub et al⁸ reported that compared with controls, patients with atypical femoral fracture had greater offset of the femoral shaft from the center of rotation of the femoral head, a more acute angle between the femoral neck and shaft, and greater proximal cortical thickness.

Medications. In addition to bisphosphonates, other drugs associated with atypical femoral fracture include RANK-ligand inhibitors such as denosumab (another drug for osteoporosis),³¹ glucocorticoids,^32,33 and proton pump inhibitors.^32,33

Genetics. Three sisters with atypical femoral fracture were found to have 37 rare mutations in 34 genes, including one in the GGPS1 gene, which codes for geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate synthase—an enzyme that bisphosphonates inhibit.³⁴

Medical conditions other than osteoporosis include collagen diseases, chronic pulmonary disease, asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, and diabetes.³⁵

Clinical recommendations

Current recommendations are to reevaluate bisphosphonate use in patients with osteoporosis after 5 or more years of therapy.³⁶

Given that patients with osteoporosis are at increased risk of typical fracture, those at higher risk should be considered for continued bisphosphonate therapy. Factors for high risk include the following:

• History of fracture on therapy
• Hip T score –2.5 or lower
• Older age (≥ 70)
• Other strong risk factors for fracture such as smoking, alcohol use, corticosteroid use, rheumatoid arthritis, and family history
• World Health Organization FRAX fracture risk score above the country-specific threshold.

Those at lower risk should be considered for a 2- to 3-year bisphosphonate holiday with periodic reevaluation of bone density and, possibly, bone markers.³⁶

WHAT IS THE UNDERLYING PATHOPHYSIOLOGY?

The mechanism by which bisphosphonates increase the risk of atypical femoral fracture is not clear. These drugs work by suppressing bone turnover; however, in theory, prolonged use could suppress it too much and increase bone fragility.

One hypothesis is that bisphosphonates impair the toughening of cortical bone, an important barrier to clinical fracture. This is supported by a study that found bisphosphonate users with atypical femoral fracture had deficits in intrinsic and extrinsic bone toughness, perhaps due to treatment-related increases in matrix mineralization.³⁷ Although this study and others showed an increase in matrix mineralization and reduced mineralization heterogeneity with bisphosphonate use,^38,39 it is unclear whether such changes contributed to reduced toughness or to atypical femoral fracture.

Changes in the skeletal geometry of the lower limb such as femoral neck-shaft angle and femoral curvature alter the stresses and strains experienced by the femoral diaphysis with loading. Because the incidence of incomplete atypical femoral fracture is much greater than that of complete fracture, most incomplete atypical femoral fractures heal before the fracture progresses.

Ultimately, all fractures, including atypical femoral fractures, occur when mechanical stress and strain exceed bone strength.

Antiresorptive drugs such as bisphosphonates, estrogen, calcitonin, and RANK ligand inhibitors prevent hip fracture by increasing the strength of the proximal femur—perhaps at the expense of the strength (or toughness) of the subtrochanteric shaft. It is also possible that treatment-related increases in hip strength (and reduced hip fracture rates) promote or sustain the transfer of stress and strain to femoral regions that experience lesser or no increases in strength from treatment, which likely includes the shaft.^40,41

CT studies in Japanese women with osteoporosis have shown that 2 years of zoledronate therapy had greater effects in the hip than in the femoral shaft, with significant increases in cortical thickness and volumetric bone mineral density at the femoral neck and intertrochanteric region compared with baseline.⁴² But zoledronate did not increase femoral shaft cortical thickness and caused only a minor increase in femoral shaft volumetric bone mineral density. Fracture patterns may have depended on damage and effects of bone turnover on mass and structure.

This hypothetical scenario portrays a possible “hip survival bias” mechanism for atypical femoral fracture, with the association with antiresorptive drugs arising from greater stress and strain in cortical regions where these fractures occur rather than from treatment-related reductions in cortical bone strength or toughness.

PRODROMAL PAIN IS COMMON

From 32% to 76% of patients who have incomplete or developing atypical femoral fracture present with a prodrome of groin or hip pain.^4,43 Prodromal pain occurs any time from 2 weeks to several years before the fracture, presenting as pain in the anterior or lateral thigh or in the groin.

Prodromal pain in a patient on antiresorptive therapy should be a signal for the clinician to obtain a radiograph of the hip and to look for contralateral symptoms and fractures. The most common mechanism of injury appears to be a ground-level fall or even a nontraumatic activity such as walking or stepping off a curb.

MEDICAL MANAGEMENT

In bisphosphonate users with radiographic evidence of atypical femoral fracture, the bis­phosphonate should be discontinued and the patient assessed for calcium and vitamin D deficiency, with supplements prescribed if needed.⁴

For patients with incomplete fracture and persistent pain after 3 months of medical management, prophylactic surgical nail fixation is recommended to prevent complete fracture.

Teriparatide, which has been associated with enhanced bone fracture healing, is a possible treatment to promote healing of atypical femoral fracture, either alone or as an adjunct to surgical fixation. A systematic review published in 2015 supported the use of teriparatide for enhancing fracture healing in atypical femoral fracture.⁴⁴ In addition, a 10-patient series⁴⁵ showed that incomplete fractures without radiolucent lines responded to teriparatide alone, whereas those with radiolucent lines needed intramedullary nailing.

These results suggest that teriparatide works best when the fracture site is stable, either inherently or with surgical fixation.

ORTHOPEDIC CARE

Orthopedic care for atypical femoral fracture differs depending on whether the patient experiences pain and whether the fracture is incomplete or complete. Figure 2 shows a treatment algorithm for atypical femoral fracture.

These are difficult fractures to manage, complicated by delayed healing in the elderly, complex displacement patterns, altered bone geometry, and risk of fracture in the opposite limb, all of which raise questions about recommending protected weight-bearing exercise.

Furthermore, atypical femoral fracture is often associated with increased anterolateral bowing of the femur, making it difficult to insert an intramedullary nail: the radius of curvature of the bone is shorter than that of a standard femoral nail. This mismatch can lead to intraoperative complications such as iatrogenic fracture during prophylactic nailing, malunion from excess straightening of the femur (which can itself lead to leg length discrepancy), and gapping of the fracture site, particularly on the medial side.

Intramedullary nailing is the first-line treatment for complete atypical femoral fracture, although the risk of delayed healing and revision surgery may be somewhat higher than with typical femoral fracture.⁴⁶ Prophylactic intramedullary nailing should be considered for a patient with intractable pain.²

A radiograph of the opposite leg should be obtained routinely, looking for an asymptomatic fracture. Bisphosphonates should be discontinued and calcium and vitamin D continued. Teriparatide therapy can be considered as an alternative treatment.

Conservative management for incomplete fracture without pain

Incomplete atypical femoral fracture unaccompanied by pain can be followed conservatively.⁴⁷ In addition to stopping antiresorptive therapy, patients need to avoid high-impact and repetitive-impact activities such as jumping or running. If pain occurs, patients should begin protected weight-bearing exercise.

Treatment is uncertain for incomplete fracture with pain

For patients with incomplete atypical femoral fracture and pain, treatment is controversial. Regimens that include 2 to 3 months of protected weight-bearing exercise, a full metabolic bone workup, calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and anabolic bone agents have produced some success. Some authors have reported poor results from conservative care, with few patients achieving pain relief or signs of complete healing.^48,49 Additionally, if an incomplete fracture is found in the opposite femur, protected weight-bearing of both legs may not be possible.

Patients with incomplete fracture should be monitored regularly with radiography and physical examination. If there is progression of the fracture, escalation of pain, or failure to heal within 2 to 3 months, then surgical treatment is necessary.

Prophylactic placement of an intramedullary nail to prevent completion of the fracture and allow a return to full weight-bearing is generally advised.⁵⁰ A long locking plate can be used if bone deformities make it difficult to place an intramedullary nail; however, nails are preferred because they allow formation of endochondral callus, which can be helpful in these difficult-to-heal fractures.

Results from retrospective reviews have shown that surgically treated patients with bis­phosphonate-associated incomplete atypical femoral fracture were more likely than those treated nonsurgically to be pain-free (81% vs 64%) and have radiographic healing (100% vs 18% at final follow-up).⁴⁶ Results have also been positive for those with complete atypical femoral fracture. At 6 months, 64% of surgically treated patients were pain-free and 98% were radiographically healed.⁵¹

The unusual geometry of the femur in patients with atypical femoral fracture and the presence of intramedullary cortical callus makes the placement of an intramedullary femoral rod more complex than in typical femoral fracture.⁸

Intramedullary nailing of atypical femoral fracture is a challenge for even the most experienced surgeon, and vigilance is imperative to avoid iatrogenic fracture and malunion.

MANY QUESTIONS REMAIN

We need more studies on the pathophysiology of bisphosphonate-associated atypical femoral fracture, the value of periodic screening with DXA, and which factors predict high risk (eg, Asian ethnicity, use of certain medications, femoral geometry). In addition, we need more data on the success of conservative management of incomplete fracture, including use of teriparatide.

Bisphosphonate therapy minimizes bone loss and reduces fracture risk by up to 50% in patients with osteoporosis,¹ but it is also associated with increased risks of osteonecrosis of the jaw and atypical femoral fracture. Although atypical femoral fractures are rare, they can have a devastating effect. Patient concern about this complication has contributed to a decrease in bisphosphonate use by about half in the last decade or so,^2,3 and we fear this could result in an increase in hip fracture rates.

In this article, we examine the evidence on bisphosphonate-associated atypical femoral fractures, including risks, pathogenesis, treatment, and prevention.

ATYPICAL FRACTURES INVOLVE THE FEMORAL SHAFT, NOT THE HEAD

An atypical femoral fracture is a transverse fracture of the femoral shaft (diaphysis), defined by both clinical criteria and radiographic appearance.

To be defined as atypical, a femoral fracture must meet 4 of the following 5 criteria⁴:

• Occurs with minimal or no trauma
• Has a predominantly transverse fracture line, originating at the lateral cortex and sometimes becoming oblique as it progresses medially across the femur
• Extends through both cortices and may be associated with a medial spike (complete fractures); or involves only the lateral cortex (incomplete fractures)
• Is noncomminuted or minimally comminuted
• Shows localized periosteal or endosteal thickening (termed “beaking” or “flaring”) of the lateral cortex at the fracture site.

Several minor features are also important but are not required, eg:

• Cortical thickening of the femoral shaft
• Unilateral or bilateral prodromal pain preceding the fracture
• Bilateral incomplete or complete femoral diaphysis fractures
• Delayed fracture healing.

Atypical femoral fracture can occur anywhere along the shaft, from just distal to the lesser trochanter to just proximal to the supracondylar flare. However, most occur in 2 areas, with 1 cluster centered at about 41 mm from the lesser trochanter (more common in relatively younger patients) and the other at 187 mm.⁵

ABSOLUTE RISK IS LOW BUT INCREASES WITH LONGER USE

Atypical femoral fractures are rare. Schilcher et al⁶ reviewed radiographs of 1,234 women who had a subtrochanteric or shaft fracture and found 59 (4.6%) of fractures were atypical. In a systematic review of 14 studies,⁷ the incidence ranged from 3.0 to 9.8 cases per 100,000 patient-years.

Furthermore, not all atypical femoral fractures are in bisphosphonate users: 7.4% were in nonusers in 1 series⁸ and 22% in another.⁹

Nevertheless, most studies show that bis­phosphonate use increases the incidence of atypical femoral fracture, and the incidence increases with duration of use, especially after 3 years.⁷

An international task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research listed the absolute risk as between 3.2 and 50 cases per 100,000 patient-years, with longer use (> 5 years) increasing the risk to about 100 per 100,000 patient-years.⁴ After stopping bis­phosphonate therapy, the risk diminished by 70% per year.⁹

In another study, for 0.1 to 1.9 years of therapy, the age-adjusted atypical fracture rates were 1.78 per 100,000 per year (95% confidence interval [CI] 1.5–2.0), increasing to 113.1 per 100,000 per year (95% CI 69.3–156.8) with exposure from 8 to 9.9 years.¹⁰

A case-control study found that more than 5 years of bisphosphonate use increased the fracture risk by an odds ratio of 2.74 (95% CI 1.25–6.02).¹¹

The incidence of typical femoral fracture was higher in those who adhered better to their oral bisphosphonate regimen in some studies,¹² but the opposite was true in others.¹³

The benefits of bisphosphonate therapy in reducing fracture risk, however, outweigh the risk of atypical fracture.⁴

We do not know whether the rate of atypical femoral fracture is increasing. A review of Kaiser Permanente Northwest records found that the rates of atypical femoral shaft fracture had remained stable from 1996 to 2009. However, 61.9% of patients who met the strict radiographic criteria had taken oral bisphosphonates.¹⁴ These data suggest that bisphosphonate use has not increased the overall population-based risk for subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures, but that bisphosphonates and other risk factors may have increased the likelihood that such fractures will exhibit atypical radiographic features.

A population-based study in Denmark¹³ found that alendronate use longer than 10 years was associated with an adjusted 30% lower risk of hip fracture and no increase in the risk of subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fracture. In addition, the risk of subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fracture was lower with high adherence to alendronate treatment (based on medication possession ratio > 80%) compared with low adherence (ratio < 50%) (odds ratio 0.88, 95% CI 0.77–0.99). The risk was not increased in current vs past users.

The Danish study¹³ used the coding of the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD-10) to identify subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures without radiologic review for atypical radiographic features. The lack of specific ICD-10 coding for subtrochanteric and femoral shaft fractures with atypical radiographic features has limited our knowledge of their incidence.

After an atypical femoral fracture, patients have a significant risk of fracture on the contralateral side. In a case-control study, 28% of patients with atypical femoral fracture suffered a contralateral fracture, compared with 0.9% of patients presenting with a typical fracture pattern (odds ratio 42.6, 95% CI 12.8–142.4).¹⁵

Contralateral fracture occurs from 1 month to 4 years after the index atypical femoral fracture.¹⁶

There are reports of bisphosphonate-related low-impact fractures in other sites such as the tibia¹⁷ and forearm.¹⁸ However, they may be too rare to warrant screening.

Mortality rates

A Swedish database study found that patients with atypical femoral fractures, whether bisphosphonate users or nonusers, do not have higher mortality rates than patients with ordinary subtrochanteric or femoral shaft fractures.¹⁹ Furthermore, the mortality rates for those with atypical femoral fracture were similar to rates in the general population. In contrast, patients with an ordinary femoral fracture had a higher mortality risk than the general population.¹⁹

Other studies suggest that atypical femoral fracture may be associated with a less favorable prognosis in older patients,²⁰ but this could be due to differences in demographics, treatment adherence, or postfracture care.²¹

In addition, functional outcomes as measured by independent mobility at discharge and at 3 months were comparable between patients with atypical fracture and those with typical fracture.²²

IMAGING STUDIES

If a long-term bisphosphonate user presents with hip, thigh, or groin pain, imaging studies are recommended.

Plain radiography

Radiography is usually the first step and should include a frontal view of the pelvis (Figure 1) and 2 views of the full length of each femur. If radiography is not conclusive, bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be considered.

A linear cortex transverse fracture pattern and focal lateral cortical thickening are the most sensitive and specific radiographic features.^23,24 Because of the risk of fracture on the contralateral side, radiographic study of that side is recommended as well.

Computed tomography

Computed tomography (CT) is not sensitive for early stress fractures and, given the radiation burden, is not recommended in the workup of atypical fracture.

Bone scanning

Bone scanning using technetium 99m-labeled methylene diphosphonate with a gamma camera shows active bone turnover. Stress fractures and atypical femoral fractures are most easily identified in the third (delayed) phase of the bone scan. Although bone scanning is highly sensitive, the specificity is limited by lack of spatial resolution. Atypical femoral fracture appears as increased activity in the subtrochanteric region with a predilection for the lateral cortex.

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

Conventional dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) extends only to 1 to 2 cm below the lesser trochanter and can therefore miss atypical fractures, which usually occur farther down. The overall detection rate for DXA was 61% in a sample of 33 patients.²⁵

Newer scanners can look at the entire femoral shaft.²⁶ In addition, newer software can quantify focal thickening (beaking) of the lateral cortex and screen patients who have no symptoms. The results of serial measurements can be graphed so that the practitioner can view trends to help assess or rule out potential asymptomatic atypical femoral fracture.

A localized reaction (periosteal thickening of the lateral cortex or beaking) often precedes atypical femoral fracture. A 2017 study reported that patients with high localized reaction (mean height 3.3 mm) that was of the pointed type and was accompanied by prodromal pain had an increased risk of complete or incomplete atypical femoral fracture at that site.²⁷ This finding is used by the newer DXA software. The predictive value of beaking on extended femoral DXA may be as high as 83%.²⁶

Magnetic resonance imaging

The MRI characteristics of atypical femoral fracture are similar to those of other stress fractures except that there is a lateral-to-medial pattern rather than a medial pattern. The earliest findings include periosteal reaction about the lateral cortex with a normal marrow signal.

MRI may be of particular benefit in patients with known atypical femoral fracture to screen the contralateral leg. It should image the entire length of both femurs. Contrast enhancement is not needed.

Regardless of whether initial findings were discovered on conventional radiographs or DXA, MRI confirmation is needed. Radio­nuclide bone scanning is currently not recommended because it lacks specificity. Combination imaging is recommended, with either radiography plus MRI or DXA plus MRI.

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

The differential diagnosis of atypical femoral fracture includes stress fracture, pathologic fracture, hypophosphatasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta.²⁸ Hypophosphatemic osteomalacia can cause Looser zones, which can be confused with atypical femoral fractures but usually occur on the medial side.⁴ Stress fracture of the femur can occur below the lesser trochanter but usually begins in the medial, not the lateral, cortex.

Pathologic fractures from underlying osseous lesions can mimic the cortical beaking of bisphosphonate-related fracture, but they usually show the associated underlying lucent lesion and poorly defined margins. A sinus tract along the region of a chronic osteomyelitis may also appear similar.

Hypophosphatasia is an inborn error of metabolism caused by a loss-of-function mutation in the gene encoding alkaline phosphatase, resulting in pyrophosphate accumulation and causing osteomalacia from impaired mineralization. This can result in femoral pseudofracture that is often bilateral and occurs in the subtrochanteric region.²⁹

Patients with atypical femoral fracture are generally a heterogeneous group, but there are risk factors to note other than bisphosphonate exposure.

Asian women had a risk 8 times higher than white women in 1 study.³⁰

Bone geometry. Mahjoub et al⁸ reported that compared with controls, patients with atypical femoral fracture had greater offset of the femoral shaft from the center of rotation of the femoral head, a more acute angle between the femoral neck and shaft, and greater proximal cortical thickness.

Medications. In addition to bisphosphonates, other drugs associated with atypical femoral fracture include RANK-ligand inhibitors such as denosumab (another drug for osteoporosis),³¹ glucocorticoids,^32,33 and proton pump inhibitors.^32,33

Genetics. Three sisters with atypical femoral fracture were found to have 37 rare mutations in 34 genes, including one in the GGPS1 gene, which codes for geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate synthase—an enzyme that bisphosphonates inhibit.³⁴

Medical conditions other than osteoporosis include collagen diseases, chronic pulmonary disease, asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, and diabetes.³⁵

Clinical recommendations

Current recommendations are to reevaluate bisphosphonate use in patients with osteoporosis after 5 or more years of therapy.³⁶

Given that patients with osteoporosis are at increased risk of typical fracture, those at higher risk should be considered for continued bisphosphonate therapy. Factors for high risk include the following:

• History of fracture on therapy
• Hip T score –2.5 or lower
• Older age (≥ 70)
• Other strong risk factors for fracture such as smoking, alcohol use, corticosteroid use, rheumatoid arthritis, and family history
• World Health Organization FRAX fracture risk score above the country-specific threshold.

Those at lower risk should be considered for a 2- to 3-year bisphosphonate holiday with periodic reevaluation of bone density and, possibly, bone markers.³⁶

WHAT IS THE UNDERLYING PATHOPHYSIOLOGY?

The mechanism by which bisphosphonates increase the risk of atypical femoral fracture is not clear. These drugs work by suppressing bone turnover; however, in theory, prolonged use could suppress it too much and increase bone fragility.

One hypothesis is that bisphosphonates impair the toughening of cortical bone, an important barrier to clinical fracture. This is supported by a study that found bisphosphonate users with atypical femoral fracture had deficits in intrinsic and extrinsic bone toughness, perhaps due to treatment-related increases in matrix mineralization.³⁷ Although this study and others showed an increase in matrix mineralization and reduced mineralization heterogeneity with bisphosphonate use,^38,39 it is unclear whether such changes contributed to reduced toughness or to atypical femoral fracture.

Changes in the skeletal geometry of the lower limb such as femoral neck-shaft angle and femoral curvature alter the stresses and strains experienced by the femoral diaphysis with loading. Because the incidence of incomplete atypical femoral fracture is much greater than that of complete fracture, most incomplete atypical femoral fractures heal before the fracture progresses.

Ultimately, all fractures, including atypical femoral fractures, occur when mechanical stress and strain exceed bone strength.

Antiresorptive drugs such as bisphosphonates, estrogen, calcitonin, and RANK ligand inhibitors prevent hip fracture by increasing the strength of the proximal femur—perhaps at the expense of the strength (or toughness) of the subtrochanteric shaft. It is also possible that treatment-related increases in hip strength (and reduced hip fracture rates) promote or sustain the transfer of stress and strain to femoral regions that experience lesser or no increases in strength from treatment, which likely includes the shaft.^40,41

CT studies in Japanese women with osteoporosis have shown that 2 years of zoledronate therapy had greater effects in the hip than in the femoral shaft, with significant increases in cortical thickness and volumetric bone mineral density at the femoral neck and intertrochanteric region compared with baseline.⁴² But zoledronate did not increase femoral shaft cortical thickness and caused only a minor increase in femoral shaft volumetric bone mineral density. Fracture patterns may have depended on damage and effects of bone turnover on mass and structure.

This hypothetical scenario portrays a possible “hip survival bias” mechanism for atypical femoral fracture, with the association with antiresorptive drugs arising from greater stress and strain in cortical regions where these fractures occur rather than from treatment-related reductions in cortical bone strength or toughness.

PRODROMAL PAIN IS COMMON

From 32% to 76% of patients who have incomplete or developing atypical femoral fracture present with a prodrome of groin or hip pain.^4,43 Prodromal pain occurs any time from 2 weeks to several years before the fracture, presenting as pain in the anterior or lateral thigh or in the groin.

Prodromal pain in a patient on antiresorptive therapy should be a signal for the clinician to obtain a radiograph of the hip and to look for contralateral symptoms and fractures. The most common mechanism of injury appears to be a ground-level fall or even a nontraumatic activity such as walking or stepping off a curb.

MEDICAL MANAGEMENT

In bisphosphonate users with radiographic evidence of atypical femoral fracture, the bis­phosphonate should be discontinued and the patient assessed for calcium and vitamin D deficiency, with supplements prescribed if needed.⁴

For patients with incomplete fracture and persistent pain after 3 months of medical management, prophylactic surgical nail fixation is recommended to prevent complete fracture.

Teriparatide, which has been associated with enhanced bone fracture healing, is a possible treatment to promote healing of atypical femoral fracture, either alone or as an adjunct to surgical fixation. A systematic review published in 2015 supported the use of teriparatide for enhancing fracture healing in atypical femoral fracture.⁴⁴ In addition, a 10-patient series⁴⁵ showed that incomplete fractures without radiolucent lines responded to teriparatide alone, whereas those with radiolucent lines needed intramedullary nailing.

These results suggest that teriparatide works best when the fracture site is stable, either inherently or with surgical fixation.

ORTHOPEDIC CARE

Orthopedic care for atypical femoral fracture differs depending on whether the patient experiences pain and whether the fracture is incomplete or complete. Figure 2 shows a treatment algorithm for atypical femoral fracture.

These are difficult fractures to manage, complicated by delayed healing in the elderly, complex displacement patterns, altered bone geometry, and risk of fracture in the opposite limb, all of which raise questions about recommending protected weight-bearing exercise.

Furthermore, atypical femoral fracture is often associated with increased anterolateral bowing of the femur, making it difficult to insert an intramedullary nail: the radius of curvature of the bone is shorter than that of a standard femoral nail. This mismatch can lead to intraoperative complications such as iatrogenic fracture during prophylactic nailing, malunion from excess straightening of the femur (which can itself lead to leg length discrepancy), and gapping of the fracture site, particularly on the medial side.

Intramedullary nailing is the first-line treatment for complete atypical femoral fracture, although the risk of delayed healing and revision surgery may be somewhat higher than with typical femoral fracture.⁴⁶ Prophylactic intramedullary nailing should be considered for a patient with intractable pain.²

A radiograph of the opposite leg should be obtained routinely, looking for an asymptomatic fracture. Bisphosphonates should be discontinued and calcium and vitamin D continued. Teriparatide therapy can be considered as an alternative treatment.

Conservative management for incomplete fracture without pain

Incomplete atypical femoral fracture unaccompanied by pain can be followed conservatively.⁴⁷ In addition to stopping antiresorptive therapy, patients need to avoid high-impact and repetitive-impact activities such as jumping or running. If pain occurs, patients should begin protected weight-bearing exercise.

Treatment is uncertain for incomplete fracture with pain

For patients with incomplete atypical femoral fracture and pain, treatment is controversial. Regimens that include 2 to 3 months of protected weight-bearing exercise, a full metabolic bone workup, calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and anabolic bone agents have produced some success. Some authors have reported poor results from conservative care, with few patients achieving pain relief or signs of complete healing.^48,49 Additionally, if an incomplete fracture is found in the opposite femur, protected weight-bearing of both legs may not be possible.

Patients with incomplete fracture should be monitored regularly with radiography and physical examination. If there is progression of the fracture, escalation of pain, or failure to heal within 2 to 3 months, then surgical treatment is necessary.

Prophylactic placement of an intramedullary nail to prevent completion of the fracture and allow a return to full weight-bearing is generally advised.⁵⁰ A long locking plate can be used if bone deformities make it difficult to place an intramedullary nail; however, nails are preferred because they allow formation of endochondral callus, which can be helpful in these difficult-to-heal fractures.

Results from retrospective reviews have shown that surgically treated patients with bis­phosphonate-associated incomplete atypical femoral fracture were more likely than those treated nonsurgically to be pain-free (81% vs 64%) and have radiographic healing (100% vs 18% at final follow-up).⁴⁶ Results have also been positive for those with complete atypical femoral fracture. At 6 months, 64% of surgically treated patients were pain-free and 98% were radiographically healed.⁵¹

The unusual geometry of the femur in patients with atypical femoral fracture and the presence of intramedullary cortical callus makes the placement of an intramedullary femoral rod more complex than in typical femoral fracture.⁸

Intramedullary nailing of atypical femoral fracture is a challenge for even the most experienced surgeon, and vigilance is imperative to avoid iatrogenic fracture and malunion.

MANY QUESTIONS REMAIN

We need more studies on the pathophysiology of bisphosphonate-associated atypical femoral fracture, the value of periodic screening with DXA, and which factors predict high risk (eg, Asian ethnicity, use of certain medications, femoral geometry). In addition, we need more data on the success of conservative management of incomplete fracture, including use of teriparatide.

A 49-year-old man developed nephrotic-range proteinuria (urine protein–creatinine ratio 4.1 g/g), and primary membranous nephropathy was diagnosed by kidney biopsy. He declined therapy apart from angiotensin receptor blockade.

Five months after undergoing the biopsy, he presented to the emergency room with marked dyspnea, cough, and epigastric discomfort. His blood pressure was 160/100 mm Hg, heart rate 95 beats/minute, and oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry 97% at rest on ambient air, decreasing to 92% with ambulation.

Initial laboratory testing results were as follows:

• Sodium 135 mmol/L (reference range 136–144)
• Potassium 3.9 mmol/L (3.7–5.1)
• Chloride 104 mmol/L (97–105)
• Bicarbonate 21 mmol/L (22–30)
• Blood urea nitrogen 14 mg/dL (9–24)
• Serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL (0.73–1.22)
• Albumin 2.1 g/dL (3.4–4.9).

Urinalysis revealed the following:

• 5 red blood cells per high-power field, compared with 1 to 2 previously
• 3+ proteinuria
• Urine protein–creatinine ratio 11 g/g
• No glucosuria.

Electrocardiography revealed normal sinus rhythm without ischemic changes. Chest radiography did not show consolidation.

At 7 months after the thrombotic event, there was no evidence of residual renal vein thrombosis on magnetic resonance venography, and at 14 months his serum creatinine level was 0.9 mg/dL, albumin 4.0 g/dL, and urine protein–creatinine ratio 0.8 g/g.

RENAL VEIN THROMBOSIS: RISK FACTORS AND CLINICAL FEATURES

Severe hypoalbuminemia in the setting of nephrotic syndrome due to membranous neph­ropathy is associated with the highest risk of venous thromboembolic events, with renal vein thrombus being the classic complication.¹ Venous thromboembolic events also occur in other nephrotic syndromes, albeit at a lower frequency.²

Venous thromboembolic events are estimated to occur in 7% to 33% of patients with membranous glomerulopathy, with albumin levels less than 2.8 g/dL considered a notable risk factor.^1,2

While often a chronic complication, acute renal vein thrombosis may present with flank pain and hematuria.³ In our patient, the dramatic increase in proteinuria and possibly the increase in hematuria suggested renal vein thrombosis. Proximal tubular dysfunction, such as glucosuria, can be seen on occasion.

DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT

Screening asymptomatic patients for renal vein thrombosis is not recommended, and the decision to start prophylactic anticoagulation must be individualized.⁴

Although renal venography historically was the gold standard test to diagnose renal vein thrombosis, it has been replaced by noninvasive imaging such as computed tomography and magnetic resonance venography.

While anticoagulation remains the treatment of choice, catheter-directed thrombectomy or surgical thrombectomy can be considered for some patients with acute renal vein thrombosis.⁵

A 49-year-old man developed nephrotic-range proteinuria (urine protein–creatinine ratio 4.1 g/g), and primary membranous nephropathy was diagnosed by kidney biopsy. He declined therapy apart from angiotensin receptor blockade.

Five months after undergoing the biopsy, he presented to the emergency room with marked dyspnea, cough, and epigastric discomfort. His blood pressure was 160/100 mm Hg, heart rate 95 beats/minute, and oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry 97% at rest on ambient air, decreasing to 92% with ambulation.

Initial laboratory testing results were as follows:

• Sodium 135 mmol/L (reference range 136–144)
• Potassium 3.9 mmol/L (3.7–5.1)
• Chloride 104 mmol/L (97–105)
• Bicarbonate 21 mmol/L (22–30)
• Blood urea nitrogen 14 mg/dL (9–24)
• Serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL (0.73–1.22)
• Albumin 2.1 g/dL (3.4–4.9).

Urinalysis revealed the following:

• 5 red blood cells per high-power field, compared with 1 to 2 previously
• 3+ proteinuria
• Urine protein–creatinine ratio 11 g/g
• No glucosuria.

Electrocardiography revealed normal sinus rhythm without ischemic changes. Chest radiography did not show consolidation.

At 7 months after the thrombotic event, there was no evidence of residual renal vein thrombosis on magnetic resonance venography, and at 14 months his serum creatinine level was 0.9 mg/dL, albumin 4.0 g/dL, and urine protein–creatinine ratio 0.8 g/g.

RENAL VEIN THROMBOSIS: RISK FACTORS AND CLINICAL FEATURES

Severe hypoalbuminemia in the setting of nephrotic syndrome due to membranous neph­ropathy is associated with the highest risk of venous thromboembolic events, with renal vein thrombus being the classic complication.¹ Venous thromboembolic events also occur in other nephrotic syndromes, albeit at a lower frequency.²

Venous thromboembolic events are estimated to occur in 7% to 33% of patients with membranous glomerulopathy, with albumin levels less than 2.8 g/dL considered a notable risk factor.^1,2

While often a chronic complication, acute renal vein thrombosis may present with flank pain and hematuria.³ In our patient, the dramatic increase in proteinuria and possibly the increase in hematuria suggested renal vein thrombosis. Proximal tubular dysfunction, such as glucosuria, can be seen on occasion.

DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT

Screening asymptomatic patients for renal vein thrombosis is not recommended, and the decision to start prophylactic anticoagulation must be individualized.⁴

Although renal venography historically was the gold standard test to diagnose renal vein thrombosis, it has been replaced by noninvasive imaging such as computed tomography and magnetic resonance venography.

While anticoagulation remains the treatment of choice, catheter-directed thrombectomy or surgical thrombectomy can be considered for some patients with acute renal vein thrombosis.⁵

A 49-year-old man developed nephrotic-range proteinuria (urine protein–creatinine ratio 4.1 g/g), and primary membranous nephropathy was diagnosed by kidney biopsy. He declined therapy apart from angiotensin receptor blockade.

Five months after undergoing the biopsy, he presented to the emergency room with marked dyspnea, cough, and epigastric discomfort. His blood pressure was 160/100 mm Hg, heart rate 95 beats/minute, and oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry 97% at rest on ambient air, decreasing to 92% with ambulation.

Initial laboratory testing results were as follows:

• Sodium 135 mmol/L (reference range 136–144)
• Potassium 3.9 mmol/L (3.7–5.1)
• Chloride 104 mmol/L (97–105)
• Bicarbonate 21 mmol/L (22–30)
• Blood urea nitrogen 14 mg/dL (9–24)
• Serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL (0.73–1.22)
• Albumin 2.1 g/dL (3.4–4.9).

Urinalysis revealed the following:

• 5 red blood cells per high-power field, compared with 1 to 2 previously
• 3+ proteinuria
• Urine protein–creatinine ratio 11 g/g
• No glucosuria.

Electrocardiography revealed normal sinus rhythm without ischemic changes. Chest radiography did not show consolidation.

At 7 months after the thrombotic event, there was no evidence of residual renal vein thrombosis on magnetic resonance venography, and at 14 months his serum creatinine level was 0.9 mg/dL, albumin 4.0 g/dL, and urine protein–creatinine ratio 0.8 g/g.

RENAL VEIN THROMBOSIS: RISK FACTORS AND CLINICAL FEATURES

Severe hypoalbuminemia in the setting of nephrotic syndrome due to membranous neph­ropathy is associated with the highest risk of venous thromboembolic events, with renal vein thrombus being the classic complication.¹ Venous thromboembolic events also occur in other nephrotic syndromes, albeit at a lower frequency.²

Venous thromboembolic events are estimated to occur in 7% to 33% of patients with membranous glomerulopathy, with albumin levels less than 2.8 g/dL considered a notable risk factor.^1,2

While often a chronic complication, acute renal vein thrombosis may present with flank pain and hematuria.³ In our patient, the dramatic increase in proteinuria and possibly the increase in hematuria suggested renal vein thrombosis. Proximal tubular dysfunction, such as glucosuria, can be seen on occasion.

DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT

Screening asymptomatic patients for renal vein thrombosis is not recommended, and the decision to start prophylactic anticoagulation must be individualized.⁴

Although renal venography historically was the gold standard test to diagnose renal vein thrombosis, it has been replaced by noninvasive imaging such as computed tomography and magnetic resonance venography.

While anticoagulation remains the treatment of choice, catheter-directed thrombectomy or surgical thrombectomy can be considered for some patients with acute renal vein thrombosis.⁵

A 63-year-old woman presented with an acute exacerbation of chronic back pain after a fall. She was taking warfarin because of a history of factor V Leiden, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism, for which a temporary inferior vena cava (IVC) filter had been placed 8 years ago. Her physicians had subsequently tried to remove the filter, without success. Some time after that, 1 of the filter struts had been removed after it migrated through her abdominal wall.

Laboratory testing revealed a supratherapeutic international normalized ratio of 8.5.

The patient underwent endovascular aneurysm repair with adequate placement of a vascular graft. She was discharged on therapeutic anticoagulation, and her back pain had notably improved.

COMPLICATIONS OF IVC FILTERS

In the United States, the use of IVC filters has increased significantly over the last decade, with placement rates ranging from 12% to 17% in patients with venous thromboembolism.¹

The American Heart Association recommends filter placement for patients with venous thromboembolism for whom anticoagulation has failed or is contraindicated, patients unable to withstand pulmonary embolism, and patients who are hemodynamically unstable.² While indications vary in the guidelines released by different societies, filters are most often placed in patients who have an acute bleed, significant surgery after admission for venous thromboembolism, metastatic cancer, and severe illness.³

Complications can occur during and after insertion and during removal. They are more frequent with temporary than with permanent filters, and include filter movement and fracture as well as occlusion and penetration.^4,5

In our patient, we believe that the 3 remaining filter struts likely penetrated the wall of the IVC to the extent that they encountered adjacent structures (aorta, duodenum, kidney).

Of cases of IVC filter penetration reported to a US Food and Drug Administration database, 13.1% involved small bowel perforation, 6.5% involved aortic perforation, and 4.2% involved retroperitoneal bleeding. Symptoms such as abdominal and back pain were present in 38.3% of cases involving IVC penetration.⁵

Therefore, the differential diagnosis for patients with a history of IVC filter placement presenting with these symptoms should address filter complications, including occlusion,  incorrect placement, fracture, migration, and penetration of the filter.⁴ If complications occur, treatment options include anticoagulation, endovascular repair, and surgical intervention.

A 63-year-old woman presented with an acute exacerbation of chronic back pain after a fall. She was taking warfarin because of a history of factor V Leiden, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism, for which a temporary inferior vena cava (IVC) filter had been placed 8 years ago. Her physicians had subsequently tried to remove the filter, without success. Some time after that, 1 of the filter struts had been removed after it migrated through her abdominal wall.

Laboratory testing revealed a supratherapeutic international normalized ratio of 8.5.

The patient underwent endovascular aneurysm repair with adequate placement of a vascular graft. She was discharged on therapeutic anticoagulation, and her back pain had notably improved.

COMPLICATIONS OF IVC FILTERS

In the United States, the use of IVC filters has increased significantly over the last decade, with placement rates ranging from 12% to 17% in patients with venous thromboembolism.¹

The American Heart Association recommends filter placement for patients with venous thromboembolism for whom anticoagulation has failed or is contraindicated, patients unable to withstand pulmonary embolism, and patients who are hemodynamically unstable.² While indications vary in the guidelines released by different societies, filters are most often placed in patients who have an acute bleed, significant surgery after admission for venous thromboembolism, metastatic cancer, and severe illness.³

Complications can occur during and after insertion and during removal. They are more frequent with temporary than with permanent filters, and include filter movement and fracture as well as occlusion and penetration.^4,5

In our patient, we believe that the 3 remaining filter struts likely penetrated the wall of the IVC to the extent that they encountered adjacent structures (aorta, duodenum, kidney).

Of cases of IVC filter penetration reported to a US Food and Drug Administration database, 13.1% involved small bowel perforation, 6.5% involved aortic perforation, and 4.2% involved retroperitoneal bleeding. Symptoms such as abdominal and back pain were present in 38.3% of cases involving IVC penetration.⁵

Therefore, the differential diagnosis for patients with a history of IVC filter placement presenting with these symptoms should address filter complications, including occlusion,  incorrect placement, fracture, migration, and penetration of the filter.⁴ If complications occur, treatment options include anticoagulation, endovascular repair, and surgical intervention.

A 63-year-old woman presented with an acute exacerbation of chronic back pain after a fall. She was taking warfarin because of a history of factor V Leiden, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism, for which a temporary inferior vena cava (IVC) filter had been placed 8 years ago. Her physicians had subsequently tried to remove the filter, without success. Some time after that, 1 of the filter struts had been removed after it migrated through her abdominal wall.

Laboratory testing revealed a supratherapeutic international normalized ratio of 8.5.

The patient underwent endovascular aneurysm repair with adequate placement of a vascular graft. She was discharged on therapeutic anticoagulation, and her back pain had notably improved.

COMPLICATIONS OF IVC FILTERS

In the United States, the use of IVC filters has increased significantly over the last decade, with placement rates ranging from 12% to 17% in patients with venous thromboembolism.¹

The American Heart Association recommends filter placement for patients with venous thromboembolism for whom anticoagulation has failed or is contraindicated, patients unable to withstand pulmonary embolism, and patients who are hemodynamically unstable.² While indications vary in the guidelines released by different societies, filters are most often placed in patients who have an acute bleed, significant surgery after admission for venous thromboembolism, metastatic cancer, and severe illness.³

Complications can occur during and after insertion and during removal. They are more frequent with temporary than with permanent filters, and include filter movement and fracture as well as occlusion and penetration.^4,5

In our patient, we believe that the 3 remaining filter struts likely penetrated the wall of the IVC to the extent that they encountered adjacent structures (aorta, duodenum, kidney).

Of cases of IVC filter penetration reported to a US Food and Drug Administration database, 13.1% involved small bowel perforation, 6.5% involved aortic perforation, and 4.2% involved retroperitoneal bleeding. Symptoms such as abdominal and back pain were present in 38.3% of cases involving IVC penetration.⁵

Therefore, the differential diagnosis for patients with a history of IVC filter placement presenting with these symptoms should address filter complications, including occlusion,  incorrect placement, fracture, migration, and penetration of the filter.⁴ If complications occur, treatment options include anticoagulation, endovascular repair, and surgical intervention.

Most patients admitted with pulmonary embolism (PE) do not need transthoracic echocardiography (TTE); it should be performed in hemodynamically unstable patients, as well as in hemodynamically stable patients with specific elevated cardiac biomarkers and imaging features.

The decision to perform TTE should be based on clinical presentation, PE burden, and imaging findings (eg, computed tomographic angiography). TTE helps to stratify risk, guide management, monitor response to therapy, and give prognostic information for a subset of patients at increased risk for PE-related adverse events.

RISK STRATIFICATION IN PULMONARY EMBOLISM

PE has a spectrum of presentations ranging from no symptoms to shock. Based on the clinical presentation, PE can be categorized as high, intermediate, or low risk.

High-risk PE, often referred to as “massive” PE, is defined in current American Heart Association guidelines as acute PE with sustained hypotension (systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg for at least 15 minutes or requiring inotropic support), persistent profound bradycardia (heart rate < 40 beats per minute with signs or symptoms of shock), syncope, or cardiac arrest.¹

Intermediate-risk or “submassive” PE is more challenging to identify because patients are more hemodynamically stable, yet have evidence on electrocardiography, TTE, computed tomography, or cardiac biomarker testing—ie, N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) or troponin—that indicates myocardial injury or volume overload.¹

Low-risk PE is acute PE in the absence of clinical markers of adverse prognosis that define massive or submassive PE.¹

ECHOCARDIOGRAPHIC FEATURES OF HIGH-RISK PULMONARY EMBOLISM

Certain TTE findings suggest increased risk of a poor outcome and may warrant therapy that is more invasive and aggressive. High-risk features include the following:

• Impaired right ventricular function
• Interventricular septum bulging into the left ventricle (“D-shaped” septum)
• Dilated proximal pulmonary arteries
• Increased severity of tricuspid regurgitation
• Elevated right atrial pressure
• Elevated pulmonary artery pressure
• Free-floating right ventricular thrombi, which are associated with a mortality rate of up to 45% and can be detected in 7% to 18% of patients⁶
• Tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion, an echocardiographic measure of right ventricular function¹; a value less than 17 mm suggests impaired right ventricular systolic function⁷
• The McConnell sign, a feature of acute massive PE: akinesia of the mid-free wall of the right ventricle and hypercontractility of the apex.

These TTE findings often lead to treatment with thrombolysis, transfer to the intensive care unit, and activation of the interventional team for catheter-based therapies.^1,8 Free-floating right heart thrombi or thrombus straddling the interatrial septum (“thrombus in transit”) through a patent foramen ovale may require surgical embolectomy.⁸

PATIENT SELECTION AND INDICATIONS FOR ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY

Most patients admitted with pulmonary embolism (PE) do not need transthoracic echocardiography (TTE); it should be performed in hemodynamically unstable patients, as well as in hemodynamically stable patients with specific elevated cardiac biomarkers and imaging features.

The decision to perform TTE should be based on clinical presentation, PE burden, and imaging findings (eg, computed tomographic angiography). TTE helps to stratify risk, guide management, monitor response to therapy, and give prognostic information for a subset of patients at increased risk for PE-related adverse events.

RISK STRATIFICATION IN PULMONARY EMBOLISM

PE has a spectrum of presentations ranging from no symptoms to shock. Based on the clinical presentation, PE can be categorized as high, intermediate, or low risk.

High-risk PE, often referred to as “massive” PE, is defined in current American Heart Association guidelines as acute PE with sustained hypotension (systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg for at least 15 minutes or requiring inotropic support), persistent profound bradycardia (heart rate < 40 beats per minute with signs or symptoms of shock), syncope, or cardiac arrest.¹

Intermediate-risk or “submassive” PE is more challenging to identify because patients are more hemodynamically stable, yet have evidence on electrocardiography, TTE, computed tomography, or cardiac biomarker testing—ie, N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) or troponin—that indicates myocardial injury or volume overload.¹

Low-risk PE is acute PE in the absence of clinical markers of adverse prognosis that define massive or submassive PE.¹

ECHOCARDIOGRAPHIC FEATURES OF HIGH-RISK PULMONARY EMBOLISM

Certain TTE findings suggest increased risk of a poor outcome and may warrant therapy that is more invasive and aggressive. High-risk features include the following:

• Impaired right ventricular function
• Interventricular septum bulging into the left ventricle (“D-shaped” septum)
• Dilated proximal pulmonary arteries
• Increased severity of tricuspid regurgitation
• Elevated right atrial pressure
• Elevated pulmonary artery pressure
• Free-floating right ventricular thrombi, which are associated with a mortality rate of up to 45% and can be detected in 7% to 18% of patients⁶
• Tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion, an echocardiographic measure of right ventricular function¹; a value less than 17 mm suggests impaired right ventricular systolic function⁷
• The McConnell sign, a feature of acute massive PE: akinesia of the mid-free wall of the right ventricle and hypercontractility of the apex.

These TTE findings often lead to treatment with thrombolysis, transfer to the intensive care unit, and activation of the interventional team for catheter-based therapies.^1,8 Free-floating right heart thrombi or thrombus straddling the interatrial septum (“thrombus in transit”) through a patent foramen ovale may require surgical embolectomy.⁸

PATIENT SELECTION AND INDICATIONS FOR ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY

Most patients admitted with pulmonary embolism (PE) do not need transthoracic echocardiography (TTE); it should be performed in hemodynamically unstable patients, as well as in hemodynamically stable patients with specific elevated cardiac biomarkers and imaging features.

The decision to perform TTE should be based on clinical presentation, PE burden, and imaging findings (eg, computed tomographic angiography). TTE helps to stratify risk, guide management, monitor response to therapy, and give prognostic information for a subset of patients at increased risk for PE-related adverse events.

RISK STRATIFICATION IN PULMONARY EMBOLISM

PE has a spectrum of presentations ranging from no symptoms to shock. Based on the clinical presentation, PE can be categorized as high, intermediate, or low risk.

High-risk PE, often referred to as “massive” PE, is defined in current American Heart Association guidelines as acute PE with sustained hypotension (systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg for at least 15 minutes or requiring inotropic support), persistent profound bradycardia (heart rate < 40 beats per minute with signs or symptoms of shock), syncope, or cardiac arrest.¹

Intermediate-risk or “submassive” PE is more challenging to identify because patients are more hemodynamically stable, yet have evidence on electrocardiography, TTE, computed tomography, or cardiac biomarker testing—ie, N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) or troponin—that indicates myocardial injury or volume overload.¹

Low-risk PE is acute PE in the absence of clinical markers of adverse prognosis that define massive or submassive PE.¹

ECHOCARDIOGRAPHIC FEATURES OF HIGH-RISK PULMONARY EMBOLISM

Certain TTE findings suggest increased risk of a poor outcome and may warrant therapy that is more invasive and aggressive. High-risk features include the following:

• Impaired right ventricular function
• Interventricular septum bulging into the left ventricle (“D-shaped” septum)
• Dilated proximal pulmonary arteries
• Increased severity of tricuspid regurgitation
• Elevated right atrial pressure
• Elevated pulmonary artery pressure
• Free-floating right ventricular thrombi, which are associated with a mortality rate of up to 45% and can be detected in 7% to 18% of patients⁶
• Tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion, an echocardiographic measure of right ventricular function¹; a value less than 17 mm suggests impaired right ventricular systolic function⁷
• The McConnell sign, a feature of acute massive PE: akinesia of the mid-free wall of the right ventricle and hypercontractility of the apex.

These TTE findings often lead to treatment with thrombolysis, transfer to the intensive care unit, and activation of the interventional team for catheter-based therapies.^1,8 Free-floating right heart thrombi or thrombus straddling the interatrial septum (“thrombus in transit”) through a patent foramen ovale may require surgical embolectomy.⁸

PATIENT SELECTION AND INDICATIONS FOR ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY

A 76-year-old man whose history included abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, bilateral femoral artery bypass for popliteal artery aneurysm, hypertension, and peptic ulcer disease was admitted to a community hospital with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Two days earlier, he had undergone repair of a ventral hernia.

At the time of that admission, he reported no fever, chills, night sweats, cough, or history of heart or lung disease. His vital signs were normal, and physical examination had revealed no apparent respiratory distress, no jugular venous distention, normal heart sounds, and no pedal edema; however, decreased air entry was noted in the right lung base. Initial serum levels of troponin and N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide were normal.

At that time, computed tomographic angiography of the chest showed segmental pulmonary emboli in the left upper and right lower lobes of the lungs and right pleural effusion. Transthoracic echocardiography showed normal atrial and ventricular sizes with no right or left ventricular systolic dysfunction and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 59%.

Treatment with intravenous heparin was started, and the patient was transferred to our hospital.

PLEURAL EFFUSION AND PULMONARY EMBOLISM

1. Which of the following is true about pleural effusion?

• It is rarely, if ever, associated with pulmonary embolism
• Most patients with pleural effusion due to pulmonary embolism do not have pleuritic chest pain
• Pulmonary embolism should be excluded in all cases of pleural effusion without a clear cause

Pulmonary embolism should be excluded in all cases of pleural effusion that do not have a clear cause. As for the other answer choices:

• Pulmonary embolism is the fourth leading cause of pleural effusion in the United States, after heart failure, pneumonia, and malignancy.¹
• About 75% of patients who develop pleural effusion in the setting of pulmonary embolism complain of pleuritic chest pain on the side of the effusion.² Most effusions are unilateral, small, and usually exudative.³

EVALUATION BEGINS: RESULTS OF THORACENTESIS

Our patient continued to receive intravenous heparin.

He underwent thoracentesis on hospital day 3, and 1,000 mL of turbid sanguineous pleural fluid was removed. Analysis of the fluid showed pH 7.27, white blood cell count 3.797 × 10⁹/L with 80% neutrophils, and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) concentration 736 U/L (a ratio of pleural fluid LDH to a concurrent serum LDH > 0.6 is suggestive of an exudate); the fluid was also sent for culture and cytology. Thoracentesis was terminated early due to cough, and follow-up chest radiography showed a moderate-sized pneumothorax.

Computed tomography (CT) of the chest at this time showed a small wedge-shaped area of lung consolidation in the right lower lobe (also seen on CT done 1 day before admission to our hospital), with an intrinsic air-fluid level suggesting a focal infarct or lung abscess, now obscured by adjacent consolidation and atelectasis. In the interval since the previous CT, the multiloculated right pleural effusion had increased in size (Figure 1).

THE NEXT STEP

2. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

• Consult an interventional radiologist for chest tube placement
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy and ask an interventional radiologist to place a chest tube
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy, withhold anticoagulation, and consult a thoracic surgeon
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy and consult a thoracic surgeon while continuing anticoagulation

The most appropriate next step is to start empiric antibiotic therapy and consult a thoracic surgeon while continuing anticoagulation.

In this patient, it is appropriate to initiate antibiotics empirically on the basis of his significant pleural loculations, a wedge-shaped consolidation, and 80% neutrophils in the pleural fluid, all of which suggest infection. The unmasking of a wedge-shaped consolidation after thoracentesis, with a previously noted air-fluid level and an interval increase in multiloculated pleural fluid, raises suspicion of a necrotic infection that may have ruptured into the pleural space, a possible lung infarct, or a malignancy. Hence, simply placing a chest tube may not be enough.

Blood in the pleural fluid does not necessitate withholding anticoagulation unless the bleeding is heavy. A pleural fluid hematocrit greater than 50% of the peripheral blood hematocrit suggests hemothorax and is an indication to withhold anticoagulation.¹ Our patient’s pleural fluid was qualitatively sanguineous but not frankly bloody, and therefore we judged that it was not necessary to stop his heparin.

HOW DOES PULMONARY INFARCTION PRESENT CLINICALLY?

3. Which of the following statements about pulmonary infarction is incorrect?

• Cavitation and infarction are more common with larger emboli
• Cavitation occurs in fewer than 10% of pulmonary infarctions
• Lung abscess develops in more than 50% of pulmonary infarctions
• Pulmonary thromboembolism is the most common cause of pulmonary infarction

Lung abscess develops in far fewer than 50% of cases of pulmonary infarction. The rest of the statements are correct.

Cavitation complicates about 4% to 7% of infarctions and is more common when the infarction is 4 cm or greater in diameter.⁴ These cavities are usually single and predominantly on the right side in the apical or posterior segment of the upper lobe or the apical segment of the right lower lobe, as in our patient.^5–8 CT demonstrating scalloped inner margins and cross-cavity band shadows suggests a cavitary pulmonary infarction.^9,10

Infection and abscess in pulmonary infarction are poorly understood but have been linked to larger infarctions, coexistent congestion or atelectasis, and dental or oropharyngeal infection. In an early series of 550 cases of pulmonary infarction, 23 patients (4.2%) developed lung abscess and 6 (1.1%) developed empyema.¹¹ The mean time to cavitation for an infected pulmonary infarction has been reported to be 18 days.¹²

A reversed halo sign, generally described as a focal, rounded area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by a nearly complete ring of consolidation, has been reported to be more frequent with pulmonary infarction than with other diseases, especially when in the lower lobes.¹³

CASE CONTINUED: THORACOSCOPY

A cardiothoracic surgeon was consulted, intravenous heparin was discontinued, an inferior vena cava filter was placed, and the patient underwent video-assisted thoracoscopy.

Purulent fluid was noted on the lateral aspect of right lower lobe; this appeared to be the ruptured cavitary lesion functioning like an uncontrolled bronchopleural fistula. Two chest tubes, sizes 32F and 28F, were placed after decortication, resection of the lung abscess, and closure of the bronchopleural fistula. No significant air leak was noted after resection of this segment of lung.

Pathologic study showed acute organizing pneumonia with abscess formation; no malignant cells or granulomas were seen (Figure 2). Pleural fluid cultures grew Streptococcus intermedius, while the tissue culture was negative for any growth, including acid-fast bacilli and fungi.

On 3 different occasions, both chest tubes were shortened, backed out 2 cm, and resecured with sutures and pins, and Heimlich valves were applied before the patient was discharged.

Intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam was started on the fifth hospital day. On discharge, the patient was advised to continue this treatment for 3 weeks at home.

The patient was receiving enoxaparin subcutaneously in prophylactic doses; 72 hours after the thorascopic procedure this was increased to therapeutic doses, continuing after discharge. Bridging to warfarin was not advised in view of his chest tubes.

Our patient appeared to have developed a right lower lobe infarction that cavitated and ruptured into the pleural space, causing a bronchopleural fistula with empyema after a recent pulmonary embolism. Other reported causes of pulmonary infarction in pulmonary embolism are malignancy and heavy clot burden,⁶ but these have not been confirmed in subsequent studies.⁵ Malignancy was ruled out by biopsy of the resected portion of the lung, and our patient did not have a history of heart failure. A clear cavity was not noted (because it ruptured into the pleura), but an air-fluid level was described in a wedge-shaped consolidation, suggesting infarction.

How common is pulmonary infarction after pulmonary embolism?

Pulmonary infarction occurs in few patients with pulmonary embolism.¹³ Since the lungs receive oxygen from the airways and have a dual blood supply from the pulmonary and bronchial arteries, they are not particularly vulnerable to ischemia. However, the reported incidence of pulmonary infarction in patients with pulmonary embolism has ranged from 10% to higher than 30%.^5,14,15

The reasons behind pulmonary infarction with complications after pulmonary embolism have varied in different case series in different eras. CT, biopsy, or autopsy studies reveal pulmonary infarction after pulmonary embolism to be more common than suspected by clinical symptoms.

In a Mayo Clinic series of 43 cases of pulmonary infarction diagnosed over a 6-year period by surgical lung biopsy, 18 (42%) of the patients had underlying pulmonary thromboembolism, which was the most common cause.¹⁶

4. Which statement about risk factors for pulmonary infarction in pulmonary embolism is incorrect?

• Heart failure may be a risk factor for pulmonary infarction
• Pulmonary hemorrhage is a risk factor for pulmonary infarction
• Pulmonary infarction is more common with more proximal sites of pulmonary embolism
• Collateral circulation may protect against pulmonary infarction

Infarction is more common with emboli that are distal rather than proximal.

Dalen et al¹⁵ suggested that after pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hemorrhage is an important contributor to the development of pulmonary infarction independent of the presence or absence of associated cardiac or pulmonary disease, but that the effect depends on the site of obstruction.

This idea was first proposed in 1913, when Karsner and Ghoreyeb¹⁷ showed that when pulmonary arteries are completely obstructed, the bronchial arteries take over, except when the embolism is present in a small branch of the pulmonary artery. This is because the physiologic anastomosis between the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries is located at the precapillary level of the pulmonary artery, and the bronchial circulation does not take over until the pulmonary arterial pressure in the area of the embolism drops to zero.

Using CT data, Kirchner et al⁵ confirmed that the risk of pulmonary infarction is higher if the obstruction is peripheral, ie, distal.

Using autopsy data, Tsao et al¹⁸ reported a higher risk of pulmonary infarction in embolic occlusion of pulmonary vessels less than 3 mm in diameter.

Collateral circulation has been shown to protect against pulmonary infarction. For example, Miniati et al¹⁴ showed that healthy young patients with pulmonary embolism were more prone to develop pulmonary infarction, probably because they had less efficient collateral systems in the peripheral lung fields. In lung transplant recipients, it has been shown that the risk of infarction decreased with development of collateral circulation.¹⁹

Dalen et al,¹⁵ however, attributed delayed resolution of pulmonary hemorrhage (as measured by resolution of infiltrate on chest radiography) to higher underlying pulmonary venous pressure in patients with heart failure and consequent pulmonary infarction. In comparison, healthy patients without cardiac or pulmonary disease have faster resolution of pulmonary hemorrhage when present, and less likelihood of pulmonary infarction (and death in submassive pulmonary embolism).

Data on the management of infected pulmonary infarction are limited. Mortality rates have been as high as 41% with noninfected and 73% with infected cavitary infarctions.⁴ Some authors have advocated early surgical resection in view of high rates of failure of medical treatment due to lack of blood supply within the cavity and continued risk of infection.

KEY POINTS

In patients with a recently diagnosed pulmonary embolism and concurrent symptoms of bacterial pneumonia, a diagnosis of cavitary pulmonary infarction should be considered.

Consolidations that are pleural-based with sharp, rounded margins and with focal areas of central hyperlucencies representing hemorrhage on the mediastinal windows on CT are more likely to represent a pulmonary infarct.²⁰

A 76-year-old man whose history included abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, bilateral femoral artery bypass for popliteal artery aneurysm, hypertension, and peptic ulcer disease was admitted to a community hospital with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Two days earlier, he had undergone repair of a ventral hernia.

At the time of that admission, he reported no fever, chills, night sweats, cough, or history of heart or lung disease. His vital signs were normal, and physical examination had revealed no apparent respiratory distress, no jugular venous distention, normal heart sounds, and no pedal edema; however, decreased air entry was noted in the right lung base. Initial serum levels of troponin and N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide were normal.

At that time, computed tomographic angiography of the chest showed segmental pulmonary emboli in the left upper and right lower lobes of the lungs and right pleural effusion. Transthoracic echocardiography showed normal atrial and ventricular sizes with no right or left ventricular systolic dysfunction and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 59%.

Treatment with intravenous heparin was started, and the patient was transferred to our hospital.

PLEURAL EFFUSION AND PULMONARY EMBOLISM

1. Which of the following is true about pleural effusion?

• It is rarely, if ever, associated with pulmonary embolism
• Most patients with pleural effusion due to pulmonary embolism do not have pleuritic chest pain
• Pulmonary embolism should be excluded in all cases of pleural effusion without a clear cause

Pulmonary embolism should be excluded in all cases of pleural effusion that do not have a clear cause. As for the other answer choices:

• Pulmonary embolism is the fourth leading cause of pleural effusion in the United States, after heart failure, pneumonia, and malignancy.¹
• About 75% of patients who develop pleural effusion in the setting of pulmonary embolism complain of pleuritic chest pain on the side of the effusion.² Most effusions are unilateral, small, and usually exudative.³

EVALUATION BEGINS: RESULTS OF THORACENTESIS

Our patient continued to receive intravenous heparin.

He underwent thoracentesis on hospital day 3, and 1,000 mL of turbid sanguineous pleural fluid was removed. Analysis of the fluid showed pH 7.27, white blood cell count 3.797 × 10⁹/L with 80% neutrophils, and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) concentration 736 U/L (a ratio of pleural fluid LDH to a concurrent serum LDH > 0.6 is suggestive of an exudate); the fluid was also sent for culture and cytology. Thoracentesis was terminated early due to cough, and follow-up chest radiography showed a moderate-sized pneumothorax.

Computed tomography (CT) of the chest at this time showed a small wedge-shaped area of lung consolidation in the right lower lobe (also seen on CT done 1 day before admission to our hospital), with an intrinsic air-fluid level suggesting a focal infarct or lung abscess, now obscured by adjacent consolidation and atelectasis. In the interval since the previous CT, the multiloculated right pleural effusion had increased in size (Figure 1).

THE NEXT STEP

2. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

• Consult an interventional radiologist for chest tube placement
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy and ask an interventional radiologist to place a chest tube
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy, withhold anticoagulation, and consult a thoracic surgeon
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy and consult a thoracic surgeon while continuing anticoagulation

The most appropriate next step is to start empiric antibiotic therapy and consult a thoracic surgeon while continuing anticoagulation.

In this patient, it is appropriate to initiate antibiotics empirically on the basis of his significant pleural loculations, a wedge-shaped consolidation, and 80% neutrophils in the pleural fluid, all of which suggest infection. The unmasking of a wedge-shaped consolidation after thoracentesis, with a previously noted air-fluid level and an interval increase in multiloculated pleural fluid, raises suspicion of a necrotic infection that may have ruptured into the pleural space, a possible lung infarct, or a malignancy. Hence, simply placing a chest tube may not be enough.

Blood in the pleural fluid does not necessitate withholding anticoagulation unless the bleeding is heavy. A pleural fluid hematocrit greater than 50% of the peripheral blood hematocrit suggests hemothorax and is an indication to withhold anticoagulation.¹ Our patient’s pleural fluid was qualitatively sanguineous but not frankly bloody, and therefore we judged that it was not necessary to stop his heparin.

HOW DOES PULMONARY INFARCTION PRESENT CLINICALLY?

3. Which of the following statements about pulmonary infarction is incorrect?

• Cavitation and infarction are more common with larger emboli
• Cavitation occurs in fewer than 10% of pulmonary infarctions
• Lung abscess develops in more than 50% of pulmonary infarctions
• Pulmonary thromboembolism is the most common cause of pulmonary infarction

Lung abscess develops in far fewer than 50% of cases of pulmonary infarction. The rest of the statements are correct.

Cavitation complicates about 4% to 7% of infarctions and is more common when the infarction is 4 cm or greater in diameter.⁴ These cavities are usually single and predominantly on the right side in the apical or posterior segment of the upper lobe or the apical segment of the right lower lobe, as in our patient.^5–8 CT demonstrating scalloped inner margins and cross-cavity band shadows suggests a cavitary pulmonary infarction.^9,10

Infection and abscess in pulmonary infarction are poorly understood but have been linked to larger infarctions, coexistent congestion or atelectasis, and dental or oropharyngeal infection. In an early series of 550 cases of pulmonary infarction, 23 patients (4.2%) developed lung abscess and 6 (1.1%) developed empyema.¹¹ The mean time to cavitation for an infected pulmonary infarction has been reported to be 18 days.¹²

A reversed halo sign, generally described as a focal, rounded area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by a nearly complete ring of consolidation, has been reported to be more frequent with pulmonary infarction than with other diseases, especially when in the lower lobes.¹³

CASE CONTINUED: THORACOSCOPY

A cardiothoracic surgeon was consulted, intravenous heparin was discontinued, an inferior vena cava filter was placed, and the patient underwent video-assisted thoracoscopy.

Purulent fluid was noted on the lateral aspect of right lower lobe; this appeared to be the ruptured cavitary lesion functioning like an uncontrolled bronchopleural fistula. Two chest tubes, sizes 32F and 28F, were placed after decortication, resection of the lung abscess, and closure of the bronchopleural fistula. No significant air leak was noted after resection of this segment of lung.

Pathologic study showed acute organizing pneumonia with abscess formation; no malignant cells or granulomas were seen (Figure 2). Pleural fluid cultures grew Streptococcus intermedius, while the tissue culture was negative for any growth, including acid-fast bacilli and fungi.

On 3 different occasions, both chest tubes were shortened, backed out 2 cm, and resecured with sutures and pins, and Heimlich valves were applied before the patient was discharged.

Intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam was started on the fifth hospital day. On discharge, the patient was advised to continue this treatment for 3 weeks at home.

The patient was receiving enoxaparin subcutaneously in prophylactic doses; 72 hours after the thorascopic procedure this was increased to therapeutic doses, continuing after discharge. Bridging to warfarin was not advised in view of his chest tubes.

Our patient appeared to have developed a right lower lobe infarction that cavitated and ruptured into the pleural space, causing a bronchopleural fistula with empyema after a recent pulmonary embolism. Other reported causes of pulmonary infarction in pulmonary embolism are malignancy and heavy clot burden,⁶ but these have not been confirmed in subsequent studies.⁵ Malignancy was ruled out by biopsy of the resected portion of the lung, and our patient did not have a history of heart failure. A clear cavity was not noted (because it ruptured into the pleura), but an air-fluid level was described in a wedge-shaped consolidation, suggesting infarction.

How common is pulmonary infarction after pulmonary embolism?

Pulmonary infarction occurs in few patients with pulmonary embolism.¹³ Since the lungs receive oxygen from the airways and have a dual blood supply from the pulmonary and bronchial arteries, they are not particularly vulnerable to ischemia. However, the reported incidence of pulmonary infarction in patients with pulmonary embolism has ranged from 10% to higher than 30%.^5,14,15

The reasons behind pulmonary infarction with complications after pulmonary embolism have varied in different case series in different eras. CT, biopsy, or autopsy studies reveal pulmonary infarction after pulmonary embolism to be more common than suspected by clinical symptoms.

In a Mayo Clinic series of 43 cases of pulmonary infarction diagnosed over a 6-year period by surgical lung biopsy, 18 (42%) of the patients had underlying pulmonary thromboembolism, which was the most common cause.¹⁶

4. Which statement about risk factors for pulmonary infarction in pulmonary embolism is incorrect?

• Heart failure may be a risk factor for pulmonary infarction
• Pulmonary hemorrhage is a risk factor for pulmonary infarction
• Pulmonary infarction is more common with more proximal sites of pulmonary embolism
• Collateral circulation may protect against pulmonary infarction

Infarction is more common with emboli that are distal rather than proximal.

Dalen et al¹⁵ suggested that after pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hemorrhage is an important contributor to the development of pulmonary infarction independent of the presence or absence of associated cardiac or pulmonary disease, but that the effect depends on the site of obstruction.

This idea was first proposed in 1913, when Karsner and Ghoreyeb¹⁷ showed that when pulmonary arteries are completely obstructed, the bronchial arteries take over, except when the embolism is present in a small branch of the pulmonary artery. This is because the physiologic anastomosis between the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries is located at the precapillary level of the pulmonary artery, and the bronchial circulation does not take over until the pulmonary arterial pressure in the area of the embolism drops to zero.

Using CT data, Kirchner et al⁵ confirmed that the risk of pulmonary infarction is higher if the obstruction is peripheral, ie, distal.

Using autopsy data, Tsao et al¹⁸ reported a higher risk of pulmonary infarction in embolic occlusion of pulmonary vessels less than 3 mm in diameter.

Collateral circulation has been shown to protect against pulmonary infarction. For example, Miniati et al¹⁴ showed that healthy young patients with pulmonary embolism were more prone to develop pulmonary infarction, probably because they had less efficient collateral systems in the peripheral lung fields. In lung transplant recipients, it has been shown that the risk of infarction decreased with development of collateral circulation.¹⁹

Dalen et al,¹⁵ however, attributed delayed resolution of pulmonary hemorrhage (as measured by resolution of infiltrate on chest radiography) to higher underlying pulmonary venous pressure in patients with heart failure and consequent pulmonary infarction. In comparison, healthy patients without cardiac or pulmonary disease have faster resolution of pulmonary hemorrhage when present, and less likelihood of pulmonary infarction (and death in submassive pulmonary embolism).

Data on the management of infected pulmonary infarction are limited. Mortality rates have been as high as 41% with noninfected and 73% with infected cavitary infarctions.⁴ Some authors have advocated early surgical resection in view of high rates of failure of medical treatment due to lack of blood supply within the cavity and continued risk of infection.

KEY POINTS

In patients with a recently diagnosed pulmonary embolism and concurrent symptoms of bacterial pneumonia, a diagnosis of cavitary pulmonary infarction should be considered.

Consolidations that are pleural-based with sharp, rounded margins and with focal areas of central hyperlucencies representing hemorrhage on the mediastinal windows on CT are more likely to represent a pulmonary infarct.²⁰

A 76-year-old man whose history included abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, bilateral femoral artery bypass for popliteal artery aneurysm, hypertension, and peptic ulcer disease was admitted to a community hospital with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Two days earlier, he had undergone repair of a ventral hernia.

At the time of that admission, he reported no fever, chills, night sweats, cough, or history of heart or lung disease. His vital signs were normal, and physical examination had revealed no apparent respiratory distress, no jugular venous distention, normal heart sounds, and no pedal edema; however, decreased air entry was noted in the right lung base. Initial serum levels of troponin and N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide were normal.

At that time, computed tomographic angiography of the chest showed segmental pulmonary emboli in the left upper and right lower lobes of the lungs and right pleural effusion. Transthoracic echocardiography showed normal atrial and ventricular sizes with no right or left ventricular systolic dysfunction and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 59%.

Treatment with intravenous heparin was started, and the patient was transferred to our hospital.

PLEURAL EFFUSION AND PULMONARY EMBOLISM

1. Which of the following is true about pleural effusion?

• It is rarely, if ever, associated with pulmonary embolism
• Most patients with pleural effusion due to pulmonary embolism do not have pleuritic chest pain
• Pulmonary embolism should be excluded in all cases of pleural effusion without a clear cause

Pulmonary embolism should be excluded in all cases of pleural effusion that do not have a clear cause. As for the other answer choices:

• Pulmonary embolism is the fourth leading cause of pleural effusion in the United States, after heart failure, pneumonia, and malignancy.¹
• About 75% of patients who develop pleural effusion in the setting of pulmonary embolism complain of pleuritic chest pain on the side of the effusion.² Most effusions are unilateral, small, and usually exudative.³

EVALUATION BEGINS: RESULTS OF THORACENTESIS

Our patient continued to receive intravenous heparin.

He underwent thoracentesis on hospital day 3, and 1,000 mL of turbid sanguineous pleural fluid was removed. Analysis of the fluid showed pH 7.27, white blood cell count 3.797 × 10⁹/L with 80% neutrophils, and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) concentration 736 U/L (a ratio of pleural fluid LDH to a concurrent serum LDH > 0.6 is suggestive of an exudate); the fluid was also sent for culture and cytology. Thoracentesis was terminated early due to cough, and follow-up chest radiography showed a moderate-sized pneumothorax.

Computed tomography (CT) of the chest at this time showed a small wedge-shaped area of lung consolidation in the right lower lobe (also seen on CT done 1 day before admission to our hospital), with an intrinsic air-fluid level suggesting a focal infarct or lung abscess, now obscured by adjacent consolidation and atelectasis. In the interval since the previous CT, the multiloculated right pleural effusion had increased in size (Figure 1).

THE NEXT STEP

2. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

• Consult an interventional radiologist for chest tube placement
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy and ask an interventional radiologist to place a chest tube
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy, withhold anticoagulation, and consult a thoracic surgeon
• Start empiric antibiotic therapy and consult a thoracic surgeon while continuing anticoagulation

The most appropriate next step is to start empiric antibiotic therapy and consult a thoracic surgeon while continuing anticoagulation.

In this patient, it is appropriate to initiate antibiotics empirically on the basis of his significant pleural loculations, a wedge-shaped consolidation, and 80% neutrophils in the pleural fluid, all of which suggest infection. The unmasking of a wedge-shaped consolidation after thoracentesis, with a previously noted air-fluid level and an interval increase in multiloculated pleural fluid, raises suspicion of a necrotic infection that may have ruptured into the pleural space, a possible lung infarct, or a malignancy. Hence, simply placing a chest tube may not be enough.

Blood in the pleural fluid does not necessitate withholding anticoagulation unless the bleeding is heavy. A pleural fluid hematocrit greater than 50% of the peripheral blood hematocrit suggests hemothorax and is an indication to withhold anticoagulation.¹ Our patient’s pleural fluid was qualitatively sanguineous but not frankly bloody, and therefore we judged that it was not necessary to stop his heparin.

HOW DOES PULMONARY INFARCTION PRESENT CLINICALLY?

3. Which of the following statements about pulmonary infarction is incorrect?

• Cavitation and infarction are more common with larger emboli
• Cavitation occurs in fewer than 10% of pulmonary infarctions
• Lung abscess develops in more than 50% of pulmonary infarctions
• Pulmonary thromboembolism is the most common cause of pulmonary infarction

Lung abscess develops in far fewer than 50% of cases of pulmonary infarction. The rest of the statements are correct.

Cavitation complicates about 4% to 7% of infarctions and is more common when the infarction is 4 cm or greater in diameter.⁴ These cavities are usually single and predominantly on the right side in the apical or posterior segment of the upper lobe or the apical segment of the right lower lobe, as in our patient.^5–8 CT demonstrating scalloped inner margins and cross-cavity band shadows suggests a cavitary pulmonary infarction.^9,10

Infection and abscess in pulmonary infarction are poorly understood but have been linked to larger infarctions, coexistent congestion or atelectasis, and dental or oropharyngeal infection. In an early series of 550 cases of pulmonary infarction, 23 patients (4.2%) developed lung abscess and 6 (1.1%) developed empyema.¹¹ The mean time to cavitation for an infected pulmonary infarction has been reported to be 18 days.¹²

A reversed halo sign, generally described as a focal, rounded area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by a nearly complete ring of consolidation, has been reported to be more frequent with pulmonary infarction than with other diseases, especially when in the lower lobes.¹³

CASE CONTINUED: THORACOSCOPY

A cardiothoracic surgeon was consulted, intravenous heparin was discontinued, an inferior vena cava filter was placed, and the patient underwent video-assisted thoracoscopy.

Purulent fluid was noted on the lateral aspect of right lower lobe; this appeared to be the ruptured cavitary lesion functioning like an uncontrolled bronchopleural fistula. Two chest tubes, sizes 32F and 28F, were placed after decortication, resection of the lung abscess, and closure of the bronchopleural fistula. No significant air leak was noted after resection of this segment of lung.

Pathologic study showed acute organizing pneumonia with abscess formation; no malignant cells or granulomas were seen (Figure 2). Pleural fluid cultures grew Streptococcus intermedius, while the tissue culture was negative for any growth, including acid-fast bacilli and fungi.

On 3 different occasions, both chest tubes were shortened, backed out 2 cm, and resecured with sutures and pins, and Heimlich valves were applied before the patient was discharged.

Intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam was started on the fifth hospital day. On discharge, the patient was advised to continue this treatment for 3 weeks at home.

The patient was receiving enoxaparin subcutaneously in prophylactic doses; 72 hours after the thorascopic procedure this was increased to therapeutic doses, continuing after discharge. Bridging to warfarin was not advised in view of his chest tubes.

Our patient appeared to have developed a right lower lobe infarction that cavitated and ruptured into the pleural space, causing a bronchopleural fistula with empyema after a recent pulmonary embolism. Other reported causes of pulmonary infarction in pulmonary embolism are malignancy and heavy clot burden,⁶ but these have not been confirmed in subsequent studies.⁵ Malignancy was ruled out by biopsy of the resected portion of the lung, and our patient did not have a history of heart failure. A clear cavity was not noted (because it ruptured into the pleura), but an air-fluid level was described in a wedge-shaped consolidation, suggesting infarction.

How common is pulmonary infarction after pulmonary embolism?

Pulmonary infarction occurs in few patients with pulmonary embolism.¹³ Since the lungs receive oxygen from the airways and have a dual blood supply from the pulmonary and bronchial arteries, they are not particularly vulnerable to ischemia. However, the reported incidence of pulmonary infarction in patients with pulmonary embolism has ranged from 10% to higher than 30%.^5,14,15

The reasons behind pulmonary infarction with complications after pulmonary embolism have varied in different case series in different eras. CT, biopsy, or autopsy studies reveal pulmonary infarction after pulmonary embolism to be more common than suspected by clinical symptoms.

In a Mayo Clinic series of 43 cases of pulmonary infarction diagnosed over a 6-year period by surgical lung biopsy, 18 (42%) of the patients had underlying pulmonary thromboembolism, which was the most common cause.¹⁶

4. Which statement about risk factors for pulmonary infarction in pulmonary embolism is incorrect?

• Heart failure may be a risk factor for pulmonary infarction
• Pulmonary hemorrhage is a risk factor for pulmonary infarction
• Pulmonary infarction is more common with more proximal sites of pulmonary embolism
• Collateral circulation may protect against pulmonary infarction

Infarction is more common with emboli that are distal rather than proximal.

Dalen et al¹⁵ suggested that after pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hemorrhage is an important contributor to the development of pulmonary infarction independent of the presence or absence of associated cardiac or pulmonary disease, but that the effect depends on the site of obstruction.

This idea was first proposed in 1913, when Karsner and Ghoreyeb¹⁷ showed that when pulmonary arteries are completely obstructed, the bronchial arteries take over, except when the embolism is present in a small branch of the pulmonary artery. This is because the physiologic anastomosis between the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries is located at the precapillary level of the pulmonary artery, and the bronchial circulation does not take over until the pulmonary arterial pressure in the area of the embolism drops to zero.

Using CT data, Kirchner et al⁵ confirmed that the risk of pulmonary infarction is higher if the obstruction is peripheral, ie, distal.

Using autopsy data, Tsao et al¹⁸ reported a higher risk of pulmonary infarction in embolic occlusion of pulmonary vessels less than 3 mm in diameter.

Collateral circulation has been shown to protect against pulmonary infarction. For example, Miniati et al¹⁴ showed that healthy young patients with pulmonary embolism were more prone to develop pulmonary infarction, probably because they had less efficient collateral systems in the peripheral lung fields. In lung transplant recipients, it has been shown that the risk of infarction decreased with development of collateral circulation.¹⁹

Dalen et al,¹⁵ however, attributed delayed resolution of pulmonary hemorrhage (as measured by resolution of infiltrate on chest radiography) to higher underlying pulmonary venous pressure in patients with heart failure and consequent pulmonary infarction. In comparison, healthy patients without cardiac or pulmonary disease have faster resolution of pulmonary hemorrhage when present, and less likelihood of pulmonary infarction (and death in submassive pulmonary embolism).

Data on the management of infected pulmonary infarction are limited. Mortality rates have been as high as 41% with noninfected and 73% with infected cavitary infarctions.⁴ Some authors have advocated early surgical resection in view of high rates of failure of medical treatment due to lack of blood supply within the cavity and continued risk of infection.

KEY POINTS

In patients with a recently diagnosed pulmonary embolism and concurrent symptoms of bacterial pneumonia, a diagnosis of cavitary pulmonary infarction should be considered.

Consolidations that are pleural-based with sharp, rounded margins and with focal areas of central hyperlucencies representing hemorrhage on the mediastinal windows on CT are more likely to represent a pulmonary infarct.²⁰

SAN DIEGO – A biomarker test based on the presence of two proteins in the blood appears to be suitable for ruling out significant intracranial injuries in patients with a history of mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) without the need for a CT head scan, according to data presented at the annual meeting of the American College of Emergency Physicians.

Ted Bosworth/MDedge News

A biomarker suitable for ruling out significant brain injury could save substantial resources because only about 10% of patients with mild TBI have a positive CT head scan, according to Jeffrey J. Bazarian, MD, professor of emergency medicine, University of Rochester (New York).

In the ALERT-TBI study, which evaluated the biomarker test, 1,959 patients with suspected TBI at 22 participating EDs in the United States and Europe were enrolled and available for analysis. All had mild TBI as defined as a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13-15.

The treating ED physician’s decision to order a head CT scan was the major criterion for study entry. All enrolled patients had their blood drawn within 12 hours in order to quantify two biomarkers, C-terminal hydrolase-L1 (UCH-L1) and glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP).

The biomarker test for TBI was negative when the UCH-L1 value was less than 327 pg/mL and the GFAP was less than 22 pg/mL; the test was positive if either value was at this threshold or higher. To evaluate the sensitivity and specificity of this dual-biomarker test, results were correlated with head CT scans read by two neurologists blinded to the biomarker values.

The mean age of the study population was 48.8 years and slightly more than half were male. About half of the suspected TBI in these patients was attributed to falls and about one third to motor vehicle accidents.

Typical of TBI with GCS scores in the mild range, only 6% of the patients had a positive CT head scan. Of the 125 positive CT scans, the most common injury detected on CT scan was subarachnoid hemorrhage followed by subdural hematoma.

Of the 671 negative biomarker tests, 668 had normal head CT scans. Of the three false positives, one included a cavernous malformation that may have been present prior to the TBI. The others were a small subarachnoid hemorrhage and a small subdural hematoma. Overall the negative predictive value was 99.6% and the sensitivity was 97.6%.

Although the biomarker specificity was only 36% with an even-lower positive predictive value, the goal of the test was to rule out significant TBI to avoid the need for CT scan. On this basis, the biomarker test, which is being developed under the proprietary name Banyan BTI, appears to be promising. The data, according to Dr. Bazarian, have been submitted to the Food and Drug Administration.

“Head CT scans are the current standard for evaluating intracranial injuries after TBI, but they are overused, based on the high proportion that do not show an injury,” said Dr. Bazarian. Although he does not know the disposition of the FDA application, he said, based on these data, “I would definitely be using this test if it were available.”

SAN DIEGO – A biomarker test based on the presence of two proteins in the blood appears to be suitable for ruling out significant intracranial injuries in patients with a history of mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) without the need for a CT head scan, according to data presented at the annual meeting of the American College of Emergency Physicians.

Ted Bosworth/MDedge News

A biomarker suitable for ruling out significant brain injury could save substantial resources because only about 10% of patients with mild TBI have a positive CT head scan, according to Jeffrey J. Bazarian, MD, professor of emergency medicine, University of Rochester (New York).

In the ALERT-TBI study, which evaluated the biomarker test, 1,959 patients with suspected TBI at 22 participating EDs in the United States and Europe were enrolled and available for analysis. All had mild TBI as defined as a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13-15.

The treating ED physician’s decision to order a head CT scan was the major criterion for study entry. All enrolled patients had their blood drawn within 12 hours in order to quantify two biomarkers, C-terminal hydrolase-L1 (UCH-L1) and glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP).

The biomarker test for TBI was negative when the UCH-L1 value was less than 327 pg/mL and the GFAP was less than 22 pg/mL; the test was positive if either value was at this threshold or higher. To evaluate the sensitivity and specificity of this dual-biomarker test, results were correlated with head CT scans read by two neurologists blinded to the biomarker values.

The mean age of the study population was 48.8 years and slightly more than half were male. About half of the suspected TBI in these patients was attributed to falls and about one third to motor vehicle accidents.

Typical of TBI with GCS scores in the mild range, only 6% of the patients had a positive CT head scan. Of the 125 positive CT scans, the most common injury detected on CT scan was subarachnoid hemorrhage followed by subdural hematoma.

Of the 671 negative biomarker tests, 668 had normal head CT scans. Of the three false positives, one included a cavernous malformation that may have been present prior to the TBI. The others were a small subarachnoid hemorrhage and a small subdural hematoma. Overall the negative predictive value was 99.6% and the sensitivity was 97.6%.

Although the biomarker specificity was only 36% with an even-lower positive predictive value, the goal of the test was to rule out significant TBI to avoid the need for CT scan. On this basis, the biomarker test, which is being developed under the proprietary name Banyan BTI, appears to be promising. The data, according to Dr. Bazarian, have been submitted to the Food and Drug Administration.

“Head CT scans are the current standard for evaluating intracranial injuries after TBI, but they are overused, based on the high proportion that do not show an injury,” said Dr. Bazarian. Although he does not know the disposition of the FDA application, he said, based on these data, “I would definitely be using this test if it were available.”

SAN DIEGO – A biomarker test based on the presence of two proteins in the blood appears to be suitable for ruling out significant intracranial injuries in patients with a history of mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) without the need for a CT head scan, according to data presented at the annual meeting of the American College of Emergency Physicians.

Ted Bosworth/MDedge News

A biomarker suitable for ruling out significant brain injury could save substantial resources because only about 10% of patients with mild TBI have a positive CT head scan, according to Jeffrey J. Bazarian, MD, professor of emergency medicine, University of Rochester (New York).

In the ALERT-TBI study, which evaluated the biomarker test, 1,959 patients with suspected TBI at 22 participating EDs in the United States and Europe were enrolled and available for analysis. All had mild TBI as defined as a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13-15.

The treating ED physician’s decision to order a head CT scan was the major criterion for study entry. All enrolled patients had their blood drawn within 12 hours in order to quantify two biomarkers, C-terminal hydrolase-L1 (UCH-L1) and glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP).

The biomarker test for TBI was negative when the UCH-L1 value was less than 327 pg/mL and the GFAP was less than 22 pg/mL; the test was positive if either value was at this threshold or higher. To evaluate the sensitivity and specificity of this dual-biomarker test, results were correlated with head CT scans read by two neurologists blinded to the biomarker values.

The mean age of the study population was 48.8 years and slightly more than half were male. About half of the suspected TBI in these patients was attributed to falls and about one third to motor vehicle accidents.

Typical of TBI with GCS scores in the mild range, only 6% of the patients had a positive CT head scan. Of the 125 positive CT scans, the most common injury detected on CT scan was subarachnoid hemorrhage followed by subdural hematoma.

Of the 671 negative biomarker tests, 668 had normal head CT scans. Of the three false positives, one included a cavernous malformation that may have been present prior to the TBI. The others were a small subarachnoid hemorrhage and a small subdural hematoma. Overall the negative predictive value was 99.6% and the sensitivity was 97.6%.

Although the biomarker specificity was only 36% with an even-lower positive predictive value, the goal of the test was to rule out significant TBI to avoid the need for CT scan. On this basis, the biomarker test, which is being developed under the proprietary name Banyan BTI, appears to be promising. The data, according to Dr. Bazarian, have been submitted to the Food and Drug Administration.

“Head CT scans are the current standard for evaluating intracranial injuries after TBI, but they are overused, based on the high proportion that do not show an injury,” said Dr. Bazarian. Although he does not know the disposition of the FDA application, he said, based on these data, “I would definitely be using this test if it were available.”

MUNICH – The perivascular fat attenuation index, a new measure of coronary plaque inflammation using data collected by a conventional coronary CT scan, identified an elevated risk for future cardiovascular death that was independent of standard risk factors in both derivation and validation studies with prospective data from more than 3,900 patients.

Patients with a high fat attenuation index (FAI) in the perivascular fat surrounding their right coronary artery had a five- to ninefold higher risk of cardiac mortality during 4-6 years of follow-up than did those with lower scores, after adjustment for conventional risk factors and standard findings from the coronary CT, Charalambos Antoniades, MD, said at the annual congress of the European Society of Cardiology.

The FAI is a “powerful, novel technology for cardiovascular disease risk stratification. It has striking prognostic value for cardiac death and nonfatal MI over and above other risk scores and state-of-the-art interpretation of coronary CT angiography,” said Dr. Antoniades, professor of cardiovascular medicine at the University of Oxford (England). He also highlighted that the data he reported suggested a protective effect in patients with a high FAI who received treatment with aspirin or a statin, and he suggested that FAI might be a way to better target an anti-inflammatory agent such as canakinumab (Ilaris), which showed cardiovascular protective effects in the CANTOS trial (N Engl J Med. 2017 Sep 21;377[12]:1119-31).

Another key feature of the FAI analysis is that it uses data collected by “any standard” coronary CT angiogram, Dr. Antoniades said. He is a founder of, shareholder in, and chief scientific officer of Caristo Diagnostics, the company developing the software that uses coronary CT data to calculate the FAI.

Dr. Antoniades and his associates derived the FAI using data collected from 1,872 patients who underwent planned coronary CT angiography at a clinic in Erlangen, Germany, during 2005-2009. The researchers correlated FAI scores with cardiovascular disease outcomes during a median follow-up of 72 months. They then validated the FAI using data collected from 2,040 patients who underwent a planned coronary CT exam at the Cleveland Clinic during 2008-2016 and then had a median follow-up of 54 months. The researchers called this overall post-hoc analysis of prospectively collected CT and outcomes data the Cardiovascular Risk Prediction using Computed Tomography (CRISP-CT) study.

Using the derivation data, FAI measurements taken from fat around the proximal right coronary artery that met or exceeded the specified cutoff value of –70.1 Hounsfield units were tied to a 9.04-fold greater rate of cardiac death during follow-up, compared with patients with a lower FAI, and after adjustment for several demographic, clinical, and CT-angiography variables. When the researchers ran this analysis using data from the validation patients and the same cutoff value they found that an elevated FAI linked with a 5.6-fold higher rate of cardiac death. Concurrently with Dr. Antoniades’ talk the results appeared in an online article that was later published (Lancet. 2018 Sep 15;392[10151]:929-39).

Calculating a patient’s FAI offers the prospect for “better use of CT information,” Dr. Antoniades said during the discussion of his report. After a coronary CT scan and conventional data processing, about half the patients have no finding that warrants intervention, but about 10% of these patients actually have an inflamed coronary plaque that is at high risk for rupture that could trigger a cardiac event. The FAI provides a way to use coronary CT angiography to identify these at-risk patients, he explained.

[email protected]

MUNICH – The perivascular fat attenuation index, a new measure of coronary plaque inflammation using data collected by a conventional coronary CT scan, identified an elevated risk for future cardiovascular death that was independent of standard risk factors in both derivation and validation studies with prospective data from more than 3,900 patients.

Patients with a high fat attenuation index (FAI) in the perivascular fat surrounding their right coronary artery had a five- to ninefold higher risk of cardiac mortality during 4-6 years of follow-up than did those with lower scores, after adjustment for conventional risk factors and standard findings from the coronary CT, Charalambos Antoniades, MD, said at the annual congress of the European Society of Cardiology.

The FAI is a “powerful, novel technology for cardiovascular disease risk stratification. It has striking prognostic value for cardiac death and nonfatal MI over and above other risk scores and state-of-the-art interpretation of coronary CT angiography,” said Dr. Antoniades, professor of cardiovascular medicine at the University of Oxford (England). He also highlighted that the data he reported suggested a protective effect in patients with a high FAI who received treatment with aspirin or a statin, and he suggested that FAI might be a way to better target an anti-inflammatory agent such as canakinumab (Ilaris), which showed cardiovascular protective effects in the CANTOS trial (N Engl J Med. 2017 Sep 21;377[12]:1119-31).

Another key feature of the FAI analysis is that it uses data collected by “any standard” coronary CT angiogram, Dr. Antoniades said. He is a founder of, shareholder in, and chief scientific officer of Caristo Diagnostics, the company developing the software that uses coronary CT data to calculate the FAI.

Dr. Antoniades and his associates derived the FAI using data collected from 1,872 patients who underwent planned coronary CT angiography at a clinic in Erlangen, Germany, during 2005-2009. The researchers correlated FAI scores with cardiovascular disease outcomes during a median follow-up of 72 months. They then validated the FAI using data collected from 2,040 patients who underwent a planned coronary CT exam at the Cleveland Clinic during 2008-2016 and then had a median follow-up of 54 months. The researchers called this overall post-hoc analysis of prospectively collected CT and outcomes data the Cardiovascular Risk Prediction using Computed Tomography (CRISP-CT) study.

Using the derivation data, FAI measurements taken from fat around the proximal right coronary artery that met or exceeded the specified cutoff value of –70.1 Hounsfield units were tied to a 9.04-fold greater rate of cardiac death during follow-up, compared with patients with a lower FAI, and after adjustment for several demographic, clinical, and CT-angiography variables. When the researchers ran this analysis using data from the validation patients and the same cutoff value they found that an elevated FAI linked with a 5.6-fold higher rate of cardiac death. Concurrently with Dr. Antoniades’ talk the results appeared in an online article that was later published (Lancet. 2018 Sep 15;392[10151]:929-39).

Calculating a patient’s FAI offers the prospect for “better use of CT information,” Dr. Antoniades said during the discussion of his report. After a coronary CT scan and conventional data processing, about half the patients have no finding that warrants intervention, but about 10% of these patients actually have an inflamed coronary plaque that is at high risk for rupture that could trigger a cardiac event. The FAI provides a way to use coronary CT angiography to identify these at-risk patients, he explained.

[email protected]

MUNICH – The perivascular fat attenuation index, a new measure of coronary plaque inflammation using data collected by a conventional coronary CT scan, identified an elevated risk for future cardiovascular death that was independent of standard risk factors in both derivation and validation studies with prospective data from more than 3,900 patients.

Patients with a high fat attenuation index (FAI) in the perivascular fat surrounding their right coronary artery had a five- to ninefold higher risk of cardiac mortality during 4-6 years of follow-up than did those with lower scores, after adjustment for conventional risk factors and standard findings from the coronary CT, Charalambos Antoniades, MD, said at the annual congress of the European Society of Cardiology.

The FAI is a “powerful, novel technology for cardiovascular disease risk stratification. It has striking prognostic value for cardiac death and nonfatal MI over and above other risk scores and state-of-the-art interpretation of coronary CT angiography,” said Dr. Antoniades, professor of cardiovascular medicine at the University of Oxford (England). He also highlighted that the data he reported suggested a protective effect in patients with a high FAI who received treatment with aspirin or a statin, and he suggested that FAI might be a way to better target an anti-inflammatory agent such as canakinumab (Ilaris), which showed cardiovascular protective effects in the CANTOS trial (N Engl J Med. 2017 Sep 21;377[12]:1119-31).

Another key feature of the FAI analysis is that it uses data collected by “any standard” coronary CT angiogram, Dr. Antoniades said. He is a founder of, shareholder in, and chief scientific officer of Caristo Diagnostics, the company developing the software that uses coronary CT data to calculate the FAI.

Dr. Antoniades and his associates derived the FAI using data collected from 1,872 patients who underwent planned coronary CT angiography at a clinic in Erlangen, Germany, during 2005-2009. The researchers correlated FAI scores with cardiovascular disease outcomes during a median follow-up of 72 months. They then validated the FAI using data collected from 2,040 patients who underwent a planned coronary CT exam at the Cleveland Clinic during 2008-2016 and then had a median follow-up of 54 months. The researchers called this overall post-hoc analysis of prospectively collected CT and outcomes data the Cardiovascular Risk Prediction using Computed Tomography (CRISP-CT) study.

Using the derivation data, FAI measurements taken from fat around the proximal right coronary artery that met or exceeded the specified cutoff value of –70.1 Hounsfield units were tied to a 9.04-fold greater rate of cardiac death during follow-up, compared with patients with a lower FAI, and after adjustment for several demographic, clinical, and CT-angiography variables. When the researchers ran this analysis using data from the validation patients and the same cutoff value they found that an elevated FAI linked with a 5.6-fold higher rate of cardiac death. Concurrently with Dr. Antoniades’ talk the results appeared in an online article that was later published (Lancet. 2018 Sep 15;392[10151]:929-39).

Calculating a patient’s FAI offers the prospect for “better use of CT information,” Dr. Antoniades said during the discussion of his report. After a coronary CT scan and conventional data processing, about half the patients have no finding that warrants intervention, but about 10% of these patients actually have an inflamed coronary plaque that is at high risk for rupture that could trigger a cardiac event. The FAI provides a way to use coronary CT angiography to identify these at-risk patients, he explained.

[email protected]