Federal Practitioner

A patient with HIV remission induced by stem cell transplantation continues to be disease free at the 30-month mark.

The individual, referred to as the London patient, received allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allo-HSCT) for stage IVB Hodgkin lymphoma. The transplant donor was homozygous for the CCR5 delta-32 mutation, which confers immunity to HIV because there’s no point of entry for the virus into immune cells.

After extensive sampling of various tissues, including gut, lymph node, blood, semen, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), Ravindra Kumar Gupta, MD, PhD, and colleagues found no detectable virus that was competent to replicate. However, they reported that the testing did detect some “fossilized” remnants of HIV DNA persisting in certain tissues.

The results were shared in a video presentation of the research during the Conference on Retroviruses & Opportunistic Infections, which was presented online this year. CROI organizers chose to hold a virtual meeting because of concerns about the spread of COVID-19.

The London patient’s HIV status had been reported the previous year at CROI 2019, but only blood samples were used in that analysis.

In a commentary accompanying the simultaneously published study in the Lancet, Jennifer Zerbato, PhD, and Sharon Lewin, FRACP, PHD, FAAHMS, asked: “A key question now for the area of HIV cure is how soon can one know if someone has been cured of HIV?

“We will need more than a handful of patients cured of HIV to really understand the duration of follow-up needed and the likelihood of an unexpected late rebound in virus replication,” continued Dr. Zerbato, of the University of Melbourne, and Dr. Lewin, of the Royal Melbourne Hospital and Monash University, also in Melbourne.

In their ongoing analysis of data from the London patient, Dr. Gupta, a virologist at the University of Cambridge (England), and associates constructed a mathematical model that maps the probability for lifetime remission or cure of HIV against several factors, including the degree of chimerism achieved with the stem cell transplant.

In this model, when chimerism reaches 80% in total HIV target cells, the probability of remission for life is 98%; when donor chimerism reaches 90%, the probability of lifetime remission is greater than 99%. Peripheral T-cell chimerism in the London patient has held steady at 99%.

Dr. Gupta and associates obtained some testing opportunistically: A PET-CT scan revealed an axillary lymph node that was biopsied after it was found to have avid radiotracer uptake. Similarly, the CSF sample was obtained in the course of a work-up for some neurologic symptoms that the London patient was having.

In contrast to the first patient who achieved ongoing HIV remission from a pair of stem cell transplants received over 13 years ago – the Berlin patient – the London patient did not receive whole-body radiation, but rather underwent a reduced-intensity conditioning regimen. The London patient experienced a bout of gut graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) about 2 months after his transplant, but has been free of GVHD in the interval. He hasn’t taken cytotoxic agents or any GVHD prophylaxis since 6 months post transplant.

Though there’s no sign of HIV that’s competent to replicate, “the London patient has shown somewhat slow CD4 reconstitution,” said Dr. Gupta and coauthors in discussing the results.

The patient had a reactivation of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) about 21 months after analytic treatment interruption (ATI) of antiretroviral therapy that was managed without any specific treatment, but he hasn’t experienced any opportunistic infections. However, his CD4 count didn’t rebound to pretransplant levels until 28 months after ATI. At that point, his CD4 count was 430 cells per mcL, or 23.5% of total T cells. The CD4:CD8 ratio was 0.86; normal range is 1.5-2.5.

The researchers used quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (rt-PCR) to look for packaging site and envelope (env) DNA fragments, and droplet digital PCR to quantify HIV-1 DNA.

The patient’s HIV-1 plasma load measured at 30 months post ATI on an ultrasensitive assay was below the lower limit of detection (less than 1 copy per mL). Semen viremia measured at 21 months was also below the lower limit of detection, as was CSF measured at 25 months.

Samples were taken from the patient’s rectum, cecum, sigmoid colon, and terminal ileum during a colonoscopy conducted 22 months post ATI; all tested negative for HIV DNA via droplet digital PCR.

The lymph node had large numbers of EBV-positive cells and was positive for HIV-1 env and long-terminal repeat by double-drop PCR, but no integrase DNA was detected. Additionally, no intact proviral DNA was found on assay.

Dr. Gupta and associates speculated that “EBV reactivation could have triggered EBV-specific CD4 and CD8 T-cell responses and proliferation, potentially including CD4 T cells containing HIV-1 DNA.” Supporting this hypothesis, EBV-specific CD8 T-cell responses in peripheral blood were “robust,” and the researchers also saw some CD4 response.

“Similar to the Berlin patient, highly sensitive tests showed very low levels of so-called fossilized HIV-1 DNA in some tissue samples from the London patient. Residual HIV-1 DNA and axillary lymph node tissue could represent a defective clone that expanded during hyperplasia within the lymph note sampled,” noted Dr. Gupta and coauthors.

Responses of CD4 and CD8 T cells to HIV have also remained below the limit of detection, though cytomegalovirus-specific responses persist in the London patient.

As with the Berlin patient, standard enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) testing has remained positive in the London patient. “Standard ELISA testing, therefore, cannot be used as a marker for cure, although more work needs to be done to assess the role of detuned low-avidity antibody assays in defining cure,” noted Dr. Gupta and associates.

The ongoing follow-up plan for the London patient is to obtain viral load testing twice yearly up to 5 years post ATI, and then obtain yearly tests for a total of 10 years. Ongoing testing will confirm the investigators’ belief that “these findings probably represent the second recorded HIV-1 cure after CCR5 delta-32/delta-32 allo-HSCT, with evidence of residual low-level HIV-1 DNA.”

Dr. Zerbato and Dr. Lewin advised cautious optimism and ongoing surveillance: “In view of the many cells sampled in this case, and the absence of any intact virus, is the London patient truly cured? The additional data provided in this follow-up case report is certainly exciting and encouraging but, in the end, only time will tell.”

Dr. Gupta reported being a consultant for ViiV Healthcare and Gilead Sciences; several coauthors also reported financial relationships with pharmaceutical companies. The work was funded by amfAR, the American Foundation for AIDS Research, and the Wellcome Trust. Dr. Lewin reported grants from the National Health and Medical Research Council of Australia, the National Institutes of Health, the American Foundation for AIDS Research, Gilead Sciences, Merck, ViiV Healthcare, Leidos, the Wellcome Trust, the Australian Centre for HIV and Hepatitis Virology Research, and the Melbourne HIV Cure Consortium. Dr. Zerbato reported grants from the Melbourne HIV Cure Consortium,

[email protected]

SOURCE: Gupta R et al. Lancet. 2020 Mar 10. doi: 10.1016/ S2352-3018(20)30069-2.

A patient with HIV remission induced by stem cell transplantation continues to be disease free at the 30-month mark.

The individual, referred to as the London patient, received allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allo-HSCT) for stage IVB Hodgkin lymphoma. The transplant donor was homozygous for the CCR5 delta-32 mutation, which confers immunity to HIV because there’s no point of entry for the virus into immune cells.

After extensive sampling of various tissues, including gut, lymph node, blood, semen, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), Ravindra Kumar Gupta, MD, PhD, and colleagues found no detectable virus that was competent to replicate. However, they reported that the testing did detect some “fossilized” remnants of HIV DNA persisting in certain tissues.

The results were shared in a video presentation of the research during the Conference on Retroviruses & Opportunistic Infections, which was presented online this year. CROI organizers chose to hold a virtual meeting because of concerns about the spread of COVID-19.

The London patient’s HIV status had been reported the previous year at CROI 2019, but only blood samples were used in that analysis.

In a commentary accompanying the simultaneously published study in the Lancet, Jennifer Zerbato, PhD, and Sharon Lewin, FRACP, PHD, FAAHMS, asked: “A key question now for the area of HIV cure is how soon can one know if someone has been cured of HIV?

“We will need more than a handful of patients cured of HIV to really understand the duration of follow-up needed and the likelihood of an unexpected late rebound in virus replication,” continued Dr. Zerbato, of the University of Melbourne, and Dr. Lewin, of the Royal Melbourne Hospital and Monash University, also in Melbourne.

In their ongoing analysis of data from the London patient, Dr. Gupta, a virologist at the University of Cambridge (England), and associates constructed a mathematical model that maps the probability for lifetime remission or cure of HIV against several factors, including the degree of chimerism achieved with the stem cell transplant.

In this model, when chimerism reaches 80% in total HIV target cells, the probability of remission for life is 98%; when donor chimerism reaches 90%, the probability of lifetime remission is greater than 99%. Peripheral T-cell chimerism in the London patient has held steady at 99%.

Dr. Gupta and associates obtained some testing opportunistically: A PET-CT scan revealed an axillary lymph node that was biopsied after it was found to have avid radiotracer uptake. Similarly, the CSF sample was obtained in the course of a work-up for some neurologic symptoms that the London patient was having.

In contrast to the first patient who achieved ongoing HIV remission from a pair of stem cell transplants received over 13 years ago – the Berlin patient – the London patient did not receive whole-body radiation, but rather underwent a reduced-intensity conditioning regimen. The London patient experienced a bout of gut graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) about 2 months after his transplant, but has been free of GVHD in the interval. He hasn’t taken cytotoxic agents or any GVHD prophylaxis since 6 months post transplant.

Though there’s no sign of HIV that’s competent to replicate, “the London patient has shown somewhat slow CD4 reconstitution,” said Dr. Gupta and coauthors in discussing the results.

The patient had a reactivation of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) about 21 months after analytic treatment interruption (ATI) of antiretroviral therapy that was managed without any specific treatment, but he hasn’t experienced any opportunistic infections. However, his CD4 count didn’t rebound to pretransplant levels until 28 months after ATI. At that point, his CD4 count was 430 cells per mcL, or 23.5% of total T cells. The CD4:CD8 ratio was 0.86; normal range is 1.5-2.5.

The researchers used quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (rt-PCR) to look for packaging site and envelope (env) DNA fragments, and droplet digital PCR to quantify HIV-1 DNA.

The patient’s HIV-1 plasma load measured at 30 months post ATI on an ultrasensitive assay was below the lower limit of detection (less than 1 copy per mL). Semen viremia measured at 21 months was also below the lower limit of detection, as was CSF measured at 25 months.

Samples were taken from the patient’s rectum, cecum, sigmoid colon, and terminal ileum during a colonoscopy conducted 22 months post ATI; all tested negative for HIV DNA via droplet digital PCR.

The lymph node had large numbers of EBV-positive cells and was positive for HIV-1 env and long-terminal repeat by double-drop PCR, but no integrase DNA was detected. Additionally, no intact proviral DNA was found on assay.

Dr. Gupta and associates speculated that “EBV reactivation could have triggered EBV-specific CD4 and CD8 T-cell responses and proliferation, potentially including CD4 T cells containing HIV-1 DNA.” Supporting this hypothesis, EBV-specific CD8 T-cell responses in peripheral blood were “robust,” and the researchers also saw some CD4 response.

“Similar to the Berlin patient, highly sensitive tests showed very low levels of so-called fossilized HIV-1 DNA in some tissue samples from the London patient. Residual HIV-1 DNA and axillary lymph node tissue could represent a defective clone that expanded during hyperplasia within the lymph note sampled,” noted Dr. Gupta and coauthors.

Responses of CD4 and CD8 T cells to HIV have also remained below the limit of detection, though cytomegalovirus-specific responses persist in the London patient.

As with the Berlin patient, standard enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) testing has remained positive in the London patient. “Standard ELISA testing, therefore, cannot be used as a marker for cure, although more work needs to be done to assess the role of detuned low-avidity antibody assays in defining cure,” noted Dr. Gupta and associates.

The ongoing follow-up plan for the London patient is to obtain viral load testing twice yearly up to 5 years post ATI, and then obtain yearly tests for a total of 10 years. Ongoing testing will confirm the investigators’ belief that “these findings probably represent the second recorded HIV-1 cure after CCR5 delta-32/delta-32 allo-HSCT, with evidence of residual low-level HIV-1 DNA.”

Dr. Zerbato and Dr. Lewin advised cautious optimism and ongoing surveillance: “In view of the many cells sampled in this case, and the absence of any intact virus, is the London patient truly cured? The additional data provided in this follow-up case report is certainly exciting and encouraging but, in the end, only time will tell.”

Dr. Gupta reported being a consultant for ViiV Healthcare and Gilead Sciences; several coauthors also reported financial relationships with pharmaceutical companies. The work was funded by amfAR, the American Foundation for AIDS Research, and the Wellcome Trust. Dr. Lewin reported grants from the National Health and Medical Research Council of Australia, the National Institutes of Health, the American Foundation for AIDS Research, Gilead Sciences, Merck, ViiV Healthcare, Leidos, the Wellcome Trust, the Australian Centre for HIV and Hepatitis Virology Research, and the Melbourne HIV Cure Consortium. Dr. Zerbato reported grants from the Melbourne HIV Cure Consortium,

[email protected]

SOURCE: Gupta R et al. Lancet. 2020 Mar 10. doi: 10.1016/ S2352-3018(20)30069-2.

A patient with HIV remission induced by stem cell transplantation continues to be disease free at the 30-month mark.

The individual, referred to as the London patient, received allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allo-HSCT) for stage IVB Hodgkin lymphoma. The transplant donor was homozygous for the CCR5 delta-32 mutation, which confers immunity to HIV because there’s no point of entry for the virus into immune cells.

After extensive sampling of various tissues, including gut, lymph node, blood, semen, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), Ravindra Kumar Gupta, MD, PhD, and colleagues found no detectable virus that was competent to replicate. However, they reported that the testing did detect some “fossilized” remnants of HIV DNA persisting in certain tissues.

The results were shared in a video presentation of the research during the Conference on Retroviruses & Opportunistic Infections, which was presented online this year. CROI organizers chose to hold a virtual meeting because of concerns about the spread of COVID-19.

The London patient’s HIV status had been reported the previous year at CROI 2019, but only blood samples were used in that analysis.

In a commentary accompanying the simultaneously published study in the Lancet, Jennifer Zerbato, PhD, and Sharon Lewin, FRACP, PHD, FAAHMS, asked: “A key question now for the area of HIV cure is how soon can one know if someone has been cured of HIV?

“We will need more than a handful of patients cured of HIV to really understand the duration of follow-up needed and the likelihood of an unexpected late rebound in virus replication,” continued Dr. Zerbato, of the University of Melbourne, and Dr. Lewin, of the Royal Melbourne Hospital and Monash University, also in Melbourne.

In their ongoing analysis of data from the London patient, Dr. Gupta, a virologist at the University of Cambridge (England), and associates constructed a mathematical model that maps the probability for lifetime remission or cure of HIV against several factors, including the degree of chimerism achieved with the stem cell transplant.

In this model, when chimerism reaches 80% in total HIV target cells, the probability of remission for life is 98%; when donor chimerism reaches 90%, the probability of lifetime remission is greater than 99%. Peripheral T-cell chimerism in the London patient has held steady at 99%.

Dr. Gupta and associates obtained some testing opportunistically: A PET-CT scan revealed an axillary lymph node that was biopsied after it was found to have avid radiotracer uptake. Similarly, the CSF sample was obtained in the course of a work-up for some neurologic symptoms that the London patient was having.

In contrast to the first patient who achieved ongoing HIV remission from a pair of stem cell transplants received over 13 years ago – the Berlin patient – the London patient did not receive whole-body radiation, but rather underwent a reduced-intensity conditioning regimen. The London patient experienced a bout of gut graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) about 2 months after his transplant, but has been free of GVHD in the interval. He hasn’t taken cytotoxic agents or any GVHD prophylaxis since 6 months post transplant.

Though there’s no sign of HIV that’s competent to replicate, “the London patient has shown somewhat slow CD4 reconstitution,” said Dr. Gupta and coauthors in discussing the results.

The patient had a reactivation of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) about 21 months after analytic treatment interruption (ATI) of antiretroviral therapy that was managed without any specific treatment, but he hasn’t experienced any opportunistic infections. However, his CD4 count didn’t rebound to pretransplant levels until 28 months after ATI. At that point, his CD4 count was 430 cells per mcL, or 23.5% of total T cells. The CD4:CD8 ratio was 0.86; normal range is 1.5-2.5.

The researchers used quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (rt-PCR) to look for packaging site and envelope (env) DNA fragments, and droplet digital PCR to quantify HIV-1 DNA.

The patient’s HIV-1 plasma load measured at 30 months post ATI on an ultrasensitive assay was below the lower limit of detection (less than 1 copy per mL). Semen viremia measured at 21 months was also below the lower limit of detection, as was CSF measured at 25 months.

Samples were taken from the patient’s rectum, cecum, sigmoid colon, and terminal ileum during a colonoscopy conducted 22 months post ATI; all tested negative for HIV DNA via droplet digital PCR.

The lymph node had large numbers of EBV-positive cells and was positive for HIV-1 env and long-terminal repeat by double-drop PCR, but no integrase DNA was detected. Additionally, no intact proviral DNA was found on assay.

Dr. Gupta and associates speculated that “EBV reactivation could have triggered EBV-specific CD4 and CD8 T-cell responses and proliferation, potentially including CD4 T cells containing HIV-1 DNA.” Supporting this hypothesis, EBV-specific CD8 T-cell responses in peripheral blood were “robust,” and the researchers also saw some CD4 response.

“Similar to the Berlin patient, highly sensitive tests showed very low levels of so-called fossilized HIV-1 DNA in some tissue samples from the London patient. Residual HIV-1 DNA and axillary lymph node tissue could represent a defective clone that expanded during hyperplasia within the lymph note sampled,” noted Dr. Gupta and coauthors.

Responses of CD4 and CD8 T cells to HIV have also remained below the limit of detection, though cytomegalovirus-specific responses persist in the London patient.

As with the Berlin patient, standard enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) testing has remained positive in the London patient. “Standard ELISA testing, therefore, cannot be used as a marker for cure, although more work needs to be done to assess the role of detuned low-avidity antibody assays in defining cure,” noted Dr. Gupta and associates.

The ongoing follow-up plan for the London patient is to obtain viral load testing twice yearly up to 5 years post ATI, and then obtain yearly tests for a total of 10 years. Ongoing testing will confirm the investigators’ belief that “these findings probably represent the second recorded HIV-1 cure after CCR5 delta-32/delta-32 allo-HSCT, with evidence of residual low-level HIV-1 DNA.”

Dr. Zerbato and Dr. Lewin advised cautious optimism and ongoing surveillance: “In view of the many cells sampled in this case, and the absence of any intact virus, is the London patient truly cured? The additional data provided in this follow-up case report is certainly exciting and encouraging but, in the end, only time will tell.”

Dr. Gupta reported being a consultant for ViiV Healthcare and Gilead Sciences; several coauthors also reported financial relationships with pharmaceutical companies. The work was funded by amfAR, the American Foundation for AIDS Research, and the Wellcome Trust. Dr. Lewin reported grants from the National Health and Medical Research Council of Australia, the National Institutes of Health, the American Foundation for AIDS Research, Gilead Sciences, Merck, ViiV Healthcare, Leidos, the Wellcome Trust, the Australian Centre for HIV and Hepatitis Virology Research, and the Melbourne HIV Cure Consortium. Dr. Zerbato reported grants from the Melbourne HIV Cure Consortium,

[email protected]

SOURCE: Gupta R et al. Lancet. 2020 Mar 10. doi: 10.1016/ S2352-3018(20)30069-2.

Although a 14-day quarantine after exposure to novel coronavirus is “well supported” by evidence, some infected individuals will not become symptomatic until after that period, according to authors of a recent analysis published in Annals of Internal Medicine.

Most individuals infected with severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) will develop symptoms by day 12 of the infection, which is within the 14-day period of active monitoring currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the authors wrote.

However, an estimated 101 out of 10,000 cases could become symptomatic after the end of that 14-day monitoring period, they cautioned.

“Our analyses do not preclude that estimate from being higher,” said the investigators, led by Stephen A. Lauer, PhD, MD, of Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health, Baltimore.

The analysis, based on 181 confirmed cases of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) that were documented outside of the outbreak epicenter, Wuhan, China, makes “more conservative assumptions” about the window of symptom onset and potential for continued exposure, compared with analyses in previous studies, the researchers wrote.

The estimated incubation period for SARS-CoV-2 in the 181-patient study was a median of 5.1 days, which is comparable with previous estimates based on COVID-19 cases outside of Wuhan and consistent with other known human coronavirus diseases, such as SARS, which had a reported mean incubation period of 5 days, Dr. Lauer and colleagues noted.

Symptoms developed within 11.5 days for 97.5% of patients in the study.

Whether it’s acceptable to have 101 out of 10,000 cases becoming symptomatic beyond the recommended quarantine window depends on two factors, according to the authors. The first is the expected infection risk in the population that is being monitored, and the second is “judgment about the cost of missing cases,” wrote the authors.

In an interview, Aaron Eli Glatt, MD, chair of medicine at Mount Sinai South Nassau, Oceanside, N.Y., said that in practical terms, the results suggest that the majority of patients with COVID-19 will be identified within 14 days, with an “outside chance” of an infected individual leaving quarantine and transmitting virus for a short period of time before becoming symptomatic.

“I think the proper message to give those patients [who are asymptomatic upon leaving quarantine] is, ‘after 14 days, we’re pretty sure you’re out of the woods, but should you get any symptoms, immediately requarantine yourself and seek medical care,” he said.

Study coauthor Kyra H. Grantz, a doctoral graduate student at the Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health, said that extending a quarantine beyond 14 days might be considered in the highest-risk scenarios, though the benefits of doing so would have to be weighed against the costs to public health and to the individuals under quarantine.

“Our estimate of the incubation period definitely supports the 14-day recommendation that the CDC has been using,” she said in an interview.

Dr. Grantz emphasized that the estimate of 101 out of 10,000 cases developing symptoms after day 14 of active monitoring – representing the 99th percentile of cases – assumes the “most conservative, worst-case scenario” in a population that is fully infected.

“If you’re looking at a following a cohort of 1,000 people whom you think may have been exposed, only a certain percentage will be infected, and only a certain percentage of those will even develop symptoms – before we get to this idea of how many people would we miss,” she said.

The study was supported by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, the National Institute of General Medical Sciences, and the Alexander von Humboldt Foundation. Four authors reported disclosures related to those entities, and the remaining five reported no conflicts of interest.
 

SOURCE: Lauer SA et al. Ann Intern Med. 2020 Mar 9. doi:10.1101/2020.02.02.20020016.

Although a 14-day quarantine after exposure to novel coronavirus is “well supported” by evidence, some infected individuals will not become symptomatic until after that period, according to authors of a recent analysis published in Annals of Internal Medicine.

Most individuals infected with severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) will develop symptoms by day 12 of the infection, which is within the 14-day period of active monitoring currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the authors wrote.

However, an estimated 101 out of 10,000 cases could become symptomatic after the end of that 14-day monitoring period, they cautioned.

“Our analyses do not preclude that estimate from being higher,” said the investigators, led by Stephen A. Lauer, PhD, MD, of Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health, Baltimore.

The analysis, based on 181 confirmed cases of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) that were documented outside of the outbreak epicenter, Wuhan, China, makes “more conservative assumptions” about the window of symptom onset and potential for continued exposure, compared with analyses in previous studies, the researchers wrote.

The estimated incubation period for SARS-CoV-2 in the 181-patient study was a median of 5.1 days, which is comparable with previous estimates based on COVID-19 cases outside of Wuhan and consistent with other known human coronavirus diseases, such as SARS, which had a reported mean incubation period of 5 days, Dr. Lauer and colleagues noted.

Symptoms developed within 11.5 days for 97.5% of patients in the study.

Whether it’s acceptable to have 101 out of 10,000 cases becoming symptomatic beyond the recommended quarantine window depends on two factors, according to the authors. The first is the expected infection risk in the population that is being monitored, and the second is “judgment about the cost of missing cases,” wrote the authors.

In an interview, Aaron Eli Glatt, MD, chair of medicine at Mount Sinai South Nassau, Oceanside, N.Y., said that in practical terms, the results suggest that the majority of patients with COVID-19 will be identified within 14 days, with an “outside chance” of an infected individual leaving quarantine and transmitting virus for a short period of time before becoming symptomatic.

“I think the proper message to give those patients [who are asymptomatic upon leaving quarantine] is, ‘after 14 days, we’re pretty sure you’re out of the woods, but should you get any symptoms, immediately requarantine yourself and seek medical care,” he said.

Study coauthor Kyra H. Grantz, a doctoral graduate student at the Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health, said that extending a quarantine beyond 14 days might be considered in the highest-risk scenarios, though the benefits of doing so would have to be weighed against the costs to public health and to the individuals under quarantine.

“Our estimate of the incubation period definitely supports the 14-day recommendation that the CDC has been using,” she said in an interview.

Dr. Grantz emphasized that the estimate of 101 out of 10,000 cases developing symptoms after day 14 of active monitoring – representing the 99th percentile of cases – assumes the “most conservative, worst-case scenario” in a population that is fully infected.

“If you’re looking at a following a cohort of 1,000 people whom you think may have been exposed, only a certain percentage will be infected, and only a certain percentage of those will even develop symptoms – before we get to this idea of how many people would we miss,” she said.

The study was supported by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, the National Institute of General Medical Sciences, and the Alexander von Humboldt Foundation. Four authors reported disclosures related to those entities, and the remaining five reported no conflicts of interest.
 

SOURCE: Lauer SA et al. Ann Intern Med. 2020 Mar 9. doi:10.1101/2020.02.02.20020016.

Although a 14-day quarantine after exposure to novel coronavirus is “well supported” by evidence, some infected individuals will not become symptomatic until after that period, according to authors of a recent analysis published in Annals of Internal Medicine.

Most individuals infected with severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) will develop symptoms by day 12 of the infection, which is within the 14-day period of active monitoring currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the authors wrote.

However, an estimated 101 out of 10,000 cases could become symptomatic after the end of that 14-day monitoring period, they cautioned.

“Our analyses do not preclude that estimate from being higher,” said the investigators, led by Stephen A. Lauer, PhD, MD, of Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health, Baltimore.

The analysis, based on 181 confirmed cases of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) that were documented outside of the outbreak epicenter, Wuhan, China, makes “more conservative assumptions” about the window of symptom onset and potential for continued exposure, compared with analyses in previous studies, the researchers wrote.

The estimated incubation period for SARS-CoV-2 in the 181-patient study was a median of 5.1 days, which is comparable with previous estimates based on COVID-19 cases outside of Wuhan and consistent with other known human coronavirus diseases, such as SARS, which had a reported mean incubation period of 5 days, Dr. Lauer and colleagues noted.

Symptoms developed within 11.5 days for 97.5% of patients in the study.

Whether it’s acceptable to have 101 out of 10,000 cases becoming symptomatic beyond the recommended quarantine window depends on two factors, according to the authors. The first is the expected infection risk in the population that is being monitored, and the second is “judgment about the cost of missing cases,” wrote the authors.

In an interview, Aaron Eli Glatt, MD, chair of medicine at Mount Sinai South Nassau, Oceanside, N.Y., said that in practical terms, the results suggest that the majority of patients with COVID-19 will be identified within 14 days, with an “outside chance” of an infected individual leaving quarantine and transmitting virus for a short period of time before becoming symptomatic.

“I think the proper message to give those patients [who are asymptomatic upon leaving quarantine] is, ‘after 14 days, we’re pretty sure you’re out of the woods, but should you get any symptoms, immediately requarantine yourself and seek medical care,” he said.

Study coauthor Kyra H. Grantz, a doctoral graduate student at the Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health, said that extending a quarantine beyond 14 days might be considered in the highest-risk scenarios, though the benefits of doing so would have to be weighed against the costs to public health and to the individuals under quarantine.

“Our estimate of the incubation period definitely supports the 14-day recommendation that the CDC has been using,” she said in an interview.

Dr. Grantz emphasized that the estimate of 101 out of 10,000 cases developing symptoms after day 14 of active monitoring – representing the 99th percentile of cases – assumes the “most conservative, worst-case scenario” in a population that is fully infected.

“If you’re looking at a following a cohort of 1,000 people whom you think may have been exposed, only a certain percentage will be infected, and only a certain percentage of those will even develop symptoms – before we get to this idea of how many people would we miss,” she said.

The study was supported by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, the National Institute of General Medical Sciences, and the Alexander von Humboldt Foundation. Four authors reported disclosures related to those entities, and the remaining five reported no conflicts of interest.
 

SOURCE: Lauer SA et al. Ann Intern Med. 2020 Mar 9. doi:10.1101/2020.02.02.20020016.

Current trends in the incidence and mortality of colorectal cancer (CRC) in the United States suggest CRC will become a disease that largely affects young and middle-aged adults, according to a report published in CA: A Cancer Journal for Clinicians.

As the second leading cause of cancer-related death in the United States, and with modifiable risk factors accounting for over 50% of cases and deaths, CRC is largely a preventable disease, explained study author Rebecca L. Siegel, of the American Cancer Society, and colleagues.

According to the investigators, CRC incidence dropped by 3.3% per year from 2011 through 2016 among individuals aged 65 years or older, but the opposite was observed for those aged 50-64 years, with rates increasing by 1% per year. The increase was even greater for those younger than 50 years, with an increase of 2.2% per year.

The CRC incidence from 2012 through 2016 was highest among Alaska Natives (89 cases per 100,000 persons) and lowest among Asian/Pacific Islanders (30 cases per 100,000 persons).

“CRC has been the most commonly diagnosed cancer in Alaska Natives since the early 1970s for reasons that are unknown but may include a higher prevalence of risk factors,” the investigators wrote.

The risk of developing CRC is related to several factors, including obesity, vitamin D deficiency, diabetes, smoking, and other dietary factors, the team further explained.

Among those aged 65 years or older, CRC death rates decreased by 3% per year from 2008 through 2017. For those aged 50-64 years, death rates dropped by 0.6% per year. In contrast, death rates rose by 1.3% per year for those younger than 50 years.

“The uptick in young adults, which is most rapid among non-Hispanic whites (2% per year), began around 2004 and was preceded by declines of 1% to 2% per year since at least 1975,” the investigators wrote.

The reduction in incidence and mortality among older adults is partially attributable to higher uptake of CRC screening. According to recent data, CRC screening rates were lower for those aged 50-64 years compared with individuals aged 65 years and older.

Based on current recommendations from the American Cancer Society, CRC screening should begin at age 45, with some higher-risk patients starting at age 40.

“Progress against CRC can be accelerated by increasing access to guideline-recommended screening and high quality treatment, particularly among Alaska Natives, and elucidating causes for rising incidence in young and middle-aged adults,” the investigators concluded.

The authors disclosed financial affiliations with the American Cancer Society, which funded the study, as well as Array Biopharma, Bayer, RGenix, Tesaro, and Seattle Genetics.

SOURCE: Siegel RL et al. CA Cancer J Clin. 2020 Mar 5. doi: 10.3322/caac.21601.

Current trends in the incidence and mortality of colorectal cancer (CRC) in the United States suggest CRC will become a disease that largely affects young and middle-aged adults, according to a report published in CA: A Cancer Journal for Clinicians.

As the second leading cause of cancer-related death in the United States, and with modifiable risk factors accounting for over 50% of cases and deaths, CRC is largely a preventable disease, explained study author Rebecca L. Siegel, of the American Cancer Society, and colleagues.

According to the investigators, CRC incidence dropped by 3.3% per year from 2011 through 2016 among individuals aged 65 years or older, but the opposite was observed for those aged 50-64 years, with rates increasing by 1% per year. The increase was even greater for those younger than 50 years, with an increase of 2.2% per year.

The CRC incidence from 2012 through 2016 was highest among Alaska Natives (89 cases per 100,000 persons) and lowest among Asian/Pacific Islanders (30 cases per 100,000 persons).

“CRC has been the most commonly diagnosed cancer in Alaska Natives since the early 1970s for reasons that are unknown but may include a higher prevalence of risk factors,” the investigators wrote.

The risk of developing CRC is related to several factors, including obesity, vitamin D deficiency, diabetes, smoking, and other dietary factors, the team further explained.

Among those aged 65 years or older, CRC death rates decreased by 3% per year from 2008 through 2017. For those aged 50-64 years, death rates dropped by 0.6% per year. In contrast, death rates rose by 1.3% per year for those younger than 50 years.

“The uptick in young adults, which is most rapid among non-Hispanic whites (2% per year), began around 2004 and was preceded by declines of 1% to 2% per year since at least 1975,” the investigators wrote.

The reduction in incidence and mortality among older adults is partially attributable to higher uptake of CRC screening. According to recent data, CRC screening rates were lower for those aged 50-64 years compared with individuals aged 65 years and older.

Based on current recommendations from the American Cancer Society, CRC screening should begin at age 45, with some higher-risk patients starting at age 40.

“Progress against CRC can be accelerated by increasing access to guideline-recommended screening and high quality treatment, particularly among Alaska Natives, and elucidating causes for rising incidence in young and middle-aged adults,” the investigators concluded.

The authors disclosed financial affiliations with the American Cancer Society, which funded the study, as well as Array Biopharma, Bayer, RGenix, Tesaro, and Seattle Genetics.

SOURCE: Siegel RL et al. CA Cancer J Clin. 2020 Mar 5. doi: 10.3322/caac.21601.

Current trends in the incidence and mortality of colorectal cancer (CRC) in the United States suggest CRC will become a disease that largely affects young and middle-aged adults, according to a report published in CA: A Cancer Journal for Clinicians.

As the second leading cause of cancer-related death in the United States, and with modifiable risk factors accounting for over 50% of cases and deaths, CRC is largely a preventable disease, explained study author Rebecca L. Siegel, of the American Cancer Society, and colleagues.

According to the investigators, CRC incidence dropped by 3.3% per year from 2011 through 2016 among individuals aged 65 years or older, but the opposite was observed for those aged 50-64 years, with rates increasing by 1% per year. The increase was even greater for those younger than 50 years, with an increase of 2.2% per year.

The CRC incidence from 2012 through 2016 was highest among Alaska Natives (89 cases per 100,000 persons) and lowest among Asian/Pacific Islanders (30 cases per 100,000 persons).

“CRC has been the most commonly diagnosed cancer in Alaska Natives since the early 1970s for reasons that are unknown but may include a higher prevalence of risk factors,” the investigators wrote.

The risk of developing CRC is related to several factors, including obesity, vitamin D deficiency, diabetes, smoking, and other dietary factors, the team further explained.

Among those aged 65 years or older, CRC death rates decreased by 3% per year from 2008 through 2017. For those aged 50-64 years, death rates dropped by 0.6% per year. In contrast, death rates rose by 1.3% per year for those younger than 50 years.

“The uptick in young adults, which is most rapid among non-Hispanic whites (2% per year), began around 2004 and was preceded by declines of 1% to 2% per year since at least 1975,” the investigators wrote.

The reduction in incidence and mortality among older adults is partially attributable to higher uptake of CRC screening. According to recent data, CRC screening rates were lower for those aged 50-64 years compared with individuals aged 65 years and older.

Based on current recommendations from the American Cancer Society, CRC screening should begin at age 45, with some higher-risk patients starting at age 40.

“Progress against CRC can be accelerated by increasing access to guideline-recommended screening and high quality treatment, particularly among Alaska Natives, and elucidating causes for rising incidence in young and middle-aged adults,” the investigators concluded.

The authors disclosed financial affiliations with the American Cancer Society, which funded the study, as well as Array Biopharma, Bayer, RGenix, Tesaro, and Seattle Genetics.

SOURCE: Siegel RL et al. CA Cancer J Clin. 2020 Mar 5. doi: 10.3322/caac.21601.

Oral hygiene may be a key factor in diabetes risk, new data from a Korean national health database suggest.

“Frequent tooth brushing may be an attenuating factor for the risk of new-onset diabetes, and the presence of periodontal disease and increased number of missing teeth may be augmenting factors,” wrote Yoonkyung Chang, MD, of the Department of Neurology, Mokdong Hospital, Ewha Womans University College of Medicine, Seoul, South Korea, and colleagues.

“Improving oral hygiene may be associated with a decreased risk of occurrence of new-onset diabetes,” they continued in an article published online in Diabetologia.

Periodontal disease involves inflammatory reactions that affect the surrounding tissues of the teeth. Inflammation, in turn, is an important cause of diabetes because it increases insulin resistance and endothelial dysfunction, Dr. Chang and colleagues explained.

They analyzed data gathered during 2003-2006 from 188,013 individuals from the Korean National Health Insurance System – Health Screening Cohort who had complete data and did not have diabetes at baseline. Oral hygiene behaviors, including frequency of tooth brushing, and dental visits or cleanings, were collected by self-report.

Over a median follow-up of 10 years, there were 31,545 new cases of diabetes, with an estimated overall 10-year event rate of 16.1%. The rate was 17.2% for those with periodontal disease at baseline, compared with 15.8% for those without, which was a significant difference even after adjustments for multiple confounders (hazard ratio, 1.09; P less than .001).

Compared with patients who had no missing teeth, the event rate for new-onset diabetes rose from 15.4% for patients with 1 missing tooth (HR, 1.08; P less than .001) to 21.4% for those with 15 or more missing teeth (HR, 1.21; P less than .001).

Professional dental cleaning did not have a significant effect after multivariate analysis. However, the number of daily tooth brushings by the individual did. Compared with brushing 0-1 times/day, those who brushed 3 or more times/day had a significantly lower risk for new-onset diabetes (HR, 0.92; P less than .001).

In subgroup analyses, periodontal disease was more strongly associated with new-onset diabetes in adults aged 51 years and younger (HR, 1.14), compared with those who were 52 years or older (HR, 1.06).

The study was supported by a grant from the Basic Science Research Program through the National Research Foundation of Korea funded by the Ministry of Education. The authors reported no relevant financial relationships.
 

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

Oral hygiene may be a key factor in diabetes risk, new data from a Korean national health database suggest.

“Frequent tooth brushing may be an attenuating factor for the risk of new-onset diabetes, and the presence of periodontal disease and increased number of missing teeth may be augmenting factors,” wrote Yoonkyung Chang, MD, of the Department of Neurology, Mokdong Hospital, Ewha Womans University College of Medicine, Seoul, South Korea, and colleagues.

“Improving oral hygiene may be associated with a decreased risk of occurrence of new-onset diabetes,” they continued in an article published online in Diabetologia.

Periodontal disease involves inflammatory reactions that affect the surrounding tissues of the teeth. Inflammation, in turn, is an important cause of diabetes because it increases insulin resistance and endothelial dysfunction, Dr. Chang and colleagues explained.

They analyzed data gathered during 2003-2006 from 188,013 individuals from the Korean National Health Insurance System – Health Screening Cohort who had complete data and did not have diabetes at baseline. Oral hygiene behaviors, including frequency of tooth brushing, and dental visits or cleanings, were collected by self-report.

Over a median follow-up of 10 years, there were 31,545 new cases of diabetes, with an estimated overall 10-year event rate of 16.1%. The rate was 17.2% for those with periodontal disease at baseline, compared with 15.8% for those without, which was a significant difference even after adjustments for multiple confounders (hazard ratio, 1.09; P less than .001).

Compared with patients who had no missing teeth, the event rate for new-onset diabetes rose from 15.4% for patients with 1 missing tooth (HR, 1.08; P less than .001) to 21.4% for those with 15 or more missing teeth (HR, 1.21; P less than .001).

Professional dental cleaning did not have a significant effect after multivariate analysis. However, the number of daily tooth brushings by the individual did. Compared with brushing 0-1 times/day, those who brushed 3 or more times/day had a significantly lower risk for new-onset diabetes (HR, 0.92; P less than .001).

In subgroup analyses, periodontal disease was more strongly associated with new-onset diabetes in adults aged 51 years and younger (HR, 1.14), compared with those who were 52 years or older (HR, 1.06).

The study was supported by a grant from the Basic Science Research Program through the National Research Foundation of Korea funded by the Ministry of Education. The authors reported no relevant financial relationships.
 

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

Oral hygiene may be a key factor in diabetes risk, new data from a Korean national health database suggest.

“Frequent tooth brushing may be an attenuating factor for the risk of new-onset diabetes, and the presence of periodontal disease and increased number of missing teeth may be augmenting factors,” wrote Yoonkyung Chang, MD, of the Department of Neurology, Mokdong Hospital, Ewha Womans University College of Medicine, Seoul, South Korea, and colleagues.

“Improving oral hygiene may be associated with a decreased risk of occurrence of new-onset diabetes,” they continued in an article published online in Diabetologia.

Periodontal disease involves inflammatory reactions that affect the surrounding tissues of the teeth. Inflammation, in turn, is an important cause of diabetes because it increases insulin resistance and endothelial dysfunction, Dr. Chang and colleagues explained.

They analyzed data gathered during 2003-2006 from 188,013 individuals from the Korean National Health Insurance System – Health Screening Cohort who had complete data and did not have diabetes at baseline. Oral hygiene behaviors, including frequency of tooth brushing, and dental visits or cleanings, were collected by self-report.

Over a median follow-up of 10 years, there were 31,545 new cases of diabetes, with an estimated overall 10-year event rate of 16.1%. The rate was 17.2% for those with periodontal disease at baseline, compared with 15.8% for those without, which was a significant difference even after adjustments for multiple confounders (hazard ratio, 1.09; P less than .001).

Compared with patients who had no missing teeth, the event rate for new-onset diabetes rose from 15.4% for patients with 1 missing tooth (HR, 1.08; P less than .001) to 21.4% for those with 15 or more missing teeth (HR, 1.21; P less than .001).

Professional dental cleaning did not have a significant effect after multivariate analysis. However, the number of daily tooth brushings by the individual did. Compared with brushing 0-1 times/day, those who brushed 3 or more times/day had a significantly lower risk for new-onset diabetes (HR, 0.92; P less than .001).

In subgroup analyses, periodontal disease was more strongly associated with new-onset diabetes in adults aged 51 years and younger (HR, 1.14), compared with those who were 52 years or older (HR, 1.06).

The study was supported by a grant from the Basic Science Research Program through the National Research Foundation of Korea funded by the Ministry of Education. The authors reported no relevant financial relationships.
 

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

The toilet bowl, sink, and bathroom door handle of an isolation room housing a patient with the novel coronavirus tested positive for the virus, raising the possibility that viral shedding in the stool could represent another route of transmission, investigators reported.

CDC/ Dr. Fred Murphy; Sylvia Whitfield

Air outlet fans and other room sites also tested positive for severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2), though an anteroom, a corridor, and most personal protective equipment (PPE) worn by health care providers tested negative, according to the researchers, led by Sean Wei Xiang Ong, MBBS, of the National Centre for Infectious Diseases, Singapore.

Taken together, these findings suggest a “need for strict adherence to environmental and hand hygiene” to combat significant environmental contamination through respiratory droplets and fecal shedding, Dr. Ong and colleagues wrote in JAMA.

Aaron Eli Glatt, MD, chair of medicine at Mount Sinai South Nassau in New York, said these results demonstrate that SARS-CoV-2 is “clearly capable” of contaminating bathroom sinks and toilets.

“That wouldn’t have been the first place I would have thought of, before this study,” he said in an interview. “You need to pay attention to cleaning the bathrooms, which we obviously do, but that’s an important reminder.”

The report by Dr. Ong and coauthors included a total of three patients housed in airborne infection isolation rooms in a dedicated SARS-CoV-2 outbreak center in Singapore. For each patient, surface samples were taken from 26 sites in the isolation room, an anteroom, and a bathroom. Samples were also taken from PPE on physicians as they left the patient rooms.

Samples for the first patient, taken right after routine cleaning, were all negative, according to researchers. That room was sampled twice, on days 4 and 10 of the illness, while the patient was still symptomatic. Likewise, for the second patient, postcleaning samples were negative; those samples were taken 2 days after cleaning.

However, for the third patient, samples were taken before routine cleaning. In this case, Dr. Ong and colleagues said 13 of 15 room sites (87%) were positive, including air outlet fans, while 3 of 5 toilet sites (60%) were positive as well, though no contamination was found in the anteroom, corridor, or in air samples.

That patient had two stool samples that were positive for SARS-CoV-2, but no diarrhea, authors said, and had upper respiratory tract involvement without pneumonia.

The fact that swabs of the air exhaust outlets tested positive suggests that virus-laden droplets could be “displaced by airflows” and end up on vents or other equipment, Dr. Ong and coauthors reported.

All PPE samples tested negative, except for the front of one shoe.

“The risk of transmission from contaminated footwear is likely low, as evidenced by negative results in the anteroom and corridor,” they wrote.

While this study included only a small number of patients, Dr. Glatt said the findings represent an important and useful contribution to the literature on coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19).

“Every day we’re getting more information, and each little piece of the puzzle helps us in the overall management of individuals with COVID-19,” he said in the interview. “They’re adding to our ability to manage, control, and mitigate further spread of the disease.”

Funding for the study came from the National Medical Research Council in Singapore and DSO National Laboratories. Dr. Ong and colleagues reported no conflicts of interest.

SOURCE: Ong SWX et al. JAMA. 2020 Mar 4. doi: 10.1001/jama.2020.3227.

The toilet bowl, sink, and bathroom door handle of an isolation room housing a patient with the novel coronavirus tested positive for the virus, raising the possibility that viral shedding in the stool could represent another route of transmission, investigators reported.

CDC/ Dr. Fred Murphy; Sylvia Whitfield

Air outlet fans and other room sites also tested positive for severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2), though an anteroom, a corridor, and most personal protective equipment (PPE) worn by health care providers tested negative, according to the researchers, led by Sean Wei Xiang Ong, MBBS, of the National Centre for Infectious Diseases, Singapore.

Taken together, these findings suggest a “need for strict adherence to environmental and hand hygiene” to combat significant environmental contamination through respiratory droplets and fecal shedding, Dr. Ong and colleagues wrote in JAMA.

Aaron Eli Glatt, MD, chair of medicine at Mount Sinai South Nassau in New York, said these results demonstrate that SARS-CoV-2 is “clearly capable” of contaminating bathroom sinks and toilets.

“That wouldn’t have been the first place I would have thought of, before this study,” he said in an interview. “You need to pay attention to cleaning the bathrooms, which we obviously do, but that’s an important reminder.”

The report by Dr. Ong and coauthors included a total of three patients housed in airborne infection isolation rooms in a dedicated SARS-CoV-2 outbreak center in Singapore. For each patient, surface samples were taken from 26 sites in the isolation room, an anteroom, and a bathroom. Samples were also taken from PPE on physicians as they left the patient rooms.

Samples for the first patient, taken right after routine cleaning, were all negative, according to researchers. That room was sampled twice, on days 4 and 10 of the illness, while the patient was still symptomatic. Likewise, for the second patient, postcleaning samples were negative; those samples were taken 2 days after cleaning.

However, for the third patient, samples were taken before routine cleaning. In this case, Dr. Ong and colleagues said 13 of 15 room sites (87%) were positive, including air outlet fans, while 3 of 5 toilet sites (60%) were positive as well, though no contamination was found in the anteroom, corridor, or in air samples.

That patient had two stool samples that were positive for SARS-CoV-2, but no diarrhea, authors said, and had upper respiratory tract involvement without pneumonia.

The fact that swabs of the air exhaust outlets tested positive suggests that virus-laden droplets could be “displaced by airflows” and end up on vents or other equipment, Dr. Ong and coauthors reported.

All PPE samples tested negative, except for the front of one shoe.

“The risk of transmission from contaminated footwear is likely low, as evidenced by negative results in the anteroom and corridor,” they wrote.

While this study included only a small number of patients, Dr. Glatt said the findings represent an important and useful contribution to the literature on coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19).

“Every day we’re getting more information, and each little piece of the puzzle helps us in the overall management of individuals with COVID-19,” he said in the interview. “They’re adding to our ability to manage, control, and mitigate further spread of the disease.”

Funding for the study came from the National Medical Research Council in Singapore and DSO National Laboratories. Dr. Ong and colleagues reported no conflicts of interest.

SOURCE: Ong SWX et al. JAMA. 2020 Mar 4. doi: 10.1001/jama.2020.3227.

The toilet bowl, sink, and bathroom door handle of an isolation room housing a patient with the novel coronavirus tested positive for the virus, raising the possibility that viral shedding in the stool could represent another route of transmission, investigators reported.

CDC/ Dr. Fred Murphy; Sylvia Whitfield

Air outlet fans and other room sites also tested positive for severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2), though an anteroom, a corridor, and most personal protective equipment (PPE) worn by health care providers tested negative, according to the researchers, led by Sean Wei Xiang Ong, MBBS, of the National Centre for Infectious Diseases, Singapore.

Taken together, these findings suggest a “need for strict adherence to environmental and hand hygiene” to combat significant environmental contamination through respiratory droplets and fecal shedding, Dr. Ong and colleagues wrote in JAMA.

Aaron Eli Glatt, MD, chair of medicine at Mount Sinai South Nassau in New York, said these results demonstrate that SARS-CoV-2 is “clearly capable” of contaminating bathroom sinks and toilets.

“That wouldn’t have been the first place I would have thought of, before this study,” he said in an interview. “You need to pay attention to cleaning the bathrooms, which we obviously do, but that’s an important reminder.”

The report by Dr. Ong and coauthors included a total of three patients housed in airborne infection isolation rooms in a dedicated SARS-CoV-2 outbreak center in Singapore. For each patient, surface samples were taken from 26 sites in the isolation room, an anteroom, and a bathroom. Samples were also taken from PPE on physicians as they left the patient rooms.

Samples for the first patient, taken right after routine cleaning, were all negative, according to researchers. That room was sampled twice, on days 4 and 10 of the illness, while the patient was still symptomatic. Likewise, for the second patient, postcleaning samples were negative; those samples were taken 2 days after cleaning.

However, for the third patient, samples were taken before routine cleaning. In this case, Dr. Ong and colleagues said 13 of 15 room sites (87%) were positive, including air outlet fans, while 3 of 5 toilet sites (60%) were positive as well, though no contamination was found in the anteroom, corridor, or in air samples.

That patient had two stool samples that were positive for SARS-CoV-2, but no diarrhea, authors said, and had upper respiratory tract involvement without pneumonia.

The fact that swabs of the air exhaust outlets tested positive suggests that virus-laden droplets could be “displaced by airflows” and end up on vents or other equipment, Dr. Ong and coauthors reported.

All PPE samples tested negative, except for the front of one shoe.

“The risk of transmission from contaminated footwear is likely low, as evidenced by negative results in the anteroom and corridor,” they wrote.

While this study included only a small number of patients, Dr. Glatt said the findings represent an important and useful contribution to the literature on coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19).

“Every day we’re getting more information, and each little piece of the puzzle helps us in the overall management of individuals with COVID-19,” he said in the interview. “They’re adding to our ability to manage, control, and mitigate further spread of the disease.”

Funding for the study came from the National Medical Research Council in Singapore and DSO National Laboratories. Dr. Ong and colleagues reported no conflicts of interest.

SOURCE: Ong SWX et al. JAMA. 2020 Mar 4. doi: 10.1001/jama.2020.3227.

For patients undergoing major oncologic surgery, the best definition of malnutrition used to assess postoperative risk varies by cancer type, results of a retrospective study suggest.

The current, one-size-fits-all approach to nutritional status leads to both undertreatment and overtreatment of malnutrition, as well as inaccurate estimations of postoperative risk, reported lead study author Nicholas P. McKenna, MD, of the Mayo Clinic in Rochester, Minn., and colleagues.

“Assessing nutritional status is important because it impacts preoperative planning, particularly with respect to the use of prehabilitation,” the investigators wrote. Their report is in the Journal of the American College of Surgeons. They noted that while prehabilitation has been shown to reduce postoperative risk among those who need it, identification of these patients is an area that needs improvement.

With this in mind, Dr. McKenna and colleagues analyzed 205,840 major oncologic operations, with data drawn from the American College of Surgeons National Surgical Quality Improvement (NSQIP) database.

The researchers evaluated patients’ nutritional status using three techniques: the NSQIP method, the European Society for Clinical Nutrition and Metabolism (ESPEN) definitions, and the World Health Organization body mass index (BMI) classification system.

Combining these three assessments led to seven hierarchical nutritional status categories:

• Severe malnutrition – BMI less than 18.5 kg/m² and greater than 10% weight loss
• ESPEN 1 – BMI 18.5-20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or less than 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older) plus greater than 10% weight loss
• ESPEN 2 – BMI less than 18.5 kg/m²
• NSQIP – BMI greater than 20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older) plus greater than 10% weight loss
• Mild malnutrition – BMI 18.5-20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or less than 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older)
• Obese – BMI at least 30 kg/m²
• No malnutrition.

The study’s primary outcomes were 30-day mortality and 30-day morbidity. The latter included a variety of complications, such as deep incisional surgical site infection, septic shock, and acute renal failure. Demographic and clinical factors were included in multivariate analyses.
 

Results

Most of the operations involved patients with colorectal cancer (74%), followed by pancreatic (10%), lung (9%), gastric (3%), esophageal (3%), and liver (2%) cancer.

Across all patients, 16% fell into one of five malnutrition categories: mild malnutrition (6%), NSQIP (6%), ESPEN 2 (2%), ESPEN 1 (1%), or severe malnutrition (0.6%). The remainder of patients were either obese (31%) or had normal nutritional status (54%).

Malnutrition was most common among patients with pancreatic cancer (28%) and least common among those with colorectal cancer (14%).

Aligning with previous research, this study showed that nutritional status was associated with postoperative risk. Mortality risk was highest among patients with severe malnutrition, and morbidity was most common in the severe and ESPEN 1 groups (P less than .0001 for both).

While the spectrum of classifications appeared accurate across the population, multivariable models for mortality and morbidity revealed an interaction between cancer type and malnutrition definition (P less than .0001 for both), which suggested the most accurate definition of malnutrition differed from one type of cancer to another.

Specifically, a classification of severe malnutrition was most predictive of mortality among patients with esophageal or colorectal cancer. ESPEN 1 was most predictive of mortality for patients with gastric or lung cancer, and NSQIP was most predictive for those with liver cancer.

For predicting morbidity, severe malnutrition was most accurate among patients with colorectal cancer, whereas ESPEN 1 was better suited for gastric and lung cancer.
 

Interpreting and applying the results

“The biggest takeaway is that the optimal definition of malnutrition varies by cancer type,” Dr. McKenna said in an interview.

He went on to explain that weight loss is a particularly important indicator of malnutrition for patients with esophageal or gastric cancer. “These are the cancers that more commonly undergo neoadjuvant chemotherapy,” he noted.

The other major finding, Dr. McKenna said, offers some perspective on short-term versus long-term risk.

“Most people consider obesity a negative prognostic factor,” he said. “But in terms of operative risk, it’s kind of a neutral effect. It doesn’t really affect the short-term outcomes of an operation.”

Still, Dr. McKenna warned that a visual assessment of patient body condition is not enough to predict postoperative risk. Instead, he recommended accurate height and weight measurements during annual and preoperative exams. He also noted that more patients are at risk than clinicians may suspect.

“Even definitions that didn’t previously exist, such as mild malnutrition, had a somewhat negative effect within colorectal cancer and esophageal cancer,” Dr. McKenna said. “So these are patients who previously probably would be considered pretty healthy, but there is probably some room to improve their nutritional status.”

While the study revealed that different types of cancer should have unique tools for measuring nutritional status, development of these systems will require more research concerning prehabilitation outcomes, according to Dr. McKenna. In the meantime, he highlighted a point of action in the clinic.

“We think, overall, especially with the rise of neoadjuvant chemotherapy upfront, before surgery, that identifying patients at risk before they start neoadjuvant chemotherapy is going to be important,” he said. “They are the ones who really need to be targeted.”

There was no external funding for this study, and the investigators reported no conflicts of interest.
 

SOURCE: McKenna NP et al. J Am Coll Surg. 2020 Feb 26. doi: 10.1016/j.jamcollsurg.2019.12.034.

For patients undergoing major oncologic surgery, the best definition of malnutrition used to assess postoperative risk varies by cancer type, results of a retrospective study suggest.

The current, one-size-fits-all approach to nutritional status leads to both undertreatment and overtreatment of malnutrition, as well as inaccurate estimations of postoperative risk, reported lead study author Nicholas P. McKenna, MD, of the Mayo Clinic in Rochester, Minn., and colleagues.

“Assessing nutritional status is important because it impacts preoperative planning, particularly with respect to the use of prehabilitation,” the investigators wrote. Their report is in the Journal of the American College of Surgeons. They noted that while prehabilitation has been shown to reduce postoperative risk among those who need it, identification of these patients is an area that needs improvement.

With this in mind, Dr. McKenna and colleagues analyzed 205,840 major oncologic operations, with data drawn from the American College of Surgeons National Surgical Quality Improvement (NSQIP) database.

The researchers evaluated patients’ nutritional status using three techniques: the NSQIP method, the European Society for Clinical Nutrition and Metabolism (ESPEN) definitions, and the World Health Organization body mass index (BMI) classification system.

Combining these three assessments led to seven hierarchical nutritional status categories:

• Severe malnutrition – BMI less than 18.5 kg/m² and greater than 10% weight loss
• ESPEN 1 – BMI 18.5-20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or less than 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older) plus greater than 10% weight loss
• ESPEN 2 – BMI less than 18.5 kg/m²
• NSQIP – BMI greater than 20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older) plus greater than 10% weight loss
• Mild malnutrition – BMI 18.5-20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or less than 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older)
• Obese – BMI at least 30 kg/m²
• No malnutrition.

The study’s primary outcomes were 30-day mortality and 30-day morbidity. The latter included a variety of complications, such as deep incisional surgical site infection, septic shock, and acute renal failure. Demographic and clinical factors were included in multivariate analyses.
 

Results

Most of the operations involved patients with colorectal cancer (74%), followed by pancreatic (10%), lung (9%), gastric (3%), esophageal (3%), and liver (2%) cancer.

Across all patients, 16% fell into one of five malnutrition categories: mild malnutrition (6%), NSQIP (6%), ESPEN 2 (2%), ESPEN 1 (1%), or severe malnutrition (0.6%). The remainder of patients were either obese (31%) or had normal nutritional status (54%).

Malnutrition was most common among patients with pancreatic cancer (28%) and least common among those with colorectal cancer (14%).

Aligning with previous research, this study showed that nutritional status was associated with postoperative risk. Mortality risk was highest among patients with severe malnutrition, and morbidity was most common in the severe and ESPEN 1 groups (P less than .0001 for both).

While the spectrum of classifications appeared accurate across the population, multivariable models for mortality and morbidity revealed an interaction between cancer type and malnutrition definition (P less than .0001 for both), which suggested the most accurate definition of malnutrition differed from one type of cancer to another.

Specifically, a classification of severe malnutrition was most predictive of mortality among patients with esophageal or colorectal cancer. ESPEN 1 was most predictive of mortality for patients with gastric or lung cancer, and NSQIP was most predictive for those with liver cancer.

For predicting morbidity, severe malnutrition was most accurate among patients with colorectal cancer, whereas ESPEN 1 was better suited for gastric and lung cancer.
 

Interpreting and applying the results

“The biggest takeaway is that the optimal definition of malnutrition varies by cancer type,” Dr. McKenna said in an interview.

He went on to explain that weight loss is a particularly important indicator of malnutrition for patients with esophageal or gastric cancer. “These are the cancers that more commonly undergo neoadjuvant chemotherapy,” he noted.

The other major finding, Dr. McKenna said, offers some perspective on short-term versus long-term risk.

“Most people consider obesity a negative prognostic factor,” he said. “But in terms of operative risk, it’s kind of a neutral effect. It doesn’t really affect the short-term outcomes of an operation.”

Still, Dr. McKenna warned that a visual assessment of patient body condition is not enough to predict postoperative risk. Instead, he recommended accurate height and weight measurements during annual and preoperative exams. He also noted that more patients are at risk than clinicians may suspect.

“Even definitions that didn’t previously exist, such as mild malnutrition, had a somewhat negative effect within colorectal cancer and esophageal cancer,” Dr. McKenna said. “So these are patients who previously probably would be considered pretty healthy, but there is probably some room to improve their nutritional status.”

While the study revealed that different types of cancer should have unique tools for measuring nutritional status, development of these systems will require more research concerning prehabilitation outcomes, according to Dr. McKenna. In the meantime, he highlighted a point of action in the clinic.

“We think, overall, especially with the rise of neoadjuvant chemotherapy upfront, before surgery, that identifying patients at risk before they start neoadjuvant chemotherapy is going to be important,” he said. “They are the ones who really need to be targeted.”

There was no external funding for this study, and the investigators reported no conflicts of interest.
 

SOURCE: McKenna NP et al. J Am Coll Surg. 2020 Feb 26. doi: 10.1016/j.jamcollsurg.2019.12.034.

For patients undergoing major oncologic surgery, the best definition of malnutrition used to assess postoperative risk varies by cancer type, results of a retrospective study suggest.

The current, one-size-fits-all approach to nutritional status leads to both undertreatment and overtreatment of malnutrition, as well as inaccurate estimations of postoperative risk, reported lead study author Nicholas P. McKenna, MD, of the Mayo Clinic in Rochester, Minn., and colleagues.

“Assessing nutritional status is important because it impacts preoperative planning, particularly with respect to the use of prehabilitation,” the investigators wrote. Their report is in the Journal of the American College of Surgeons. They noted that while prehabilitation has been shown to reduce postoperative risk among those who need it, identification of these patients is an area that needs improvement.

With this in mind, Dr. McKenna and colleagues analyzed 205,840 major oncologic operations, with data drawn from the American College of Surgeons National Surgical Quality Improvement (NSQIP) database.

The researchers evaluated patients’ nutritional status using three techniques: the NSQIP method, the European Society for Clinical Nutrition and Metabolism (ESPEN) definitions, and the World Health Organization body mass index (BMI) classification system.

Combining these three assessments led to seven hierarchical nutritional status categories:

• Severe malnutrition – BMI less than 18.5 kg/m² and greater than 10% weight loss
• ESPEN 1 – BMI 18.5-20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or less than 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older) plus greater than 10% weight loss
• ESPEN 2 – BMI less than 18.5 kg/m²
• NSQIP – BMI greater than 20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older) plus greater than 10% weight loss
• Mild malnutrition – BMI 18.5-20 kg/m² (if younger than 70 years) or less than 22 kg/m² (if 70 years or older)
• Obese – BMI at least 30 kg/m²
• No malnutrition.

The study’s primary outcomes were 30-day mortality and 30-day morbidity. The latter included a variety of complications, such as deep incisional surgical site infection, septic shock, and acute renal failure. Demographic and clinical factors were included in multivariate analyses.
 

Results

Most of the operations involved patients with colorectal cancer (74%), followed by pancreatic (10%), lung (9%), gastric (3%), esophageal (3%), and liver (2%) cancer.

Across all patients, 16% fell into one of five malnutrition categories: mild malnutrition (6%), NSQIP (6%), ESPEN 2 (2%), ESPEN 1 (1%), or severe malnutrition (0.6%). The remainder of patients were either obese (31%) or had normal nutritional status (54%).

Malnutrition was most common among patients with pancreatic cancer (28%) and least common among those with colorectal cancer (14%).

Aligning with previous research, this study showed that nutritional status was associated with postoperative risk. Mortality risk was highest among patients with severe malnutrition, and morbidity was most common in the severe and ESPEN 1 groups (P less than .0001 for both).

While the spectrum of classifications appeared accurate across the population, multivariable models for mortality and morbidity revealed an interaction between cancer type and malnutrition definition (P less than .0001 for both), which suggested the most accurate definition of malnutrition differed from one type of cancer to another.

Specifically, a classification of severe malnutrition was most predictive of mortality among patients with esophageal or colorectal cancer. ESPEN 1 was most predictive of mortality for patients with gastric or lung cancer, and NSQIP was most predictive for those with liver cancer.

For predicting morbidity, severe malnutrition was most accurate among patients with colorectal cancer, whereas ESPEN 1 was better suited for gastric and lung cancer.
 

Interpreting and applying the results

“The biggest takeaway is that the optimal definition of malnutrition varies by cancer type,” Dr. McKenna said in an interview.

He went on to explain that weight loss is a particularly important indicator of malnutrition for patients with esophageal or gastric cancer. “These are the cancers that more commonly undergo neoadjuvant chemotherapy,” he noted.

The other major finding, Dr. McKenna said, offers some perspective on short-term versus long-term risk.

“Most people consider obesity a negative prognostic factor,” he said. “But in terms of operative risk, it’s kind of a neutral effect. It doesn’t really affect the short-term outcomes of an operation.”

Still, Dr. McKenna warned that a visual assessment of patient body condition is not enough to predict postoperative risk. Instead, he recommended accurate height and weight measurements during annual and preoperative exams. He also noted that more patients are at risk than clinicians may suspect.

“Even definitions that didn’t previously exist, such as mild malnutrition, had a somewhat negative effect within colorectal cancer and esophageal cancer,” Dr. McKenna said. “So these are patients who previously probably would be considered pretty healthy, but there is probably some room to improve their nutritional status.”

While the study revealed that different types of cancer should have unique tools for measuring nutritional status, development of these systems will require more research concerning prehabilitation outcomes, according to Dr. McKenna. In the meantime, he highlighted a point of action in the clinic.

“We think, overall, especially with the rise of neoadjuvant chemotherapy upfront, before surgery, that identifying patients at risk before they start neoadjuvant chemotherapy is going to be important,” he said. “They are the ones who really need to be targeted.”

There was no external funding for this study, and the investigators reported no conflicts of interest.
 

SOURCE: McKenna NP et al. J Am Coll Surg. 2020 Feb 26. doi: 10.1016/j.jamcollsurg.2019.12.034.

Telehealth is increasingly being viewed as a key way to help fight the COVID-19 outbreak in the United States. Recognizing the potential of this technology to slow the spread of the disease, the House of Representatives included a provision in an $8.3 billion emergency response bill it approved today that would temporarily lift restrictions on Medicare telehealth coverage to assist in the efforts to contain the virus.

Nancy Messonnier, MD, director of the National Center for Immunization and Respiratory Diseases at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), said that hospitals should be prepared to use telehealth as one of their tools in fighting the outbreak, according to a recent news release from the American Hospital Association (AHA).

Congress is responding to that need by including the service in the new coronavirus legislation now headed to the Senate, after the funding bill was approved in a 415-2 vote by the House.

The bill empowers the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) to “waive or modify application of certain Medicare requirements with respect to telehealth services furnished during certain emergency periods.”

While the measure adds telehealth to the waiver authority that the HHS secretary currently has during national emergencies, it’s only for the coronavirus crisis in this case, Krista Drobac, executive director of the Alliance for Connected Care, told Medscape Medical News.

The waiver would apply to originating sites of telehealth visits, she noted. Thus Medicare coverage of telemedicine would be expanded beyond rural areas.

In addition, the waiver would allow coverage of virtual visits conducted on smartphones with audio and video capabilities. A “qualified provider,” as defined by the legislation, would be a practitioner who has an established relationship with the patient or who is in the same practice as the provider who has that relationship.

An advantage of telehealth, proponents say, is that it can enable people who believe they have COVID-19 to be seen at home rather than visit offices or emergency departments (EDs) where they might spread the disease or be in proximity to others who have it.

In an editorial published March 2 in Modern Healthcare, medical directors from Stanford Medicine, MedStar Health, and Intermountain Healthcare also noted that telehealth can give patients 24/7 access to care, allow surveillance of patients at risk while keeping them at home, ensure that treatment in hospitals is reserved for high-need patients, and enable providers to triage and screen more patients than can be handled in brick-and-mortar care settings.

However, telehealth screening would allow physicians only to judge whether a patient’s symptoms might be indicative of COVID-19, the Alliance for Connected Care, a telehealth advocacy group, noted in a letter to Congressional leaders. Patients would still have to be seen in person to be tested for the disease.

The group, which represents technology companies, health insurers, pharmacies, and other healthcare players, has been lobbying Congress to include telehealth in federal funds to combat the outbreak.

The American Telemedicine Association (ATA) also supports this goal, ATA President Joseph Kvedar, MD, told Medscape Medical News. And the authors of the Modern Healthcare editorial also advocated for this legislative solution. Because the fatality rate for COVID-19 is significantly higher for older people than for other age groups, they noted, telehealth should be an economically viable option for all seniors.

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) long covered telemedicine only in rural areas and only when initiated in healthcare settings. Recently, however, CMS loosened its approach to some extent. Virtual “check-in visits” can now be initiated from any location, including home, to determine whether a Medicare patient needs to be seen in the office. In addition, CMS allows Medicare Advantage plans to offer telemedicine as a core benefit.

Are healthcare systems prepared?

Some large healthcare systems such as Stanford, MedStar, and Intermountain are already using telehealth to diagnose and treat patients who have traditional influenza. Telehealth providers at Stanford estimate that almost 50% of these patients are being prescribed the antiviral drug Tamiflu.

It’s unclear whether other healthcare systems are this well prepared to offer telehealth on a large scale. But, according to an AHA survey, Kvedar noted, three quarters of AHA members are engaged in some form of telehealth.

Drobac said “it wouldn’t require too much effort” to ramp up a wide-scale telehealth program that could help reduce the impact of the outbreak. “The technology is there,” she noted. “You need a HIPAA-compliant telehealth platform, but there are so many out there.”

Kvedar agreed. To begin with, he said, hospitals might sequester patients who visit the ED with COVID-19 symptoms in a video-equipped “isolation room.” Staff members could then do the patient intake from a different location in the hospital.

He admitted that this approach would be infeasible if a lot of patients arrived in EDs with coronavirus symptoms. However, Kvedar noted, “All the tools are in place to go well beyond that. American Well, Teladoc, and others are all offering ways to get out in front of this. There are plenty of vendors out there, and most people have a connected cell phone that you can do a video call on.”

Hospital leaders would have to decide whether to embrace telehealth, which would mean less use of services in their institutions, he said. “But it would be for the greater good of the public.”

Kvedar recalled that there was some use of telehealth in the New York area after 9/11. Telehealth was also used in the aftermath of Hurricane Katrina in 2005. But the ATA president, who is also vice president of connected health at Partners HealthCare in Boston, noted that the COVID-19 outbreak is the first public health emergency to occur in the era of Skype and smartphones.

If Congress does ultimately authorize CMS to cover telehealth across the board during this emergency, might that lead to a permanent change in Medicare coverage policy? Kvedar wouldn’t venture an opinion. “However, the current CMS leadership has been incredibly telehealth friendly,” he said. “So it’s possible they would [embrace a lifting of restrictions]. As patients get a sense of this modality of care and how convenient it is for them, they’ll start asking for more.”

Meanwhile, he said, the telehealth opportunity goes beyond video visits with doctors to mitigate the outbreak. Telehealth data could also be used to track disease spread, similar to how researchers have studied Google searches to predict the spread of the flu, he noted.

Teladoc, a major telehealth vendor, recently told stock analysts it’s already working with the CDC on disease surveillance, according to a report in FierceHealthcare.

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

Telehealth is increasingly being viewed as a key way to help fight the COVID-19 outbreak in the United States. Recognizing the potential of this technology to slow the spread of the disease, the House of Representatives included a provision in an $8.3 billion emergency response bill it approved today that would temporarily lift restrictions on Medicare telehealth coverage to assist in the efforts to contain the virus.

Nancy Messonnier, MD, director of the National Center for Immunization and Respiratory Diseases at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), said that hospitals should be prepared to use telehealth as one of their tools in fighting the outbreak, according to a recent news release from the American Hospital Association (AHA).

Congress is responding to that need by including the service in the new coronavirus legislation now headed to the Senate, after the funding bill was approved in a 415-2 vote by the House.

The bill empowers the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) to “waive or modify application of certain Medicare requirements with respect to telehealth services furnished during certain emergency periods.”

While the measure adds telehealth to the waiver authority that the HHS secretary currently has during national emergencies, it’s only for the coronavirus crisis in this case, Krista Drobac, executive director of the Alliance for Connected Care, told Medscape Medical News.

The waiver would apply to originating sites of telehealth visits, she noted. Thus Medicare coverage of telemedicine would be expanded beyond rural areas.

In addition, the waiver would allow coverage of virtual visits conducted on smartphones with audio and video capabilities. A “qualified provider,” as defined by the legislation, would be a practitioner who has an established relationship with the patient or who is in the same practice as the provider who has that relationship.

An advantage of telehealth, proponents say, is that it can enable people who believe they have COVID-19 to be seen at home rather than visit offices or emergency departments (EDs) where they might spread the disease or be in proximity to others who have it.

In an editorial published March 2 in Modern Healthcare, medical directors from Stanford Medicine, MedStar Health, and Intermountain Healthcare also noted that telehealth can give patients 24/7 access to care, allow surveillance of patients at risk while keeping them at home, ensure that treatment in hospitals is reserved for high-need patients, and enable providers to triage and screen more patients than can be handled in brick-and-mortar care settings.

However, telehealth screening would allow physicians only to judge whether a patient’s symptoms might be indicative of COVID-19, the Alliance for Connected Care, a telehealth advocacy group, noted in a letter to Congressional leaders. Patients would still have to be seen in person to be tested for the disease.

The group, which represents technology companies, health insurers, pharmacies, and other healthcare players, has been lobbying Congress to include telehealth in federal funds to combat the outbreak.

The American Telemedicine Association (ATA) also supports this goal, ATA President Joseph Kvedar, MD, told Medscape Medical News. And the authors of the Modern Healthcare editorial also advocated for this legislative solution. Because the fatality rate for COVID-19 is significantly higher for older people than for other age groups, they noted, telehealth should be an economically viable option for all seniors.

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) long covered telemedicine only in rural areas and only when initiated in healthcare settings. Recently, however, CMS loosened its approach to some extent. Virtual “check-in visits” can now be initiated from any location, including home, to determine whether a Medicare patient needs to be seen in the office. In addition, CMS allows Medicare Advantage plans to offer telemedicine as a core benefit.

Are healthcare systems prepared?

Some large healthcare systems such as Stanford, MedStar, and Intermountain are already using telehealth to diagnose and treat patients who have traditional influenza. Telehealth providers at Stanford estimate that almost 50% of these patients are being prescribed the antiviral drug Tamiflu.

It’s unclear whether other healthcare systems are this well prepared to offer telehealth on a large scale. But, according to an AHA survey, Kvedar noted, three quarters of AHA members are engaged in some form of telehealth.

Drobac said “it wouldn’t require too much effort” to ramp up a wide-scale telehealth program that could help reduce the impact of the outbreak. “The technology is there,” she noted. “You need a HIPAA-compliant telehealth platform, but there are so many out there.”

Kvedar agreed. To begin with, he said, hospitals might sequester patients who visit the ED with COVID-19 symptoms in a video-equipped “isolation room.” Staff members could then do the patient intake from a different location in the hospital.

He admitted that this approach would be infeasible if a lot of patients arrived in EDs with coronavirus symptoms. However, Kvedar noted, “All the tools are in place to go well beyond that. American Well, Teladoc, and others are all offering ways to get out in front of this. There are plenty of vendors out there, and most people have a connected cell phone that you can do a video call on.”

Hospital leaders would have to decide whether to embrace telehealth, which would mean less use of services in their institutions, he said. “But it would be for the greater good of the public.”

Kvedar recalled that there was some use of telehealth in the New York area after 9/11. Telehealth was also used in the aftermath of Hurricane Katrina in 2005. But the ATA president, who is also vice president of connected health at Partners HealthCare in Boston, noted that the COVID-19 outbreak is the first public health emergency to occur in the era of Skype and smartphones.

If Congress does ultimately authorize CMS to cover telehealth across the board during this emergency, might that lead to a permanent change in Medicare coverage policy? Kvedar wouldn’t venture an opinion. “However, the current CMS leadership has been incredibly telehealth friendly,” he said. “So it’s possible they would [embrace a lifting of restrictions]. As patients get a sense of this modality of care and how convenient it is for them, they’ll start asking for more.”

Meanwhile, he said, the telehealth opportunity goes beyond video visits with doctors to mitigate the outbreak. Telehealth data could also be used to track disease spread, similar to how researchers have studied Google searches to predict the spread of the flu, he noted.

Teladoc, a major telehealth vendor, recently told stock analysts it’s already working with the CDC on disease surveillance, according to a report in FierceHealthcare.

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

Telehealth is increasingly being viewed as a key way to help fight the COVID-19 outbreak in the United States. Recognizing the potential of this technology to slow the spread of the disease, the House of Representatives included a provision in an $8.3 billion emergency response bill it approved today that would temporarily lift restrictions on Medicare telehealth coverage to assist in the efforts to contain the virus.

Nancy Messonnier, MD, director of the National Center for Immunization and Respiratory Diseases at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), said that hospitals should be prepared to use telehealth as one of their tools in fighting the outbreak, according to a recent news release from the American Hospital Association (AHA).

Congress is responding to that need by including the service in the new coronavirus legislation now headed to the Senate, after the funding bill was approved in a 415-2 vote by the House.

The bill empowers the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) to “waive or modify application of certain Medicare requirements with respect to telehealth services furnished during certain emergency periods.”

While the measure adds telehealth to the waiver authority that the HHS secretary currently has during national emergencies, it’s only for the coronavirus crisis in this case, Krista Drobac, executive director of the Alliance for Connected Care, told Medscape Medical News.

The waiver would apply to originating sites of telehealth visits, she noted. Thus Medicare coverage of telemedicine would be expanded beyond rural areas.

In addition, the waiver would allow coverage of virtual visits conducted on smartphones with audio and video capabilities. A “qualified provider,” as defined by the legislation, would be a practitioner who has an established relationship with the patient or who is in the same practice as the provider who has that relationship.

An advantage of telehealth, proponents say, is that it can enable people who believe they have COVID-19 to be seen at home rather than visit offices or emergency departments (EDs) where they might spread the disease or be in proximity to others who have it.

In an editorial published March 2 in Modern Healthcare, medical directors from Stanford Medicine, MedStar Health, and Intermountain Healthcare also noted that telehealth can give patients 24/7 access to care, allow surveillance of patients at risk while keeping them at home, ensure that treatment in hospitals is reserved for high-need patients, and enable providers to triage and screen more patients than can be handled in brick-and-mortar care settings.

However, telehealth screening would allow physicians only to judge whether a patient’s symptoms might be indicative of COVID-19, the Alliance for Connected Care, a telehealth advocacy group, noted in a letter to Congressional leaders. Patients would still have to be seen in person to be tested for the disease.

The group, which represents technology companies, health insurers, pharmacies, and other healthcare players, has been lobbying Congress to include telehealth in federal funds to combat the outbreak.

The American Telemedicine Association (ATA) also supports this goal, ATA President Joseph Kvedar, MD, told Medscape Medical News. And the authors of the Modern Healthcare editorial also advocated for this legislative solution. Because the fatality rate for COVID-19 is significantly higher for older people than for other age groups, they noted, telehealth should be an economically viable option for all seniors.

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) long covered telemedicine only in rural areas and only when initiated in healthcare settings. Recently, however, CMS loosened its approach to some extent. Virtual “check-in visits” can now be initiated from any location, including home, to determine whether a Medicare patient needs to be seen in the office. In addition, CMS allows Medicare Advantage plans to offer telemedicine as a core benefit.

Are healthcare systems prepared?

Some large healthcare systems such as Stanford, MedStar, and Intermountain are already using telehealth to diagnose and treat patients who have traditional influenza. Telehealth providers at Stanford estimate that almost 50% of these patients are being prescribed the antiviral drug Tamiflu.

It’s unclear whether other healthcare systems are this well prepared to offer telehealth on a large scale. But, according to an AHA survey, Kvedar noted, three quarters of AHA members are engaged in some form of telehealth.

Drobac said “it wouldn’t require too much effort” to ramp up a wide-scale telehealth program that could help reduce the impact of the outbreak. “The technology is there,” she noted. “You need a HIPAA-compliant telehealth platform, but there are so many out there.”

Kvedar agreed. To begin with, he said, hospitals might sequester patients who visit the ED with COVID-19 symptoms in a video-equipped “isolation room.” Staff members could then do the patient intake from a different location in the hospital.

He admitted that this approach would be infeasible if a lot of patients arrived in EDs with coronavirus symptoms. However, Kvedar noted, “All the tools are in place to go well beyond that. American Well, Teladoc, and others are all offering ways to get out in front of this. There are plenty of vendors out there, and most people have a connected cell phone that you can do a video call on.”

Hospital leaders would have to decide whether to embrace telehealth, which would mean less use of services in their institutions, he said. “But it would be for the greater good of the public.”

Kvedar recalled that there was some use of telehealth in the New York area after 9/11. Telehealth was also used in the aftermath of Hurricane Katrina in 2005. But the ATA president, who is also vice president of connected health at Partners HealthCare in Boston, noted that the COVID-19 outbreak is the first public health emergency to occur in the era of Skype and smartphones.

If Congress does ultimately authorize CMS to cover telehealth across the board during this emergency, might that lead to a permanent change in Medicare coverage policy? Kvedar wouldn’t venture an opinion. “However, the current CMS leadership has been incredibly telehealth friendly,” he said. “So it’s possible they would [embrace a lifting of restrictions]. As patients get a sense of this modality of care and how convenient it is for them, they’ll start asking for more.”

Meanwhile, he said, the telehealth opportunity goes beyond video visits with doctors to mitigate the outbreak. Telehealth data could also be used to track disease spread, similar to how researchers have studied Google searches to predict the spread of the flu, he noted.

Teladoc, a major telehealth vendor, recently told stock analysts it’s already working with the CDC on disease surveillance, according to a report in FierceHealthcare.

This article first appeared on Medscape.com.

Self-injurious behaviors are common and can be either volitional or unintentional. Often people who perform these behaviors receive “tongue lashings” from family, friends, and loved ones. We recently treated a patient whose lesion in the oral cavity was thought to be caused by some form of self-injury, though the prognosis clearly depended on the true culprit. It is important for clinicians to identify the cause of the injury when encountering patients with oral cavity lesions.

Case Presentation

A 40-year-old white male with a medical history of bipolar disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, polysubstance abuse, and recently diagnosed temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome was seen in outpatient primary care for a bleeding lesion in his mouth for the past 3 weeks. The lesion was under the surface of his right tongue. He first noted the lesion after he had burned himself tasting some homemade rice pudding while under the influence of marijuana. The next day, an impression was taken of his mouth by a dental assistant who was fitting him for an oral appliance for his TMJ syndrome; according to his history, she did not perform a visual inspection of his mouth nor could he recall his last dental examination. He had neither lost weight nor experienced dysphagia. He was not taking any prescribed medications, had an 8 pack-year history of smoking cigarettes, and had smoked crack cocaine intermittently for several years. The also patient had chewed one-half tin per day of chewing tobacco for 5 years, though he had quit 7 years before presentation. He was consuming 6 alcoholic drinks daily and had no history of chewing betel nuts.

On physical examination, the patient seemed extremely anxious, but his vital signs were unremarkable. The nasal dorsum was straight, and the nares were widely patent. There were no suspicious cutaneous lesions noted of the face, head, trunk, or extremities. The salivary glands were soft and showed no lesions or masses within the parotid or submandibular glands bilaterally. There was no obvious obstruction of Stenson or Wharton ducts bilaterally. He had normal lips and oral competence. The dentition was noted to be fair.

A nonfriable, 1.5 cm-wide lesion was found on the ventral surface of the right tongue (Figure 1). The tongue was mobile. The mouth floor was soft and without evidence of masses or lesions. The tonsils, tonsillar pillars, palate, and base of tongue did not show any concerning lesions or masses. The neck revealed a nonenlarged thyroid and no lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination was unremarkable.

Diagnosis

Given his risk factors of alcohol use disorder and a history of both inhaled and chewing tobacco, oral squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) was considered. The differential diagnosis also included pyogenic granuloma, mucocele, sublingual fibroma, and metastasis to the oral soft tissue. Due to its implications with respect to morbidity and mortality, we thought it necessary to rule out SCC of the oral cavity. SCC comprises more than 90% of oral malignancies, and tobacco-related products, alcohol, and human papilloma virus are well-established risk factors.¹

Pyogenic granuloma, also known as eruptive hemangioma and lobular capillary hemangioma, is a relatively common benign lesion of the skin and mucosal surfaces that often presents as a solitary, rapidly enlarging papule or nodule that is extremely friable.² Interestingly, pyogenic granuloma is a misnomer, since it is neither infectious in origin nor granulomatous when visualized under the microscope and is thought to arise from an exuberant tissue response to localized irritation or trauma. An individual lesion can range in size from a few millimeters to a few centimeters and generally reaches its maximum size within a matter of weeks; they often arise at sites of minor trauma.³ While the pathogenesis of pyogenic granuloma has not been clearly established, it seems to be related to an imbalance of angiogenesis secondary to overexpression of vascular endothelial growth factor and basic fibroblast growth factor.⁴ While they can occur at any age, pyogenic granulomas are frequently seen in pediatric patients and during pregnancy.

A fibroma, also known as an irritation fibroma, is one of the more common fibrous tumorlike growths and is often caused by trauma or irritation. It usually presents as a smooth-surfaced, painless solid lesion, though it can be nodular and histopathologically shows collagen and connective tissue.⁵ While fibromas can occur anywhere in the oral cavity, they commonly arise on the buccal mucosa along the plane of occlusion between the maxillary and mandibular teeth.

Mucoceles are the most common benign lesions in the mouth and are commonly found on the lower lip and are mucus-filled cavities, arising from the accumulation of mucus from trauma or lip-biting and alteration of minor salivary glands.⁶ Our patient’s rapid evolution and history of trauma were consistent with a mucocele. Although the lower lip is the most common site of involvement, mucoceles also occur on the tongue, cheek, palate, and mouth floor.Metastases to the oral cavity are rare and comprise only 1% of all oral cavity malignancies.⁷ Although most commonly seen in the jaw, nearly one-third of oral cavity metastases are in the soft tissue.⁸ They generally occur late in the course of disease, and the time between appearance and death is usually short.⁸ Our patient’s lack of known primary malignancy and lack of weight loss rendered this diagnosis unlikely.

Other possibilities include peripheral giant cell granuloma, a reactive hyperplastic lesion of the oral cavity originating from the periosteum or periodontal membrane following local irritation or chronic trauma,⁹ and peripheral ossifying fibroma, a reactive soft tissue growth usually seen on the interdental papilla.¹⁰

Surgical excision was performed and revealed reactive epidermal hyperplasia, ulceration, granulation tissue formation, and marked inflammation with reactive changes. There was no evidence of malignancy and was interpreted as consistent with pyogenic granuloma (Figures 2 and 3) likely due to the trauma from the thermal burn or poor dentition.

Management

The patient was relieved to be informed of the diagnosis of an unusual presentation of pyogenic granuloma with no evidence of cancer. Current treatment strategies for pyogenic granuloma include surgical excision, shave excision with cautery, cryotherapy, sclerotherapy, carbon dioxide or pulsed dye laser, as well as expectant management. However, recurrence after initial treatment can occur, with lower recurrence rates occurring with surgical excision.¹¹

Although we wouldn’t state that we gave the patient a “tongue-lashing,” we strongly advised him that he return to his dentist and abstain from tobacco products, alcohol, illicit drugs, and taste-testing scalding food directly from the pot.

Self-injurious behaviors are common and can be either volitional or unintentional. Often people who perform these behaviors receive “tongue lashings” from family, friends, and loved ones. We recently treated a patient whose lesion in the oral cavity was thought to be caused by some form of self-injury, though the prognosis clearly depended on the true culprit. It is important for clinicians to identify the cause of the injury when encountering patients with oral cavity lesions.

Case Presentation

A 40-year-old white male with a medical history of bipolar disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, polysubstance abuse, and recently diagnosed temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome was seen in outpatient primary care for a bleeding lesion in his mouth for the past 3 weeks. The lesion was under the surface of his right tongue. He first noted the lesion after he had burned himself tasting some homemade rice pudding while under the influence of marijuana. The next day, an impression was taken of his mouth by a dental assistant who was fitting him for an oral appliance for his TMJ syndrome; according to his history, she did not perform a visual inspection of his mouth nor could he recall his last dental examination. He had neither lost weight nor experienced dysphagia. He was not taking any prescribed medications, had an 8 pack-year history of smoking cigarettes, and had smoked crack cocaine intermittently for several years. The also patient had chewed one-half tin per day of chewing tobacco for 5 years, though he had quit 7 years before presentation. He was consuming 6 alcoholic drinks daily and had no history of chewing betel nuts.

On physical examination, the patient seemed extremely anxious, but his vital signs were unremarkable. The nasal dorsum was straight, and the nares were widely patent. There were no suspicious cutaneous lesions noted of the face, head, trunk, or extremities. The salivary glands were soft and showed no lesions or masses within the parotid or submandibular glands bilaterally. There was no obvious obstruction of Stenson or Wharton ducts bilaterally. He had normal lips and oral competence. The dentition was noted to be fair.

A nonfriable, 1.5 cm-wide lesion was found on the ventral surface of the right tongue (Figure 1). The tongue was mobile. The mouth floor was soft and without evidence of masses or lesions. The tonsils, tonsillar pillars, palate, and base of tongue did not show any concerning lesions or masses. The neck revealed a nonenlarged thyroid and no lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination was unremarkable.

Diagnosis

Given his risk factors of alcohol use disorder and a history of both inhaled and chewing tobacco, oral squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) was considered. The differential diagnosis also included pyogenic granuloma, mucocele, sublingual fibroma, and metastasis to the oral soft tissue. Due to its implications with respect to morbidity and mortality, we thought it necessary to rule out SCC of the oral cavity. SCC comprises more than 90% of oral malignancies, and tobacco-related products, alcohol, and human papilloma virus are well-established risk factors.¹

Pyogenic granuloma, also known as eruptive hemangioma and lobular capillary hemangioma, is a relatively common benign lesion of the skin and mucosal surfaces that often presents as a solitary, rapidly enlarging papule or nodule that is extremely friable.² Interestingly, pyogenic granuloma is a misnomer, since it is neither infectious in origin nor granulomatous when visualized under the microscope and is thought to arise from an exuberant tissue response to localized irritation or trauma. An individual lesion can range in size from a few millimeters to a few centimeters and generally reaches its maximum size within a matter of weeks; they often arise at sites of minor trauma.³ While the pathogenesis of pyogenic granuloma has not been clearly established, it seems to be related to an imbalance of angiogenesis secondary to overexpression of vascular endothelial growth factor and basic fibroblast growth factor.⁴ While they can occur at any age, pyogenic granulomas are frequently seen in pediatric patients and during pregnancy.

A fibroma, also known as an irritation fibroma, is one of the more common fibrous tumorlike growths and is often caused by trauma or irritation. It usually presents as a smooth-surfaced, painless solid lesion, though it can be nodular and histopathologically shows collagen and connective tissue.⁵ While fibromas can occur anywhere in the oral cavity, they commonly arise on the buccal mucosa along the plane of occlusion between the maxillary and mandibular teeth.

Mucoceles are the most common benign lesions in the mouth and are commonly found on the lower lip and are mucus-filled cavities, arising from the accumulation of mucus from trauma or lip-biting and alteration of minor salivary glands.⁶ Our patient’s rapid evolution and history of trauma were consistent with a mucocele. Although the lower lip is the most common site of involvement, mucoceles also occur on the tongue, cheek, palate, and mouth floor.Metastases to the oral cavity are rare and comprise only 1% of all oral cavity malignancies.⁷ Although most commonly seen in the jaw, nearly one-third of oral cavity metastases are in the soft tissue.⁸ They generally occur late in the course of disease, and the time between appearance and death is usually short.⁸ Our patient’s lack of known primary malignancy and lack of weight loss rendered this diagnosis unlikely.

Other possibilities include peripheral giant cell granuloma, a reactive hyperplastic lesion of the oral cavity originating from the periosteum or periodontal membrane following local irritation or chronic trauma,⁹ and peripheral ossifying fibroma, a reactive soft tissue growth usually seen on the interdental papilla.¹⁰

Surgical excision was performed and revealed reactive epidermal hyperplasia, ulceration, granulation tissue formation, and marked inflammation with reactive changes. There was no evidence of malignancy and was interpreted as consistent with pyogenic granuloma (Figures 2 and 3) likely due to the trauma from the thermal burn or poor dentition.

Management

The patient was relieved to be informed of the diagnosis of an unusual presentation of pyogenic granuloma with no evidence of cancer. Current treatment strategies for pyogenic granuloma include surgical excision, shave excision with cautery, cryotherapy, sclerotherapy, carbon dioxide or pulsed dye laser, as well as expectant management. However, recurrence after initial treatment can occur, with lower recurrence rates occurring with surgical excision.¹¹

Although we wouldn’t state that we gave the patient a “tongue-lashing,” we strongly advised him that he return to his dentist and abstain from tobacco products, alcohol, illicit drugs, and taste-testing scalding food directly from the pot.

Self-injurious behaviors are common and can be either volitional or unintentional. Often people who perform these behaviors receive “tongue lashings” from family, friends, and loved ones. We recently treated a patient whose lesion in the oral cavity was thought to be caused by some form of self-injury, though the prognosis clearly depended on the true culprit. It is important for clinicians to identify the cause of the injury when encountering patients with oral cavity lesions.

Case Presentation

A 40-year-old white male with a medical history of bipolar disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, polysubstance abuse, and recently diagnosed temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome was seen in outpatient primary care for a bleeding lesion in his mouth for the past 3 weeks. The lesion was under the surface of his right tongue. He first noted the lesion after he had burned himself tasting some homemade rice pudding while under the influence of marijuana. The next day, an impression was taken of his mouth by a dental assistant who was fitting him for an oral appliance for his TMJ syndrome; according to his history, she did not perform a visual inspection of his mouth nor could he recall his last dental examination. He had neither lost weight nor experienced dysphagia. He was not taking any prescribed medications, had an 8 pack-year history of smoking cigarettes, and had smoked crack cocaine intermittently for several years. The also patient had chewed one-half tin per day of chewing tobacco for 5 years, though he had quit 7 years before presentation. He was consuming 6 alcoholic drinks daily and had no history of chewing betel nuts.

On physical examination, the patient seemed extremely anxious, but his vital signs were unremarkable. The nasal dorsum was straight, and the nares were widely patent. There were no suspicious cutaneous lesions noted of the face, head, trunk, or extremities. The salivary glands were soft and showed no lesions or masses within the parotid or submandibular glands bilaterally. There was no obvious obstruction of Stenson or Wharton ducts bilaterally. He had normal lips and oral competence. The dentition was noted to be fair.

A nonfriable, 1.5 cm-wide lesion was found on the ventral surface of the right tongue (Figure 1). The tongue was mobile. The mouth floor was soft and without evidence of masses or lesions. The tonsils, tonsillar pillars, palate, and base of tongue did not show any concerning lesions or masses. The neck revealed a nonenlarged thyroid and no lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination was unremarkable.

Diagnosis

Given his risk factors of alcohol use disorder and a history of both inhaled and chewing tobacco, oral squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) was considered. The differential diagnosis also included pyogenic granuloma, mucocele, sublingual fibroma, and metastasis to the oral soft tissue. Due to its implications with respect to morbidity and mortality, we thought it necessary to rule out SCC of the oral cavity. SCC comprises more than 90% of oral malignancies, and tobacco-related products, alcohol, and human papilloma virus are well-established risk factors.¹

Pyogenic granuloma, also known as eruptive hemangioma and lobular capillary hemangioma, is a relatively common benign lesion of the skin and mucosal surfaces that often presents as a solitary, rapidly enlarging papule or nodule that is extremely friable.² Interestingly, pyogenic granuloma is a misnomer, since it is neither infectious in origin nor granulomatous when visualized under the microscope and is thought to arise from an exuberant tissue response to localized irritation or trauma. An individual lesion can range in size from a few millimeters to a few centimeters and generally reaches its maximum size within a matter of weeks; they often arise at sites of minor trauma.³ While the pathogenesis of pyogenic granuloma has not been clearly established, it seems to be related to an imbalance of angiogenesis secondary to overexpression of vascular endothelial growth factor and basic fibroblast growth factor.⁴ While they can occur at any age, pyogenic granulomas are frequently seen in pediatric patients and during pregnancy.

A fibroma, also known as an irritation fibroma, is one of the more common fibrous tumorlike growths and is often caused by trauma or irritation. It usually presents as a smooth-surfaced, painless solid lesion, though it can be nodular and histopathologically shows collagen and connective tissue.⁵ While fibromas can occur anywhere in the oral cavity, they commonly arise on the buccal mucosa along the plane of occlusion between the maxillary and mandibular teeth.

Mucoceles are the most common benign lesions in the mouth and are commonly found on the lower lip and are mucus-filled cavities, arising from the accumulation of mucus from trauma or lip-biting and alteration of minor salivary glands.⁶ Our patient’s rapid evolution and history of trauma were consistent with a mucocele. Although the lower lip is the most common site of involvement, mucoceles also occur on the tongue, cheek, palate, and mouth floor.Metastases to the oral cavity are rare and comprise only 1% of all oral cavity malignancies.⁷ Although most commonly seen in the jaw, nearly one-third of oral cavity metastases are in the soft tissue.⁸ They generally occur late in the course of disease, and the time between appearance and death is usually short.⁸ Our patient’s lack of known primary malignancy and lack of weight loss rendered this diagnosis unlikely.

Other possibilities include peripheral giant cell granuloma, a reactive hyperplastic lesion of the oral cavity originating from the periosteum or periodontal membrane following local irritation or chronic trauma,⁹ and peripheral ossifying fibroma, a reactive soft tissue growth usually seen on the interdental papilla.¹⁰

Surgical excision was performed and revealed reactive epidermal hyperplasia, ulceration, granulation tissue formation, and marked inflammation with reactive changes. There was no evidence of malignancy and was interpreted as consistent with pyogenic granuloma (Figures 2 and 3) likely due to the trauma from the thermal burn or poor dentition.

Management

The patient was relieved to be informed of the diagnosis of an unusual presentation of pyogenic granuloma with no evidence of cancer. Current treatment strategies for pyogenic granuloma include surgical excision, shave excision with cautery, cryotherapy, sclerotherapy, carbon dioxide or pulsed dye laser, as well as expectant management. However, recurrence after initial treatment can occur, with lower recurrence rates occurring with surgical excision.¹¹

Although we wouldn’t state that we gave the patient a “tongue-lashing,” we strongly advised him that he return to his dentist and abstain from tobacco products, alcohol, illicit drugs, and taste-testing scalding food directly from the pot.

Cataract surgery is one of the most common ambulatory procedures performed in the US.^1-3 With the aging of the US population, the number of Americans with cataracts is projected to increase from 24.4 million in 2010 to 38.7 million in 2030.⁴

Approximately 20% of all cataract patients have preoperative astigmatism of > 1.5 diopters (D), underscoring the importance of training residents in the placement of toric intraocular lenses (IOLs).⁵ However, the implantation of toric IOLs is more challenging than monofocal IOLs, requiring precise surgical alignment of the IOL.⁶ Successful toric IOL implantation also requires accurate calculation of the IOL cylinder power and target axis of alignment. It is unclear which toric IOL calculation formula offers the most accurate refractive predictions, and practitioners have designed strategies to apply different formulae depending on the biometric dimensions of the target eye.^7-9

Previous studies of resident-performed cataract surgery using toric IOLs^6,10-13 and studies that compare the performance of the Barrett and Holladay toric formulae have been limited by their small sample sizes (< 107 eyes).^7,14-16 Moreover, none of the studies that evaluate the comparative effectiveness of these biometric formulae were conducted at a teaching hospital.^7,14-16

Given the added complexity of toric IOL placement and variable surgical experience of residents as ophthalmologists-in-training, it is important to assess outcomes in teaching hospitals.¹³ The primary aims of this study were to assess the visual and refractive outcomes of cataract surgery using toric IOLs in a US Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) teaching hospital and to compare the relative accuracy of the Holladay 2 or Barrett toric biometric formulae in predicting postoperative refraction outcomes.

Methods

The Providence VA Medical Center (PVAMC) Institutional Review Board approved this study. This retrospective chart review included patients with cataract and corneal astigmatism who underwent cataract surgery using Acrysof toric IOLs, model SN6AT (Alcon) at the PVAMC teaching hospital between November 2013 and May 2018.

Only 1 eye was included from each study subject to avoid compounding of data with the use of bilateral eyes.¹⁷ In addition, bilateral cataract surgery was only performed on some patients at the PVAMC, so including both eyes from eligible patients would disproportionately weigh those patients’ outcomes. If both eyes had cataract surgery and their postoperative visual acuities were unequal, we chose the eye with the better postoperative visual acuity since refraction accuracy decreases with worsening best-corrected visual acuity (BCVA). If both eyes had cataract surgery and the postoperative visual acuity was the same, the first operated eye was chosen.^17,18

Exclusion criteria included worse than 20/40 BCVA, posterior capsular rupture, sulcus IOL, history of corneal disease, history of refractive surgery (laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis [LASIK]/photorefractive keratectomy [PRK]), axial length not measurable by the Lenstar optical biometer (Haag-Streit USA), or no postoperative refraction within 3 weeks to 4 months.^19,20

Patient age, race/ethnicity, gender, preoperative refraction, preoperative BCVA, postoperative refraction, postoperative BCVA, and IOL power were recorded from patient charts (Table 1). Preoperative and postoperative refractive values were converted to spherical equivalents. The preoperative biometry and most of the postoperative refractions were performed by experienced technicians certified by the Joint Commission on Allied Health Personnel in Ophthalmology. The main outcomes for the assessment of surgeries included the postoperative BCVA, postoperative spherical equivalent refraction, and postoperative residual refractive astigmatism.

Axial length (AL), preoperative anterior chamber depth (ACD), preoperative flat corneal front power (K1), preoperative steep corneal front power (K2), lens thickness, horizontal white-to-white (WTW) corneal diameter, and central corneal thickness (CCT) were recorded from the Lenstar biometric device. Predicted postoperative refractions for the Holladay 2 formula were calculated using Holladay IOL Consultant software (Holladay Consulting). Predicted postoperative refractions for the Barrett toric IOL formula were calculated using the online Barrett toric formula calculator.²¹ Since previous studies have shown that both the Holladay and Barrett formulae account for posterior corneal astigmatism, a comparison of refractive outcomes in eyes with against-the-rule astigmatism vs with-the-rule astigmatism was not performed.¹⁴ An estimated standardized value for surgically-induced astigmatism was entered into both formulae; 0.3 diopter (D) was chosen based on previously published averages.^22-24

A formula’s prediction error is defined as the predicted postoperative refraction minus the actual postoperative refraction. The mean absolute prediction error (MAE), defined as the mean of the absolute values of the prediction errors, and the median absolute prediction error (MedAE), defined as the median of the absolute values of the prediction errors, were used to assess the overall accuracy of each formula. Also, the percentages of eyes with postoperative refraction within ≥ 0.25 D, ≥ 0.50 D, and ≥ 1.0 D were calculated for both formulae. Two-tailed t tests were performed to compare the MAE between the formulae. Subgroup analyses were performed for short eyes (AL < 22 mm), medium length eyes (AL = 22-25 mm), and long eyes (AL > 25 mm). Statistical analysis was performed using STATA 11 (STATA Corp). The preoperative corneal astigmatism and postoperative refractive astigmatism of all the cases were compared in double-angle plots to assess how well the toric IOL neutralized the corneal astigmatism.

Results

Of 325 charts reviewed during the study period, 34 patients were excluded due to lack of postoperative refraction within the designated follow-up period, 5 for worse than 20/40 postoperative BCVA (4 had preexisting ocular disease), 2 for complications, and 1 for missing data. We included 283 eyes from 283 patients in the final study. Resident ophthalmologists were the primary surgeons in 87.6% (248/283) of the cases.

The median postoperative BCVA was 20/20, and 92% of patients had a postoperative BCVA of 20/25 or better. The prediction outcomes of the toric SN6AT IOLs are shown in Table 2. The Barrett toric formula had a lower MAE than the Holladay 2 formula, but this difference was not statistically significant. The Barrett toric formula also predicted a higher percentage of eyes with postoperative refraction within ≥ 0.25 D (53.2%), ≥ 0.5 D (77.3%), and ≥ 1.0 D (96.1%). For both formulae, > 95% of eyes had prediction errors that fell within 1.0 D.

While the Barrett formula demonstrated a lower MAE in all 3 AL groups, no statistically significant differences were found between the Barrett and Holladay formulae (P = .94, P = .49, and P = .08 for short, medium, and long eyes, respectively). Both formulae produced the lowest MAE in the long AL group: Barrett had a MAE of 0.221 D and Holladay 2 had one of 0.329 D. The Barrett formula produced its highest percentage of eyes with prediction errors falling within 0.25 D and 0.5 D in the long AL group. In comparison, both formulae had the highest MAEs in the short AL group (Barrett toric, 0.598 D; Holladay 2, 0.613 D) and produced the lowest percentage of eyes with prediction errors falling within ≥ 0.25 D and ≥ 0.5 D in the short AL group.

A cumulative histogram of the preoperative corneal and postoperative refractive astigmatism magnitude is shown in Figure 1. The same data are presented as double-angle plots in the Appendix, which shows that the centroid values for preoperative corneal astigmatism were greatlyreduced when compared with the postoperative refractive astigmatism (mean absolute value of 1.77 D ≥ 0.73 D to 0.5 D ≥ 0.50 D).

Preoperative corneal astigmatism and postoperative refractive astigmatism were compared since preoperative refractive astigmatism has noncorneal contributions, including lenticular astigmatism, and there is minimal expected change between preoperative and postoperative corneal astigmatism.¹⁴ For comparison, double-angle plots of postoperative refractive astigmatism prediction errors for the Holladay and Barrett formulae are shown in Figure 2.

Discussion

To our knowledge, this is the largest study of resident-performed cataract surgery using toric IOLs, the largest study that compared the performance of the Barrett toric and Holladay 2 formulae, and the first that compared these formulae in a teaching hospital setting. This study found no significant difference in the predictive accuracy of the Barrett and Holladay 2 biometric formulae for cataract surgery using toric IOLs. In addition, our refractive outcomes were consistent with the results of previous toric IOL outcome studies conducted in teaching and nonteaching hospital settings.^6,10-13

In 4 previous studies that compared the MAE of the Barrett and Holladay formulae for toric IOLs, the Barrett formula produced a lower MAE than the Holladay 2 formula.^7,14-16 However, this difference was significant in only 2 of the studies, which had sample sizes of only 68 and 107 eyes.^14,16 Furthermore, the Barrett toric formula produced the lower MAE for the entire AL range, though this was not statistically significant at our sample size. In addition, both formulae produced the lowest MAE in the long AL group and the highest MAE in the short AL group. The unique anatomy and high IOL power needed in short eyes may explain the challenges in attaining accurate IOL power predictions in this AL group.^19,25

Limitations

The sample size of this study may have prevented us from detecting statistically significant differences in the performance of the Barrett and Holladay formulae. However, our findings are consistent with studies that compare the accuracy of these formulae in teaching and nonteaching hospital settings. Second, the study was conducted at a VA hospital, and a high proportion of patients were male; thus, our findings may not be generalizable to patients who receive cataract surgery with toric IOLs in other settings.

Conclusions

In a single VA teaching hospital, the Barrett and Holladay 2 biometric formulae provide similar refractive predictions for cataract surgery using toric IOLs. Larger studies would be necessary to detect smaller differences in the relative performance of the biometric formulae.