Case Reports

THE CASE

A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis presented to our clinic with worsening weakness over the previous month. His signs and symptoms included profound fatigue, subjective fevers, a 10-pound weight loss, ankle swelling, myalgias in his legs and back, shortness of breath, and a persistent cough. The patient was otherwise previously healthy.

The patient’s heart and lung exams were normal. Initial outpatient labs showed significantly elevated inflammatory markers, with an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 102 mm/h (normal range for men ≥ 50 years, 0-20 mm/h) and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 11.1 mg/L (normal range, < 3 mg/L). The patient also had an elevated white blood cell count of 12,000/mcL (normal range, 4500-11,000/mcL). His hemoglobin was low (11 g/dL; normal range, 13.5-17.5 g/dL) and so was his albumin level (2.9 g/dL; normal range, 3.4-5.4 g/dL). The results of his prostate-specific antigen and brain natriuretic peptide tests were both normal. The results of a computed tomography scan of his thorax, abdomen, and pelvis were negative for malignancy.

The patient returned to our clinic 3 days later with severe weakness, which inhibited him from walking. He complained of a severe spasmodic pain between his shoulder blades. He denied joint stiffness, headaches, vision changes, or jaw claudication. The patient’s son had noted an overall increase in his father’s baseline heart rate, with readings increasing from the 50 beats/min range to the 70 beats/min range; this raised concern for a ­catecholamine-secreting tumor. There was also concern for occult infection and malignancy, or an autoimmune process, such as polymyalgia rheumatica. Due to his extreme weakness, the patient was directly admitted to the hospital for further work-up.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Concern for a smoldering infection prompted an order for a ­transthoracic echocardiogram. Images revealed a large mass on the mitral valve (FIGURE 1). Blood cultures quickly grew Streptococcus sanguinis. Additional work-up with a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) showed a “windsock” deformity (thinning and ballooning of the mitral valve), a known sequela of infective endocarditis (FIGURE 2).¹ Further history obtained after the TEE revealed the patient had had a routine dental cleaning the month before his symptoms began. A murmur was then also detected.

DISCUSSION

Infective endocarditis (IE) is uncommon and difficult to diagnose; it has a high early-­mortality rate of 30%.² TEE is the recommended imaging study for IE, because it is more sensitive than a transthoracic echocardiogram for identifying vegetations on the valves and it is more cost effective.³

The modified Duke Criteria provide guidance for diagnosis of endocarditis. Major criteria focus on positive blood cultures and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include predisposing heart conditions, intravenous drug use (IVDU), fever, and vascular and immunologic phenomena. As many as 90% of patients have a fever and often experience weight loss.⁴ Murmurs are auscultated in up to 85% of patients, and embolic features are present in up to 25% of patients at the time of diagnosis.⁴ In the developed world, Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, and splinter hemorrhages are increasingly rare, as patients usually present earlier in the disease course.⁴ While ESR and CRP are generally elevated in cases of IE, they are not part of the Duke Criteria.⁴

A closer look at risk factors

In 2007, guidelines for the prevention, treatment, and management of endocarditis were given significant categorical revision by the American Heart Association for the first time in 50 years.⁵ Recommendations for antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental procedures became more restrictive, to include only 4 groups of high-risk patients: those with prosthetic cardiac valves, those with a history of IE, those with congenital heart disease, and cardiac transplant recipients.⁴ The rationale for these restrictions included the small risk for anaphylaxis and potential increase in risk for bacterial resistance associated with antibiotic prophylaxis.⁴ A review published in 2021 noted no increase in the frequency of, nor the morbidity and mortality from, viridans group streptococcal IE since the guideline updates.⁵

Continue to: There is an emerging consensus...

There is an emerging consensus that poor oral hygiene and gingival bleeding after tooth brushing promote a chronic low-grade bacteremia that may be more strongly associated with IE than an isolated dental extraction.⁶ Poor dental hygiene, defined as dental plaque and calculus, is especially common in the elderly, who are known to let their dental hygiene lapse.⁶ In our patient’s case, his generally poor oral hygiene was more likely the cause of his IE than his routine dental cleaning.

Other risk factors include IV drug use. At our tertiary care hospital in western North Carolina, 48% of patients with endocarditis had an additional diagnosis of opiate or narcotic dependence (Ryan Tilton, PharmD, email communication, June 7, 2018). Interestingly, though, only 16% of patients in North America with endocarditis were found to be currently using IV drugs.⁷

Our patient was treated with IV antibiotics for 4 weeks and underwent rehabilitation at a skilled nursing facility. Four weeks after diagnosis, he underwent an endoscopic porcine mitral valve replacement. Two months after that, he returned to his previously active lifestyle and began riding his stationary bike. The patient also began taking a daily aspirin. Consistent with current guidelines, he now gets antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental procedures.

THE TAKEAWAY

This patient, without any history of IVDU or cardiac valvular abnormalities, presented with symptoms classic for a developing malignancy or possible rheumatologic condition. Subacute IE may manifest similarly, with vague symptoms such as myalgias, fatigue, chills, and/or anemia. In non-drug users, suspicion for endocarditis should be highest in men older than age 60. Also, it’s important to auscultate for a new heart murmur. In our patient’s case, no murmur was auscultated until after his TEE. JFP

CORRESPONDENCE
Ginger Poulton, MD, 123 Hendersonville Road, Asheville, NC 28803; [email protected]

THE CASE

A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis presented to our clinic with worsening weakness over the previous month. His signs and symptoms included profound fatigue, subjective fevers, a 10-pound weight loss, ankle swelling, myalgias in his legs and back, shortness of breath, and a persistent cough. The patient was otherwise previously healthy.

The patient’s heart and lung exams were normal. Initial outpatient labs showed significantly elevated inflammatory markers, with an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 102 mm/h (normal range for men ≥ 50 years, 0-20 mm/h) and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 11.1 mg/L (normal range, < 3 mg/L). The patient also had an elevated white blood cell count of 12,000/mcL (normal range, 4500-11,000/mcL). His hemoglobin was low (11 g/dL; normal range, 13.5-17.5 g/dL) and so was his albumin level (2.9 g/dL; normal range, 3.4-5.4 g/dL). The results of his prostate-specific antigen and brain natriuretic peptide tests were both normal. The results of a computed tomography scan of his thorax, abdomen, and pelvis were negative for malignancy.

The patient returned to our clinic 3 days later with severe weakness, which inhibited him from walking. He complained of a severe spasmodic pain between his shoulder blades. He denied joint stiffness, headaches, vision changes, or jaw claudication. The patient’s son had noted an overall increase in his father’s baseline heart rate, with readings increasing from the 50 beats/min range to the 70 beats/min range; this raised concern for a ­catecholamine-secreting tumor. There was also concern for occult infection and malignancy, or an autoimmune process, such as polymyalgia rheumatica. Due to his extreme weakness, the patient was directly admitted to the hospital for further work-up.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Concern for a smoldering infection prompted an order for a ­transthoracic echocardiogram. Images revealed a large mass on the mitral valve (FIGURE 1). Blood cultures quickly grew Streptococcus sanguinis. Additional work-up with a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) showed a “windsock” deformity (thinning and ballooning of the mitral valve), a known sequela of infective endocarditis (FIGURE 2).¹ Further history obtained after the TEE revealed the patient had had a routine dental cleaning the month before his symptoms began. A murmur was then also detected.

DISCUSSION

Infective endocarditis (IE) is uncommon and difficult to diagnose; it has a high early-­mortality rate of 30%.² TEE is the recommended imaging study for IE, because it is more sensitive than a transthoracic echocardiogram for identifying vegetations on the valves and it is more cost effective.³

The modified Duke Criteria provide guidance for diagnosis of endocarditis. Major criteria focus on positive blood cultures and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include predisposing heart conditions, intravenous drug use (IVDU), fever, and vascular and immunologic phenomena. As many as 90% of patients have a fever and often experience weight loss.⁴ Murmurs are auscultated in up to 85% of patients, and embolic features are present in up to 25% of patients at the time of diagnosis.⁴ In the developed world, Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, and splinter hemorrhages are increasingly rare, as patients usually present earlier in the disease course.⁴ While ESR and CRP are generally elevated in cases of IE, they are not part of the Duke Criteria.⁴

A closer look at risk factors

In 2007, guidelines for the prevention, treatment, and management of endocarditis were given significant categorical revision by the American Heart Association for the first time in 50 years.⁵ Recommendations for antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental procedures became more restrictive, to include only 4 groups of high-risk patients: those with prosthetic cardiac valves, those with a history of IE, those with congenital heart disease, and cardiac transplant recipients.⁴ The rationale for these restrictions included the small risk for anaphylaxis and potential increase in risk for bacterial resistance associated with antibiotic prophylaxis.⁴ A review published in 2021 noted no increase in the frequency of, nor the morbidity and mortality from, viridans group streptococcal IE since the guideline updates.⁵

Continue to: There is an emerging consensus...

There is an emerging consensus that poor oral hygiene and gingival bleeding after tooth brushing promote a chronic low-grade bacteremia that may be more strongly associated with IE than an isolated dental extraction.⁶ Poor dental hygiene, defined as dental plaque and calculus, is especially common in the elderly, who are known to let their dental hygiene lapse.⁶ In our patient’s case, his generally poor oral hygiene was more likely the cause of his IE than his routine dental cleaning.

Other risk factors include IV drug use. At our tertiary care hospital in western North Carolina, 48% of patients with endocarditis had an additional diagnosis of opiate or narcotic dependence (Ryan Tilton, PharmD, email communication, June 7, 2018). Interestingly, though, only 16% of patients in North America with endocarditis were found to be currently using IV drugs.⁷

Our patient was treated with IV antibiotics for 4 weeks and underwent rehabilitation at a skilled nursing facility. Four weeks after diagnosis, he underwent an endoscopic porcine mitral valve replacement. Two months after that, he returned to his previously active lifestyle and began riding his stationary bike. The patient also began taking a daily aspirin. Consistent with current guidelines, he now gets antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental procedures.

THE TAKEAWAY

This patient, without any history of IVDU or cardiac valvular abnormalities, presented with symptoms classic for a developing malignancy or possible rheumatologic condition. Subacute IE may manifest similarly, with vague symptoms such as myalgias, fatigue, chills, and/or anemia. In non-drug users, suspicion for endocarditis should be highest in men older than age 60. Also, it’s important to auscultate for a new heart murmur. In our patient’s case, no murmur was auscultated until after his TEE. JFP

CORRESPONDENCE
Ginger Poulton, MD, 123 Hendersonville Road, Asheville, NC 28803; [email protected]

THE CASE

A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis presented to our clinic with worsening weakness over the previous month. His signs and symptoms included profound fatigue, subjective fevers, a 10-pound weight loss, ankle swelling, myalgias in his legs and back, shortness of breath, and a persistent cough. The patient was otherwise previously healthy.

The patient’s heart and lung exams were normal. Initial outpatient labs showed significantly elevated inflammatory markers, with an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 102 mm/h (normal range for men ≥ 50 years, 0-20 mm/h) and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 11.1 mg/L (normal range, < 3 mg/L). The patient also had an elevated white blood cell count of 12,000/mcL (normal range, 4500-11,000/mcL). His hemoglobin was low (11 g/dL; normal range, 13.5-17.5 g/dL) and so was his albumin level (2.9 g/dL; normal range, 3.4-5.4 g/dL). The results of his prostate-specific antigen and brain natriuretic peptide tests were both normal. The results of a computed tomography scan of his thorax, abdomen, and pelvis were negative for malignancy.

The patient returned to our clinic 3 days later with severe weakness, which inhibited him from walking. He complained of a severe spasmodic pain between his shoulder blades. He denied joint stiffness, headaches, vision changes, or jaw claudication. The patient’s son had noted an overall increase in his father’s baseline heart rate, with readings increasing from the 50 beats/min range to the 70 beats/min range; this raised concern for a ­catecholamine-secreting tumor. There was also concern for occult infection and malignancy, or an autoimmune process, such as polymyalgia rheumatica. Due to his extreme weakness, the patient was directly admitted to the hospital for further work-up.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Concern for a smoldering infection prompted an order for a ­transthoracic echocardiogram. Images revealed a large mass on the mitral valve (FIGURE 1). Blood cultures quickly grew Streptococcus sanguinis. Additional work-up with a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) showed a “windsock” deformity (thinning and ballooning of the mitral valve), a known sequela of infective endocarditis (FIGURE 2).¹ Further history obtained after the TEE revealed the patient had had a routine dental cleaning the month before his symptoms began. A murmur was then also detected.

DISCUSSION

Infective endocarditis (IE) is uncommon and difficult to diagnose; it has a high early-­mortality rate of 30%.² TEE is the recommended imaging study for IE, because it is more sensitive than a transthoracic echocardiogram for identifying vegetations on the valves and it is more cost effective.³

The modified Duke Criteria provide guidance for diagnosis of endocarditis. Major criteria focus on positive blood cultures and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include predisposing heart conditions, intravenous drug use (IVDU), fever, and vascular and immunologic phenomena. As many as 90% of patients have a fever and often experience weight loss.⁴ Murmurs are auscultated in up to 85% of patients, and embolic features are present in up to 25% of patients at the time of diagnosis.⁴ In the developed world, Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, and splinter hemorrhages are increasingly rare, as patients usually present earlier in the disease course.⁴ While ESR and CRP are generally elevated in cases of IE, they are not part of the Duke Criteria.⁴

A closer look at risk factors

In 2007, guidelines for the prevention, treatment, and management of endocarditis were given significant categorical revision by the American Heart Association for the first time in 50 years.⁵ Recommendations for antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental procedures became more restrictive, to include only 4 groups of high-risk patients: those with prosthetic cardiac valves, those with a history of IE, those with congenital heart disease, and cardiac transplant recipients.⁴ The rationale for these restrictions included the small risk for anaphylaxis and potential increase in risk for bacterial resistance associated with antibiotic prophylaxis.⁴ A review published in 2021 noted no increase in the frequency of, nor the morbidity and mortality from, viridans group streptococcal IE since the guideline updates.⁵

Continue to: There is an emerging consensus...

There is an emerging consensus that poor oral hygiene and gingival bleeding after tooth brushing promote a chronic low-grade bacteremia that may be more strongly associated with IE than an isolated dental extraction.⁶ Poor dental hygiene, defined as dental plaque and calculus, is especially common in the elderly, who are known to let their dental hygiene lapse.⁶ In our patient’s case, his generally poor oral hygiene was more likely the cause of his IE than his routine dental cleaning.

Other risk factors include IV drug use. At our tertiary care hospital in western North Carolina, 48% of patients with endocarditis had an additional diagnosis of opiate or narcotic dependence (Ryan Tilton, PharmD, email communication, June 7, 2018). Interestingly, though, only 16% of patients in North America with endocarditis were found to be currently using IV drugs.⁷

Our patient was treated with IV antibiotics for 4 weeks and underwent rehabilitation at a skilled nursing facility. Four weeks after diagnosis, he underwent an endoscopic porcine mitral valve replacement. Two months after that, he returned to his previously active lifestyle and began riding his stationary bike. The patient also began taking a daily aspirin. Consistent with current guidelines, he now gets antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental procedures.

THE TAKEAWAY

This patient, without any history of IVDU or cardiac valvular abnormalities, presented with symptoms classic for a developing malignancy or possible rheumatologic condition. Subacute IE may manifest similarly, with vague symptoms such as myalgias, fatigue, chills, and/or anemia. In non-drug users, suspicion for endocarditis should be highest in men older than age 60. Also, it’s important to auscultate for a new heart murmur. In our patient’s case, no murmur was auscultated until after his TEE. JFP

CORRESPONDENCE
Ginger Poulton, MD, 123 Hendersonville Road, Asheville, NC 28803; [email protected]

THE CASE

A 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension was referred to the outpatient surgical office with a chief complaint of “tail bone pain” that had started after a fall a year earlier. The patient complained that the pain was worse when sitting and at nighttime. He also admitted to a 7-lb weight loss over the past 2 months without change in diet or appetite. He denied symptoms of incontinence, urinary retention, sharp stabbing pains in the lower extremities, night sweats, or anorexia.

The patient first visited an urgent care facility on the day after the fall because he was experiencing pain in his “tail bone” region while riding his lawn mower. A pelvic x-ray was performed at that time and showed no coccyx fracture. He received a steroid injection in the right sacroiliac joint, which provided some relief for a month. Throughout the course of the year, he was given 6 steroid injections into his sacroiliac joint by his primary care provider (PCP) and clinicians at his local urgent care facility. One year after the fall, the patient’s PCP ordered a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis, which revealed a 4.6 x 7.5–cm soft-tissue mass with bony destruction of the lower sacrum and coccyx that extended into the sacral and coccygeal canal (FIGURE 1).

On exam in our surgical office, the patient was found to be alert and oriented. His neurologic exam was unremarkable, with an intact motor and sensory exam and no symptoms of cauda equina syndrome. During palpation over the lower sacrum and coccyx, both tenderness and a boggy, soft mass were observed. Nerve impingement was most likely caused by the size of the mass.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Biopsy revealed a large tan-gray, gelatinous, soft-tissue mass that was necrotizing through the lower sacrum. The diagnosis of a sacral chordoma was confirmed with magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis, which demonstrated a 4.6 × 8.1–cm destructive expansile sacrococcygeal tumor with an exophytic soft-tissue component (FIGURE 2). The tumor also involved the piriformis and gluteus maximus muscles bilaterally.

DISCUSSION

Chordomas are rare, malignant bone tumors that grow slowly and originate from embryonic remnants of the notochord.¹ They are most commonly seen in the sacrococcygeal segment (50%) but are also seen in the ­spheno-occipital synchondrosis (30%-35%) and other spinal segments such as C2 and lumbar spine.² Chordomas are typically seen in middle-aged patients, with sacral chordomas occurring predominantly in men compared to women (3:1).²

Slow to grow, slow to diagnose

The difficulty with diagnosing sacral chordomas lies in the tendency for these tumors to grow extremely slowly, making detection challenging due to a lack of symptoms in the early clinical course. Once the tumors cause noticeable symptoms, they are usually large and extensively locally invasive. As a result, most patients experience delayed diagnosis, with an average symptom duration of 2.3 years prior to diagnosis.³

Reexamining a common problem as a symptom of a rare condition

The most commonly manifesting symptom of sacral chordomas is lower back pain that is typically dull and worse with sitting.^3,4 Since lower back pain is the leading cause of disability, it is difficult to determine when back pain is simply a benign consequence of aging or muscular pain and when it is, in fact, pathologic.⁵ A thorough history and physical are crucial in making the distinction.

Continue to: Clinical red flags...

Clinical red flags include pain with neurologic symptoms (including paresthesia, urinary or bowel disturbances, and weakness in the lower limbs), pain in the lower back with or without coccyx pain that persists and gradually worsens over time, and pain that fails to resolve.³ These symptoms are collectively strong indicators of underlying sacral pathology and should warrant further investigation, including a CT and MRI of the involved area.

Survival rate is improved by surgery

The gold standard for treatment of sacral chordomas is surgical resection with adequate margins, as these tumors are both radio- and chemo-insensitive.⁶ It is generally accepted that achieving a wide surgical margin is the most important predictor of survival and of reducing local recurrence in patients with sacrococcygeal chordoma.^7-9

The survival rate varies after a posterior-only surgical approach; some studies cite the 5-year survival rate as 100% and others state the 7-year survival rate as 5%.⁴ The wide variation is likely due to small trial size, a lack of evidence, and how invasive the disease is at the time of surgery.

The recurrence rate 5 years after surgery is approximately 20%.⁴ The rate of urinary and fecal incontinence after surgery using a posterior-only approach is between 20% and 100%; some of this variation may be due to which spinal level is involved.⁴ If S3 is affected, there is almost always perineal anesthesia along with bowel and bladder incontinence.⁴

This patient was referred to Neurosurgery and underwent resection. He recovered well from surgery but suffered from some residual urinary incontinence. The patient did not receive chemotherapy or radiation, and further work-up revealed no evidence of metastasis.

Continue to: THE TAKEAWAY

The diagnosis of sacral chordoma remains challenging. A history of clinical red flags, especially persistent lower back pain with neuropathy, should prompt an aggressive investigation to rule out underlying pathology. Other signs on physical exam could include urinary or bowel disturbances, weakness in the lower limbs, saddle anesthesia, new foot drop, and/or laxity of the anal sphincter.⁵ Early detection and surgical intervention are crucial for these patients to experience a better prognosis and preserve maximum function.

CORRESPONDENCE
Ginger Poulton, MD, 123 Hendersonville Road, Asheville, NC 28803; [email protected]

THE CASE

A 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension was referred to the outpatient surgical office with a chief complaint of “tail bone pain” that had started after a fall a year earlier. The patient complained that the pain was worse when sitting and at nighttime. He also admitted to a 7-lb weight loss over the past 2 months without change in diet or appetite. He denied symptoms of incontinence, urinary retention, sharp stabbing pains in the lower extremities, night sweats, or anorexia.

The patient first visited an urgent care facility on the day after the fall because he was experiencing pain in his “tail bone” region while riding his lawn mower. A pelvic x-ray was performed at that time and showed no coccyx fracture. He received a steroid injection in the right sacroiliac joint, which provided some relief for a month. Throughout the course of the year, he was given 6 steroid injections into his sacroiliac joint by his primary care provider (PCP) and clinicians at his local urgent care facility. One year after the fall, the patient’s PCP ordered a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis, which revealed a 4.6 x 7.5–cm soft-tissue mass with bony destruction of the lower sacrum and coccyx that extended into the sacral and coccygeal canal (FIGURE 1).

On exam in our surgical office, the patient was found to be alert and oriented. His neurologic exam was unremarkable, with an intact motor and sensory exam and no symptoms of cauda equina syndrome. During palpation over the lower sacrum and coccyx, both tenderness and a boggy, soft mass were observed. Nerve impingement was most likely caused by the size of the mass.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Biopsy revealed a large tan-gray, gelatinous, soft-tissue mass that was necrotizing through the lower sacrum. The diagnosis of a sacral chordoma was confirmed with magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis, which demonstrated a 4.6 × 8.1–cm destructive expansile sacrococcygeal tumor with an exophytic soft-tissue component (FIGURE 2). The tumor also involved the piriformis and gluteus maximus muscles bilaterally.

DISCUSSION

Chordomas are rare, malignant bone tumors that grow slowly and originate from embryonic remnants of the notochord.¹ They are most commonly seen in the sacrococcygeal segment (50%) but are also seen in the ­spheno-occipital synchondrosis (30%-35%) and other spinal segments such as C2 and lumbar spine.² Chordomas are typically seen in middle-aged patients, with sacral chordomas occurring predominantly in men compared to women (3:1).²

Slow to grow, slow to diagnose

The difficulty with diagnosing sacral chordomas lies in the tendency for these tumors to grow extremely slowly, making detection challenging due to a lack of symptoms in the early clinical course. Once the tumors cause noticeable symptoms, they are usually large and extensively locally invasive. As a result, most patients experience delayed diagnosis, with an average symptom duration of 2.3 years prior to diagnosis.³

Reexamining a common problem as a symptom of a rare condition

The most commonly manifesting symptom of sacral chordomas is lower back pain that is typically dull and worse with sitting.^3,4 Since lower back pain is the leading cause of disability, it is difficult to determine when back pain is simply a benign consequence of aging or muscular pain and when it is, in fact, pathologic.⁵ A thorough history and physical are crucial in making the distinction.

Continue to: Clinical red flags...

Clinical red flags include pain with neurologic symptoms (including paresthesia, urinary or bowel disturbances, and weakness in the lower limbs), pain in the lower back with or without coccyx pain that persists and gradually worsens over time, and pain that fails to resolve.³ These symptoms are collectively strong indicators of underlying sacral pathology and should warrant further investigation, including a CT and MRI of the involved area.

Survival rate is improved by surgery

The gold standard for treatment of sacral chordomas is surgical resection with adequate margins, as these tumors are both radio- and chemo-insensitive.⁶ It is generally accepted that achieving a wide surgical margin is the most important predictor of survival and of reducing local recurrence in patients with sacrococcygeal chordoma.^7-9

The survival rate varies after a posterior-only surgical approach; some studies cite the 5-year survival rate as 100% and others state the 7-year survival rate as 5%.⁴ The wide variation is likely due to small trial size, a lack of evidence, and how invasive the disease is at the time of surgery.

The recurrence rate 5 years after surgery is approximately 20%.⁴ The rate of urinary and fecal incontinence after surgery using a posterior-only approach is between 20% and 100%; some of this variation may be due to which spinal level is involved.⁴ If S3 is affected, there is almost always perineal anesthesia along with bowel and bladder incontinence.⁴

This patient was referred to Neurosurgery and underwent resection. He recovered well from surgery but suffered from some residual urinary incontinence. The patient did not receive chemotherapy or radiation, and further work-up revealed no evidence of metastasis.

Continue to: THE TAKEAWAY

The diagnosis of sacral chordoma remains challenging. A history of clinical red flags, especially persistent lower back pain with neuropathy, should prompt an aggressive investigation to rule out underlying pathology. Other signs on physical exam could include urinary or bowel disturbances, weakness in the lower limbs, saddle anesthesia, new foot drop, and/or laxity of the anal sphincter.⁵ Early detection and surgical intervention are crucial for these patients to experience a better prognosis and preserve maximum function.

CORRESPONDENCE
Ginger Poulton, MD, 123 Hendersonville Road, Asheville, NC 28803; [email protected]

THE CASE

A 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension was referred to the outpatient surgical office with a chief complaint of “tail bone pain” that had started after a fall a year earlier. The patient complained that the pain was worse when sitting and at nighttime. He also admitted to a 7-lb weight loss over the past 2 months without change in diet or appetite. He denied symptoms of incontinence, urinary retention, sharp stabbing pains in the lower extremities, night sweats, or anorexia.

The patient first visited an urgent care facility on the day after the fall because he was experiencing pain in his “tail bone” region while riding his lawn mower. A pelvic x-ray was performed at that time and showed no coccyx fracture. He received a steroid injection in the right sacroiliac joint, which provided some relief for a month. Throughout the course of the year, he was given 6 steroid injections into his sacroiliac joint by his primary care provider (PCP) and clinicians at his local urgent care facility. One year after the fall, the patient’s PCP ordered a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis, which revealed a 4.6 x 7.5–cm soft-tissue mass with bony destruction of the lower sacrum and coccyx that extended into the sacral and coccygeal canal (FIGURE 1).

On exam in our surgical office, the patient was found to be alert and oriented. His neurologic exam was unremarkable, with an intact motor and sensory exam and no symptoms of cauda equina syndrome. During palpation over the lower sacrum and coccyx, both tenderness and a boggy, soft mass were observed. Nerve impingement was most likely caused by the size of the mass.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Biopsy revealed a large tan-gray, gelatinous, soft-tissue mass that was necrotizing through the lower sacrum. The diagnosis of a sacral chordoma was confirmed with magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis, which demonstrated a 4.6 × 8.1–cm destructive expansile sacrococcygeal tumor with an exophytic soft-tissue component (FIGURE 2). The tumor also involved the piriformis and gluteus maximus muscles bilaterally.

DISCUSSION

Chordomas are rare, malignant bone tumors that grow slowly and originate from embryonic remnants of the notochord.¹ They are most commonly seen in the sacrococcygeal segment (50%) but are also seen in the ­spheno-occipital synchondrosis (30%-35%) and other spinal segments such as C2 and lumbar spine.² Chordomas are typically seen in middle-aged patients, with sacral chordomas occurring predominantly in men compared to women (3:1).²

Slow to grow, slow to diagnose

The difficulty with diagnosing sacral chordomas lies in the tendency for these tumors to grow extremely slowly, making detection challenging due to a lack of symptoms in the early clinical course. Once the tumors cause noticeable symptoms, they are usually large and extensively locally invasive. As a result, most patients experience delayed diagnosis, with an average symptom duration of 2.3 years prior to diagnosis.³

Reexamining a common problem as a symptom of a rare condition

The most commonly manifesting symptom of sacral chordomas is lower back pain that is typically dull and worse with sitting.^3,4 Since lower back pain is the leading cause of disability, it is difficult to determine when back pain is simply a benign consequence of aging or muscular pain and when it is, in fact, pathologic.⁵ A thorough history and physical are crucial in making the distinction.

Continue to: Clinical red flags...

Clinical red flags include pain with neurologic symptoms (including paresthesia, urinary or bowel disturbances, and weakness in the lower limbs), pain in the lower back with or without coccyx pain that persists and gradually worsens over time, and pain that fails to resolve.³ These symptoms are collectively strong indicators of underlying sacral pathology and should warrant further investigation, including a CT and MRI of the involved area.

Survival rate is improved by surgery

The gold standard for treatment of sacral chordomas is surgical resection with adequate margins, as these tumors are both radio- and chemo-insensitive.⁶ It is generally accepted that achieving a wide surgical margin is the most important predictor of survival and of reducing local recurrence in patients with sacrococcygeal chordoma.^7-9

The survival rate varies after a posterior-only surgical approach; some studies cite the 5-year survival rate as 100% and others state the 7-year survival rate as 5%.⁴ The wide variation is likely due to small trial size, a lack of evidence, and how invasive the disease is at the time of surgery.

The recurrence rate 5 years after surgery is approximately 20%.⁴ The rate of urinary and fecal incontinence after surgery using a posterior-only approach is between 20% and 100%; some of this variation may be due to which spinal level is involved.⁴ If S3 is affected, there is almost always perineal anesthesia along with bowel and bladder incontinence.⁴

This patient was referred to Neurosurgery and underwent resection. He recovered well from surgery but suffered from some residual urinary incontinence. The patient did not receive chemotherapy or radiation, and further work-up revealed no evidence of metastasis.

Continue to: THE TAKEAWAY

The diagnosis of sacral chordoma remains challenging. A history of clinical red flags, especially persistent lower back pain with neuropathy, should prompt an aggressive investigation to rule out underlying pathology. Other signs on physical exam could include urinary or bowel disturbances, weakness in the lower limbs, saddle anesthesia, new foot drop, and/or laxity of the anal sphincter.⁵ Early detection and surgical intervention are crucial for these patients to experience a better prognosis and preserve maximum function.

CORRESPONDENCE
Ginger Poulton, MD, 123 Hendersonville Road, Asheville, NC 28803; [email protected]

We present a case of an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. Our case underscores the importance of clinical correlation and thorough study of the ordered films by the ordering health care provider.

Case Presentation

An 84-year-old female veteran presented to the Bay Pines Veterans Affairs Healthcare System emergency department. She had a past ocular history of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy in both eyes (OU) and senile cataracts OU. She had a complicated medical history most notable for congestive heart failure and Stage IV B cell follicular lymphoma, having received 6 rounds of chemotherapy, and has since been on rituximab maintenance therapy for the past few years.

The patient reported dyspnea on exertion, 30-pound weight gain, and ocular pain in her right eye (OD), more so than her left eye (OS) that was severe enough to wake her from sleep. She endorsed an associated headache but reported no visual loss or any other ocular symptoms other than conjunctival injection. On examination, the patient demonstrated jugular venous distension. X-ray imaging obtained in the emergency department demonstrated bilateral pleural effusions. Our patient was admitted subsequently for an exacerbation of congestive heart failure. She was monitored for euvolemia and discharged 4 days later.

During admission, imaging of the orbits was obtained. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast demonstrated at least 4 intraorbital masses in the right orbit, measuring up to 22 mm in maximum diameter and at least 3 intraorbital masses in the left orbit, measuring up to 16 mm in diameter (Figure 1). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast of the brain and orbits was ordered, which demonstrated multiple bilateral uniformly enhancing, primarily extraconal masses present in both orbits, the largest of which occupied the superomedial aspect of the right orbit and measured 12 x 18 x 20 mm. Further, the ophthalmic veins were noted to be engorged. The cavernous did not demonstrate any thrombosis. No other ocular structures were compromised, although there was compression of the extraocular muscles in both orbits (Figures 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6). At that time, the reading radiologist suggested the most likely diagnosis was metastatic orbital lymphoma given the clinical history, which became the working diagnosis.

Discussion

In a study of 242 patients, Bacorn and colleagues found that a clinician’s preoperative assessment correlated with histopathologic diagnosis in 75.7% of cases, whereas the radiology report was correct in only 52.4% of cases.¹ Retrospective analysis identified clues that could have been used to more rapidly elucidate the true diagnosis for our patient.

In regard to symptomatology, orbital varices present with intermittent proptosis, vision loss, and rarely, periorbital pain unless thrombosed.^2,3 The severity of periorbital pain experienced by our patient is atypical of an orbital varix especially in the absence of a phlebolith. A specific feature of orbital varix is enlargement with the Valsalva maneuver.³ Although the patient did not report the notedsymptoms, more pointed questioning may have helped elucidate our patient’s true diagnosis sooner.

Radiologically, the presence of a partial flow void (decreased signal on T2) is useful for confirming the vascular nature of a lesion as was present in our case. Specific to the radiologic evaluation of orbital varices, it is recommended to obtain imaging with and without the Valsalva maneuver.⁴ Ultrasound is a superb tool in our armamentarium to image orbital lesions. B-scan ultrasound with and without Valsalva should be able to demonstrate variation in size when standing (minimal distension) vs lying flat with Valsalva (maximal distension).⁴ Further, Doppler ultrasound would be able to demonstrate changes in flow within the lesion when comparing previously mentioned maneuvers.⁴ Orbital lymphoma would not demonstrate this variation.

The size change of an orbital varix lesion may be further demonstrated on head CT with contrast. On CT, an orbital varix will demonstrate isodensity to other venous structures, whereas orbital lymphomas will be hyperdense when compared to extraocular muscles.^4,5 Further, a head CT without contrast may demonstrate phleboliths within an orbital varix.⁴ MRI should be performed with the Valsalva maneuver. On T1 and T2 studies, orbital varices demonstrate hypointensity when compared to extraocular muscles (EOMs).⁴ Lymphomas demonstrate a very specific radiologic pattern on MRI. On T1, they demonstrate isointensity to hypointensity when compared to EOMS, and on T2, they demonstrate iso- to hyperintensity when compared to EOMs.⁵ With respect to fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography (PET), our patient’s orbital lesion did not demonstrate FDG uptake. In patients where lymphoma previously demonstrated FDG PET uptake, the absence of such uptake strongly argues against malignant nature of the lesion (Figure 7).

Conclusions

We present a case of an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. While the ruling out of a diagnosis that might portend a poor prognosis is always of paramount importance, proper use of investigative studies and a thorough history could have helped elucidate the true diagnosis sooner: In this case an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. Mainly, the use of the Valsalva maneuver during the physical examination (resulting in proptosis) and during radiologic studies might have obviated the need for formal biopsy. Furthermore, orbital pain may be a presenting symptom of fluid overload in patients with a history of orbital varices.

We present a case of an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. Our case underscores the importance of clinical correlation and thorough study of the ordered films by the ordering health care provider.

Case Presentation

An 84-year-old female veteran presented to the Bay Pines Veterans Affairs Healthcare System emergency department. She had a past ocular history of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy in both eyes (OU) and senile cataracts OU. She had a complicated medical history most notable for congestive heart failure and Stage IV B cell follicular lymphoma, having received 6 rounds of chemotherapy, and has since been on rituximab maintenance therapy for the past few years.

The patient reported dyspnea on exertion, 30-pound weight gain, and ocular pain in her right eye (OD), more so than her left eye (OS) that was severe enough to wake her from sleep. She endorsed an associated headache but reported no visual loss or any other ocular symptoms other than conjunctival injection. On examination, the patient demonstrated jugular venous distension. X-ray imaging obtained in the emergency department demonstrated bilateral pleural effusions. Our patient was admitted subsequently for an exacerbation of congestive heart failure. She was monitored for euvolemia and discharged 4 days later.

During admission, imaging of the orbits was obtained. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast demonstrated at least 4 intraorbital masses in the right orbit, measuring up to 22 mm in maximum diameter and at least 3 intraorbital masses in the left orbit, measuring up to 16 mm in diameter (Figure 1). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast of the brain and orbits was ordered, which demonstrated multiple bilateral uniformly enhancing, primarily extraconal masses present in both orbits, the largest of which occupied the superomedial aspect of the right orbit and measured 12 x 18 x 20 mm. Further, the ophthalmic veins were noted to be engorged. The cavernous did not demonstrate any thrombosis. No other ocular structures were compromised, although there was compression of the extraocular muscles in both orbits (Figures 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6). At that time, the reading radiologist suggested the most likely diagnosis was metastatic orbital lymphoma given the clinical history, which became the working diagnosis.

Discussion

In a study of 242 patients, Bacorn and colleagues found that a clinician’s preoperative assessment correlated with histopathologic diagnosis in 75.7% of cases, whereas the radiology report was correct in only 52.4% of cases.¹ Retrospective analysis identified clues that could have been used to more rapidly elucidate the true diagnosis for our patient.

In regard to symptomatology, orbital varices present with intermittent proptosis, vision loss, and rarely, periorbital pain unless thrombosed.^2,3 The severity of periorbital pain experienced by our patient is atypical of an orbital varix especially in the absence of a phlebolith. A specific feature of orbital varix is enlargement with the Valsalva maneuver.³ Although the patient did not report the notedsymptoms, more pointed questioning may have helped elucidate our patient’s true diagnosis sooner.

Radiologically, the presence of a partial flow void (decreased signal on T2) is useful for confirming the vascular nature of a lesion as was present in our case. Specific to the radiologic evaluation of orbital varices, it is recommended to obtain imaging with and without the Valsalva maneuver.⁴ Ultrasound is a superb tool in our armamentarium to image orbital lesions. B-scan ultrasound with and without Valsalva should be able to demonstrate variation in size when standing (minimal distension) vs lying flat with Valsalva (maximal distension).⁴ Further, Doppler ultrasound would be able to demonstrate changes in flow within the lesion when comparing previously mentioned maneuvers.⁴ Orbital lymphoma would not demonstrate this variation.

The size change of an orbital varix lesion may be further demonstrated on head CT with contrast. On CT, an orbital varix will demonstrate isodensity to other venous structures, whereas orbital lymphomas will be hyperdense when compared to extraocular muscles.^4,5 Further, a head CT without contrast may demonstrate phleboliths within an orbital varix.⁴ MRI should be performed with the Valsalva maneuver. On T1 and T2 studies, orbital varices demonstrate hypointensity when compared to extraocular muscles (EOMs).⁴ Lymphomas demonstrate a very specific radiologic pattern on MRI. On T1, they demonstrate isointensity to hypointensity when compared to EOMS, and on T2, they demonstrate iso- to hyperintensity when compared to EOMs.⁵ With respect to fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography (PET), our patient’s orbital lesion did not demonstrate FDG uptake. In patients where lymphoma previously demonstrated FDG PET uptake, the absence of such uptake strongly argues against malignant nature of the lesion (Figure 7).

Conclusions

We present a case of an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. While the ruling out of a diagnosis that might portend a poor prognosis is always of paramount importance, proper use of investigative studies and a thorough history could have helped elucidate the true diagnosis sooner: In this case an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. Mainly, the use of the Valsalva maneuver during the physical examination (resulting in proptosis) and during radiologic studies might have obviated the need for formal biopsy. Furthermore, orbital pain may be a presenting symptom of fluid overload in patients with a history of orbital varices.

We present a case of an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. Our case underscores the importance of clinical correlation and thorough study of the ordered films by the ordering health care provider.

Case Presentation

An 84-year-old female veteran presented to the Bay Pines Veterans Affairs Healthcare System emergency department. She had a past ocular history of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy in both eyes (OU) and senile cataracts OU. She had a complicated medical history most notable for congestive heart failure and Stage IV B cell follicular lymphoma, having received 6 rounds of chemotherapy, and has since been on rituximab maintenance therapy for the past few years.

The patient reported dyspnea on exertion, 30-pound weight gain, and ocular pain in her right eye (OD), more so than her left eye (OS) that was severe enough to wake her from sleep. She endorsed an associated headache but reported no visual loss or any other ocular symptoms other than conjunctival injection. On examination, the patient demonstrated jugular venous distension. X-ray imaging obtained in the emergency department demonstrated bilateral pleural effusions. Our patient was admitted subsequently for an exacerbation of congestive heart failure. She was monitored for euvolemia and discharged 4 days later.

During admission, imaging of the orbits was obtained. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast demonstrated at least 4 intraorbital masses in the right orbit, measuring up to 22 mm in maximum diameter and at least 3 intraorbital masses in the left orbit, measuring up to 16 mm in diameter (Figure 1). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast of the brain and orbits was ordered, which demonstrated multiple bilateral uniformly enhancing, primarily extraconal masses present in both orbits, the largest of which occupied the superomedial aspect of the right orbit and measured 12 x 18 x 20 mm. Further, the ophthalmic veins were noted to be engorged. The cavernous did not demonstrate any thrombosis. No other ocular structures were compromised, although there was compression of the extraocular muscles in both orbits (Figures 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6). At that time, the reading radiologist suggested the most likely diagnosis was metastatic orbital lymphoma given the clinical history, which became the working diagnosis.

Discussion

In a study of 242 patients, Bacorn and colleagues found that a clinician’s preoperative assessment correlated with histopathologic diagnosis in 75.7% of cases, whereas the radiology report was correct in only 52.4% of cases.¹ Retrospective analysis identified clues that could have been used to more rapidly elucidate the true diagnosis for our patient.

In regard to symptomatology, orbital varices present with intermittent proptosis, vision loss, and rarely, periorbital pain unless thrombosed.^2,3 The severity of periorbital pain experienced by our patient is atypical of an orbital varix especially in the absence of a phlebolith. A specific feature of orbital varix is enlargement with the Valsalva maneuver.³ Although the patient did not report the notedsymptoms, more pointed questioning may have helped elucidate our patient’s true diagnosis sooner.

Radiologically, the presence of a partial flow void (decreased signal on T2) is useful for confirming the vascular nature of a lesion as was present in our case. Specific to the radiologic evaluation of orbital varices, it is recommended to obtain imaging with and without the Valsalva maneuver.⁴ Ultrasound is a superb tool in our armamentarium to image orbital lesions. B-scan ultrasound with and without Valsalva should be able to demonstrate variation in size when standing (minimal distension) vs lying flat with Valsalva (maximal distension).⁴ Further, Doppler ultrasound would be able to demonstrate changes in flow within the lesion when comparing previously mentioned maneuvers.⁴ Orbital lymphoma would not demonstrate this variation.

The size change of an orbital varix lesion may be further demonstrated on head CT with contrast. On CT, an orbital varix will demonstrate isodensity to other venous structures, whereas orbital lymphomas will be hyperdense when compared to extraocular muscles.^4,5 Further, a head CT without contrast may demonstrate phleboliths within an orbital varix.⁴ MRI should be performed with the Valsalva maneuver. On T1 and T2 studies, orbital varices demonstrate hypointensity when compared to extraocular muscles (EOMs).⁴ Lymphomas demonstrate a very specific radiologic pattern on MRI. On T1, they demonstrate isointensity to hypointensity when compared to EOMS, and on T2, they demonstrate iso- to hyperintensity when compared to EOMs.⁵ With respect to fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography (PET), our patient’s orbital lesion did not demonstrate FDG uptake. In patients where lymphoma previously demonstrated FDG PET uptake, the absence of such uptake strongly argues against malignant nature of the lesion (Figure 7).

Conclusions

We present a case of an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. While the ruling out of a diagnosis that might portend a poor prognosis is always of paramount importance, proper use of investigative studies and a thorough history could have helped elucidate the true diagnosis sooner: In this case an orbital varix masquerading as an orbital lymphoma. Mainly, the use of the Valsalva maneuver during the physical examination (resulting in proptosis) and during radiologic studies might have obviated the need for formal biopsy. Furthermore, orbital pain may be a presenting symptom of fluid overload in patients with a history of orbital varices.

Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is a rare and deadly disease in which unregulated proliferation of histiocytes and T-cell infiltration takes place. It is known as a pediatric disease in which gene defects result in impaired cytotoxic NK- and T-cell function. It has been associated with autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. Without therapy, survival for these patients with active familial HLH is approximately 2 months.

Recognition of the disease has increased over the years, and as a result the diagnosis of HLH in adults also has increased. An acquired form can be triggered by viruses like Epstein-Barr virus, influenza, HIV, lymphoid malignancies, rheumatologic disorders, or immunodeficiency disorders. Survival rates for untreated HLH have been reported at < 5%.¹ Despite early recognition and adequate treatment, HLH carries an overall mortality of 50% in the initial presentation, 90% die in the first 8 weeks of treatment due to uncontrolled disease.²

Case Presentation

A 56-year-old man with no active medical issues except for a remote history of non-Hodgkin lymphoma treated with chemotherapy and splenectomy in 1990 presented to the Veterans Affairs Caribbean Healthcare System in San Juan, Puerto Rico. He was admitted to the medicine ward due to community acquired pneumonia. Three days into admission his clinical status deteriorated, and the patient was transferred to the intensive care unit (ICU) due to acute respiratory failure and sepsis secondary to worsening pneumonia. Chest imaging demonstrated rapidly progressing diffuse bilateral infiltrates. Due to the severity of the chest imaging, a diagnostic bronchoscopy was performed.

The patient’s antibiotics regimen was empirically escalated to vancomycin 1500 mg IV every 12 hours and meropenem 2 g IV every 8 hours. Despite optimization of therapy, the patient did not show clinical signs of improvement. Febrile episodes persisted, pulmonary infiltrates and hypoxemia worsened, and the patient required a neuromuscular blockade. Since the bronchoscopy was nondiagnostic and deterioration persistent, the differential diagnosis was broadened. This led to the ordering of inflammatory markers. Laboratory testing showed ferritin levels > 16,000 ng/mL, pointing to HLH as a possible diagnosis. Further workup was remarkable for triglycerides of 1234 mg/dL and a fibrinogen of 0.77 g/L. In the setting of bicytopenia and persistent fever, HLH-94 regimen was started with dexamethasone 40 mg daily and etoposide 100 mg/m². CD25 levels of 154,701 pg/mL were demonstrated as well as a decreased immunoglobulin (Ig) G levels with absent IgM and IgA. Bone marrow biopsy was consistent with hemophagocytosis. The patient eventually was extubated and sent to the oncology ward to continue chemotherapy.

Discussion

A high clinical suspicion is warranted for rapid diagnosis and treatment as HLH evolves in most cases to multiorgan failure and death. The diagnostic criteria for HLH was developed by the Histiocyte Society in 1991 and then restructured in 2004.^3,4 In the first diagnostic tool developed in 1991, diagnosis was based on 5 criteria (fever, splenomegaly, bicytopenia, hypertriglyceridemia and/or hypofibrinogenemia, and hemophagocytosis). Three additional laboratory findings were also described as part of HLH diagnosis since 2004: low or absent NK-cell-activity, hyperferritinemia of > 500 ng/dL, and high-soluble interleukin-2-receptor levels (CD25) > 2400 U/mL. Overall, 5 of 8 criteria are needed for the HLH diagnosis.

Despite the common use of these diagnostic criteria, they were developed for the pediatric population but have not been validated for adult patients.⁵ For adult patients, the HScore was developed in 2014. It has 9 variables: 3 are based on clinical findings (known underlying immunosuppression, high temperature, and organomegaly; 5 are based on laboratory values (ferritin, serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase, cytopenia, triglycerides, and fibrinogen levels); the last variable uses cytologic findings in the bone marrow. In the initial study, probability of having HLH ranged from < 1% with an HScore of ≤ 90% to > 99% with an HScore of ≥ 250 in noncritically ill adults.⁵ A recently published retrospective study demonstrated the diagnostic reliability of both the HLH-2004 criteria and HScore in critically ill adult patients. This study concluded that the best prediction accuracy of HLH diagnosis for a cutoff of 4 fulfilled HLH-2004 criteria had a 95.0% sensitivity and 93.6% specificity and HScore cutoff of 168 reached a 100% sensitivity and 94.1% specificity.⁶

Conclusions

HLH is a rare and deadly disease increasingly more present in adults. Our patient who initially presented with a sepsis diagnosis was suspected of having a hematologic etiology for his clinical findings due to markedly elevated ferritin levels. In our patient, the HLH-94 treatment protocol was used, yielding favorable results. Given the lack of specific scientific data backing updated protocols such as HLH-2004 and a comparatively favorable safety profile, current guidelines still recommend using the HLH-94 treatment protocol. Decreasing ferritin levels may be used in conjunction with clinical improvement to demonstrate therapeutic response. Persistence of disease despite standard treatment may warrant novel therapies, such as emapalumab or HCT. Physicians need to be wary of an HLH diagnosis as early identification and treatment may improve its otherwise grim prognosis.

Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is a rare and deadly disease in which unregulated proliferation of histiocytes and T-cell infiltration takes place. It is known as a pediatric disease in which gene defects result in impaired cytotoxic NK- and T-cell function. It has been associated with autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. Without therapy, survival for these patients with active familial HLH is approximately 2 months.

Recognition of the disease has increased over the years, and as a result the diagnosis of HLH in adults also has increased. An acquired form can be triggered by viruses like Epstein-Barr virus, influenza, HIV, lymphoid malignancies, rheumatologic disorders, or immunodeficiency disorders. Survival rates for untreated HLH have been reported at < 5%.¹ Despite early recognition and adequate treatment, HLH carries an overall mortality of 50% in the initial presentation, 90% die in the first 8 weeks of treatment due to uncontrolled disease.²

Case Presentation

A 56-year-old man with no active medical issues except for a remote history of non-Hodgkin lymphoma treated with chemotherapy and splenectomy in 1990 presented to the Veterans Affairs Caribbean Healthcare System in San Juan, Puerto Rico. He was admitted to the medicine ward due to community acquired pneumonia. Three days into admission his clinical status deteriorated, and the patient was transferred to the intensive care unit (ICU) due to acute respiratory failure and sepsis secondary to worsening pneumonia. Chest imaging demonstrated rapidly progressing diffuse bilateral infiltrates. Due to the severity of the chest imaging, a diagnostic bronchoscopy was performed.

The patient’s antibiotics regimen was empirically escalated to vancomycin 1500 mg IV every 12 hours and meropenem 2 g IV every 8 hours. Despite optimization of therapy, the patient did not show clinical signs of improvement. Febrile episodes persisted, pulmonary infiltrates and hypoxemia worsened, and the patient required a neuromuscular blockade. Since the bronchoscopy was nondiagnostic and deterioration persistent, the differential diagnosis was broadened. This led to the ordering of inflammatory markers. Laboratory testing showed ferritin levels > 16,000 ng/mL, pointing to HLH as a possible diagnosis. Further workup was remarkable for triglycerides of 1234 mg/dL and a fibrinogen of 0.77 g/L. In the setting of bicytopenia and persistent fever, HLH-94 regimen was started with dexamethasone 40 mg daily and etoposide 100 mg/m². CD25 levels of 154,701 pg/mL were demonstrated as well as a decreased immunoglobulin (Ig) G levels with absent IgM and IgA. Bone marrow biopsy was consistent with hemophagocytosis. The patient eventually was extubated and sent to the oncology ward to continue chemotherapy.

Discussion

A high clinical suspicion is warranted for rapid diagnosis and treatment as HLH evolves in most cases to multiorgan failure and death. The diagnostic criteria for HLH was developed by the Histiocyte Society in 1991 and then restructured in 2004.^3,4 In the first diagnostic tool developed in 1991, diagnosis was based on 5 criteria (fever, splenomegaly, bicytopenia, hypertriglyceridemia and/or hypofibrinogenemia, and hemophagocytosis). Three additional laboratory findings were also described as part of HLH diagnosis since 2004: low or absent NK-cell-activity, hyperferritinemia of > 500 ng/dL, and high-soluble interleukin-2-receptor levels (CD25) > 2400 U/mL. Overall, 5 of 8 criteria are needed for the HLH diagnosis.

Despite the common use of these diagnostic criteria, they were developed for the pediatric population but have not been validated for adult patients.⁵ For adult patients, the HScore was developed in 2014. It has 9 variables: 3 are based on clinical findings (known underlying immunosuppression, high temperature, and organomegaly; 5 are based on laboratory values (ferritin, serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase, cytopenia, triglycerides, and fibrinogen levels); the last variable uses cytologic findings in the bone marrow. In the initial study, probability of having HLH ranged from < 1% with an HScore of ≤ 90% to > 99% with an HScore of ≥ 250 in noncritically ill adults.⁵ A recently published retrospective study demonstrated the diagnostic reliability of both the HLH-2004 criteria and HScore in critically ill adult patients. This study concluded that the best prediction accuracy of HLH diagnosis for a cutoff of 4 fulfilled HLH-2004 criteria had a 95.0% sensitivity and 93.6% specificity and HScore cutoff of 168 reached a 100% sensitivity and 94.1% specificity.⁶

Conclusions

HLH is a rare and deadly disease increasingly more present in adults. Our patient who initially presented with a sepsis diagnosis was suspected of having a hematologic etiology for his clinical findings due to markedly elevated ferritin levels. In our patient, the HLH-94 treatment protocol was used, yielding favorable results. Given the lack of specific scientific data backing updated protocols such as HLH-2004 and a comparatively favorable safety profile, current guidelines still recommend using the HLH-94 treatment protocol. Decreasing ferritin levels may be used in conjunction with clinical improvement to demonstrate therapeutic response. Persistence of disease despite standard treatment may warrant novel therapies, such as emapalumab or HCT. Physicians need to be wary of an HLH diagnosis as early identification and treatment may improve its otherwise grim prognosis.

Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is a rare and deadly disease in which unregulated proliferation of histiocytes and T-cell infiltration takes place. It is known as a pediatric disease in which gene defects result in impaired cytotoxic NK- and T-cell function. It has been associated with autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. Without therapy, survival for these patients with active familial HLH is approximately 2 months.

Recognition of the disease has increased over the years, and as a result the diagnosis of HLH in adults also has increased. An acquired form can be triggered by viruses like Epstein-Barr virus, influenza, HIV, lymphoid malignancies, rheumatologic disorders, or immunodeficiency disorders. Survival rates for untreated HLH have been reported at < 5%.¹ Despite early recognition and adequate treatment, HLH carries an overall mortality of 50% in the initial presentation, 90% die in the first 8 weeks of treatment due to uncontrolled disease.²

Case Presentation

A 56-year-old man with no active medical issues except for a remote history of non-Hodgkin lymphoma treated with chemotherapy and splenectomy in 1990 presented to the Veterans Affairs Caribbean Healthcare System in San Juan, Puerto Rico. He was admitted to the medicine ward due to community acquired pneumonia. Three days into admission his clinical status deteriorated, and the patient was transferred to the intensive care unit (ICU) due to acute respiratory failure and sepsis secondary to worsening pneumonia. Chest imaging demonstrated rapidly progressing diffuse bilateral infiltrates. Due to the severity of the chest imaging, a diagnostic bronchoscopy was performed.

The patient’s antibiotics regimen was empirically escalated to vancomycin 1500 mg IV every 12 hours and meropenem 2 g IV every 8 hours. Despite optimization of therapy, the patient did not show clinical signs of improvement. Febrile episodes persisted, pulmonary infiltrates and hypoxemia worsened, and the patient required a neuromuscular blockade. Since the bronchoscopy was nondiagnostic and deterioration persistent, the differential diagnosis was broadened. This led to the ordering of inflammatory markers. Laboratory testing showed ferritin levels > 16,000 ng/mL, pointing to HLH as a possible diagnosis. Further workup was remarkable for triglycerides of 1234 mg/dL and a fibrinogen of 0.77 g/L. In the setting of bicytopenia and persistent fever, HLH-94 regimen was started with dexamethasone 40 mg daily and etoposide 100 mg/m². CD25 levels of 154,701 pg/mL were demonstrated as well as a decreased immunoglobulin (Ig) G levels with absent IgM and IgA. Bone marrow biopsy was consistent with hemophagocytosis. The patient eventually was extubated and sent to the oncology ward to continue chemotherapy.

Discussion

A high clinical suspicion is warranted for rapid diagnosis and treatment as HLH evolves in most cases to multiorgan failure and death. The diagnostic criteria for HLH was developed by the Histiocyte Society in 1991 and then restructured in 2004.^3,4 In the first diagnostic tool developed in 1991, diagnosis was based on 5 criteria (fever, splenomegaly, bicytopenia, hypertriglyceridemia and/or hypofibrinogenemia, and hemophagocytosis). Three additional laboratory findings were also described as part of HLH diagnosis since 2004: low or absent NK-cell-activity, hyperferritinemia of > 500 ng/dL, and high-soluble interleukin-2-receptor levels (CD25) > 2400 U/mL. Overall, 5 of 8 criteria are needed for the HLH diagnosis.

Despite the common use of these diagnostic criteria, they were developed for the pediatric population but have not been validated for adult patients.⁵ For adult patients, the HScore was developed in 2014. It has 9 variables: 3 are based on clinical findings (known underlying immunosuppression, high temperature, and organomegaly; 5 are based on laboratory values (ferritin, serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase, cytopenia, triglycerides, and fibrinogen levels); the last variable uses cytologic findings in the bone marrow. In the initial study, probability of having HLH ranged from < 1% with an HScore of ≤ 90% to > 99% with an HScore of ≥ 250 in noncritically ill adults.⁵ A recently published retrospective study demonstrated the diagnostic reliability of both the HLH-2004 criteria and HScore in critically ill adult patients. This study concluded that the best prediction accuracy of HLH diagnosis for a cutoff of 4 fulfilled HLH-2004 criteria had a 95.0% sensitivity and 93.6% specificity and HScore cutoff of 168 reached a 100% sensitivity and 94.1% specificity.⁶

Conclusions

HLH is a rare and deadly disease increasingly more present in adults. Our patient who initially presented with a sepsis diagnosis was suspected of having a hematologic etiology for his clinical findings due to markedly elevated ferritin levels. In our patient, the HLH-94 treatment protocol was used, yielding favorable results. Given the lack of specific scientific data backing updated protocols such as HLH-2004 and a comparatively favorable safety profile, current guidelines still recommend using the HLH-94 treatment protocol. Decreasing ferritin levels may be used in conjunction with clinical improvement to demonstrate therapeutic response. Persistence of disease despite standard treatment may warrant novel therapies, such as emapalumab or HCT. Physicians need to be wary of an HLH diagnosis as early identification and treatment may improve its otherwise grim prognosis.

Known as the “6 rainbow herbicides,” based on their identifying color on storage containers, the United States widely deployed the herbicides agents orange, green, pink, purple, white, and blue during the Vietnam War to deny the enemy cover and destroy crops.¹ Unfortunately, all these herbicides were found to have contained some form of carcinogen. Agent Blue’s active ingredient consisted of sodium cacodylate trihydrate (C₂H₆AsNaO₂), a compound that is metabolized into the organic form of the carcinogen arsenic before eventually converting into its relatively less toxic inorganic form.² Agent Orange’s defoliating agent is 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD). All rainbow herbicides except Agent Blue were unintentionally contaminated with carcinogenic dioxins. Agent Blue contained the carcinogen cacodylic acid, an organoarsenic acid. Today, herbicides no longer contain polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins such as TCDD or arsenic due to strict manufacturing restrictions.^2,3 In the treatment of veteran populations, knowledge of the 6 rainbow herbicides’ carcinogenic potential is important.

Between 1962 and 1971, the United States sprayed more than 45 million liters of Agent Orange on Vietnam and at least 366 kg of TCDD on South Vietnam.^1,4 However, because Agent Orange was not a known carcinogen during the Vietnam War, records of exposure are poor. Additionally, individuals in Vietnam during this period were not the only ones exposed to this carcinogen as Agent Orange also was sprayed in Thailand and Korea.⁵ Even today there are still locations in Vietnam where Agent Orange concentrations exceed internationally acceptable levels. The Da Nang, Bien Hoa, and Phu Cat airports in Vietnam have been found to have dioxin levels exceeding 1000 ppt (parts of dioxin per trillion parts of lipid) toxicity equivalence in the soil. Although the Vietnam government is working toward decontaminating these and many other dioxin hotspots, residents in these locations are exposed to higher than internationally acceptable levels of dioxin.⁶

Despite receiving less media attention, Vietnam War veterans and Vietnamese soldiers and civilians were exposed to significant amounts of arsenic-based Agent Blue. Arsenic is a compound which has no environmental half-life and is carcinogenic humans if inhaled or ingested.² Between 1962 and 1971, the United States distributed 7.8 million liters of Agent Blue containing 1,232,400 kg of arsenic across 300,000 hectares of rice paddies, 100,000 hectares of forest, and perimeters of all military bases during the Vietnam War.^2,5 According to a review by Saha and colleagues, lower levels of arsenic exposure are associated with acute and chronic diseases, including cancers, of all organ systems.⁷

The following case presentation involves a Vietnam War veteran aged 70 years who was exposed to Agent Orange and developed 3 primary cancers, including cutaneous large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), high-grade urothelial carcinoma, and anal carcinoma in situ. Epidemiologically, this is an uncommon occurrence as only 8% of cancer survivors in the United States have been diagnosed with > 1 cancer.⁸

With no family history of cancer, the development of multiple malignancies raises concern for a history of toxin exposure. This report of a Vietnam War veteran with multiple conditions found to be associated with Agent Orange exposure provides an opportunity to discuss the role this exposure may have on the development of a comprehensive list of medical conditions as described by the literature. Additionally, the potential contributions of other confounding toxin exposures such as cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol use, and potential Agent Blue exposure on our patients’ health will be discussed.

Case Presentation

A male aged 70 years with Stage IV primary cutaneous large B-cell NHL, incompletely resected high-grade urothelial cancer, carcinoma in situ of the anal canal, and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) presented to the primary care clinic at the Washington DC Veterans Affairs Medical Center (DCVAMC) with concern for left leg ischemia. He also reported 2 large telangiectasias on his back for 6 months accompanied by lymphadenopathy and intermittent night sweats.

He was last seen at the DCVAMC 15 months prior after his twelfth dose of rituximab treatment for NHL. However, the patient failed to return for completion of his treatment due to frustration with the lengthy chemotherapy and follow-up process. Additionally, the patient's history included 3 failed arterial stents with complete nonadherence to the prescribed clopidogrel, resulting in the failure of 3 more subsequent graft placements. On presentation, the patient continued to report nonadherence with the clopidogrel.

The patient’s medical history included coronary artery disease (CAD) status after 2 stents in the left anterior descending artery and 1 stent in the proximal circumflex artery placed 4 years prior. He also had a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosis, aortic aneurysm, cataracts, obesity, treated hepatitis B and C, and posttraumatic stress disorder. He had no family history of cancer or AL amyloidosis; however, he noted that he was estranged from his family.

His social history was notable for active cigarette smoking up to 3 packs per day for 40 years and consuming large quantities of alcohol—at one point as many as 20 beers per day over a period of 4.5 years. He had a distant history of cocaine use but no current use, which was supported with negative urinary toxicology screens for illicit drugs over the past year.

Our patient also reported a history of Agent Orange exposure. As an artilleryman in the US Army III Corps, he was deployed for about 1 year in the most heavily sprayed regions of Vietnam, including Bien Hua, Long Binh, Xuan Loc, and Camp Zion for about 2 to 4 months at each location.

Hospital Course

The patient was treated on an inpatient basis for expedited workup and treatment for his urothelial carcinoma, NHL, and ischemic limb. His urothelial carcinoma was successfully resected, and the telangiectasias on his back were biopsied and found to be consistent with his known cutaneous large B-cell NHL, for which plans to resume outpatient chemotherapy were made. The patient’s 3 arterial grafts in his left leg were confirmed to have failed, and the patient was counseled that he would soon likely require an amputation of his ischemic leg.

Discussion

We must rely on our patient’s historical recall as there are no widely available laboratory tests or physical examination findings to confirm and/or determine the magnitude of TCDD or arsenic exposure.^9-11

Exposures

The patient was stationed in Bien Hoa, the second highest dioxin-contaminated air base in Vietnam (Figure).⁶ Dioxin also is known to be a particularly persistent environmental pollutant, such that in January 2018, Bien Hoa was found to still have dioxin levels higher than what is considered internationally acceptable. In fact, these levels were deemed significant enough to lead the United States and Vietnamese government to sign a memorandum of intent to begin cleanup of this airport.⁶ TCDD is known to have a half-life of about 7.6 years, and its long half-life is mainly attributed to its slow elimination process from its stores within the liver and fat, consisting of passive excretion through the gut wall and slow metabolism by the liver.^12,13 Thus, as an artilleryman mainly operating 105 howitzers within the foliage of Vietnam, our patient was exposed not only to high levels of this persistent environmental pollutant on a daily basis, but this toxin likely remained within his system for many years after his return from Vietnam.

Our patient also had a convincing history for potential Agent Blue exposure through both inhalation and ingestion of contaminated food and water. Additionally, his description of deforestations occurring within a matter of days increased the level of suspicion for Agent Blue exposure. This is because Agent Blue was the herbicide of choice for missions requiring rapid deforestation, achieving defoliation as quickly as 1 to 2 days.¹⁴ Additionally, our patient was stationed within cities in southern Vietnam near Agent Blue hot spots, such as Da Nang and Saigon, and Agent Blue was sprayed along the perimeter of all military bases.²

Levels of Evidence

Using the Veterans and Agent Orange Update in 2018 as our guide, we reviewed the quality of evidence suggesting an association between many of our patient’s comorbidities to Agent Orange exposure.⁵ This publication categorizes the level of evidence for association between health conditions and Agent Orange exposure in 4 main categories (Table 1).

In the Veterans and Agent Orange Update, NHL notably has a sufficient level of evidence of association with Agent Orange exposure.⁵ Although our patient’s extensive history of polysubstance use confounds the effect Agent Orange may have had on his health, cutaneous large B-cell NHL is an interesting exception as literature does not support even a correlative link between smoking and excessive alcohol use with primary cutaneous large B-cell NHL. Several case-control studies have found little to no association with cigarette smoking and the large B-cell subtype of NHL.^15,16 Moreover, several studies have found that moderate- to-heavy alcohol use, especially beer, may have a protective effect against the development of NHL.¹⁷ Of note, our patient’s alcoholic beverage of choice was beer. Regarding our patient’s distant history of cocaine use, it has been reported that cocaine use, in the absence of an HIV infection, has not been found to increase the risk of developing NHL.¹⁸ Similarly, arsenic exposure has not been associated with NHL in the literature.^19,20

The 2018 update also upgraded bladder carcinoma from having inadequate or insufficient to a limited or suggestive level of evidence for association.⁵ However, our patient’s most significant risk factor for bladder cancer was smoking, with a meta-analysis of 430,000 patients reporting a risk ratio (RR) of 3.14 for current cigarette smokers.²¹ The patient’s arsenic exposure from Agent Blue also increased his risk of developing bladder cancer. Several studies suggest a strong association between environmental arsenic exposure and bladder cancer.^22-26 A 30-year meta-analysis of 40 studies by Saint-Jacques and colleagues reported that the incidence of bladder cancer was found to increase in a dose-dependent manner, with higher concentrations of arsenic contaminated wate, with incidence rising from 2.7 to 5.8 times as the amount of arsenic contamination water increased from 10 to 150 mg/L.

Our patient’s history is concerning for higher than average Agent Blue exposure compared with that of most Vietnam War veterans. Given the dose-dependent effect of arsenic on bladder cancer risk, both our patient’s history of smoking and Agent Blue exposure are risk factors in the development of his bladder cancer.²² These likely played a more significant role in his development of bladder cancer than did his Agent Orange exposure.

Finally, smoking is the most significant risk factor in our patient’s development of anal carcinoma in situ. The 2018 Agent Orange update does report limited/suggested evidence of no association between Agent Orange and anal carcinoma.⁵ It also is unknown whether Agent Blue exposure is a contributing cause to his development of anal carcinoma in situ.²⁷ However, current smokers are at significant risk of developing anal cancer independent of age.^28-30 Given our patient’s extensive smoking history, this is the most likely contributing factor.

Conclusions

This case describes a Vietnam War veteran with significant exposure to rainbow herbicides and considerable polysubstance who developed 3 primary cancers and several chronic medical conditions. His exposure to Agents Orange and Blue likely contributed to his medical problems, but these associations are confounded by his substance use, particularly cigarette smoking. Of all his comorbidities, our patient’s NHL is the condition most likely to be associated with his history of Agent Orange exposure. His Agent Blue exposure also increased his risk for developing bladder cancer, cardiovascular disease, and PAD.

This case also highlights the importance of evaluating Vietnam War veterans for rainbow herbicide exposure and the complexity associated with attributing diseases to these exposures. All veterans who served in the inland waterways of Vietnam between 1962 and 1975; in the Korean Demilitarized Zone between April 1, 1968 and August 31, 1971; or in Thailand between February 28, 1961 and May 7, 1975 were at risk of rainbow herbicide exposure. These veterans may not only be eligible for disability compensation but also should be screened for associated comorbidities as outlined by current research.⁴² We hope that this report will serve as an aid in achieving this mission.

Known as the “6 rainbow herbicides,” based on their identifying color on storage containers, the United States widely deployed the herbicides agents orange, green, pink, purple, white, and blue during the Vietnam War to deny the enemy cover and destroy crops.¹ Unfortunately, all these herbicides were found to have contained some form of carcinogen. Agent Blue’s active ingredient consisted of sodium cacodylate trihydrate (C₂H₆AsNaO₂), a compound that is metabolized into the organic form of the carcinogen arsenic before eventually converting into its relatively less toxic inorganic form.² Agent Orange’s defoliating agent is 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD). All rainbow herbicides except Agent Blue were unintentionally contaminated with carcinogenic dioxins. Agent Blue contained the carcinogen cacodylic acid, an organoarsenic acid. Today, herbicides no longer contain polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins such as TCDD or arsenic due to strict manufacturing restrictions.^2,3 In the treatment of veteran populations, knowledge of the 6 rainbow herbicides’ carcinogenic potential is important.

Between 1962 and 1971, the United States sprayed more than 45 million liters of Agent Orange on Vietnam and at least 366 kg of TCDD on South Vietnam.^1,4 However, because Agent Orange was not a known carcinogen during the Vietnam War, records of exposure are poor. Additionally, individuals in Vietnam during this period were not the only ones exposed to this carcinogen as Agent Orange also was sprayed in Thailand and Korea.⁵ Even today there are still locations in Vietnam where Agent Orange concentrations exceed internationally acceptable levels. The Da Nang, Bien Hoa, and Phu Cat airports in Vietnam have been found to have dioxin levels exceeding 1000 ppt (parts of dioxin per trillion parts of lipid) toxicity equivalence in the soil. Although the Vietnam government is working toward decontaminating these and many other dioxin hotspots, residents in these locations are exposed to higher than internationally acceptable levels of dioxin.⁶

Despite receiving less media attention, Vietnam War veterans and Vietnamese soldiers and civilians were exposed to significant amounts of arsenic-based Agent Blue. Arsenic is a compound which has no environmental half-life and is carcinogenic humans if inhaled or ingested.² Between 1962 and 1971, the United States distributed 7.8 million liters of Agent Blue containing 1,232,400 kg of arsenic across 300,000 hectares of rice paddies, 100,000 hectares of forest, and perimeters of all military bases during the Vietnam War.^2,5 According to a review by Saha and colleagues, lower levels of arsenic exposure are associated with acute and chronic diseases, including cancers, of all organ systems.⁷

The following case presentation involves a Vietnam War veteran aged 70 years who was exposed to Agent Orange and developed 3 primary cancers, including cutaneous large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), high-grade urothelial carcinoma, and anal carcinoma in situ. Epidemiologically, this is an uncommon occurrence as only 8% of cancer survivors in the United States have been diagnosed with > 1 cancer.⁸

With no family history of cancer, the development of multiple malignancies raises concern for a history of toxin exposure. This report of a Vietnam War veteran with multiple conditions found to be associated with Agent Orange exposure provides an opportunity to discuss the role this exposure may have on the development of a comprehensive list of medical conditions as described by the literature. Additionally, the potential contributions of other confounding toxin exposures such as cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol use, and potential Agent Blue exposure on our patients’ health will be discussed.

Case Presentation

A male aged 70 years with Stage IV primary cutaneous large B-cell NHL, incompletely resected high-grade urothelial cancer, carcinoma in situ of the anal canal, and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) presented to the primary care clinic at the Washington DC Veterans Affairs Medical Center (DCVAMC) with concern for left leg ischemia. He also reported 2 large telangiectasias on his back for 6 months accompanied by lymphadenopathy and intermittent night sweats.

He was last seen at the DCVAMC 15 months prior after his twelfth dose of rituximab treatment for NHL. However, the patient failed to return for completion of his treatment due to frustration with the lengthy chemotherapy and follow-up process. Additionally, the patient's history included 3 failed arterial stents with complete nonadherence to the prescribed clopidogrel, resulting in the failure of 3 more subsequent graft placements. On presentation, the patient continued to report nonadherence with the clopidogrel.

The patient’s medical history included coronary artery disease (CAD) status after 2 stents in the left anterior descending artery and 1 stent in the proximal circumflex artery placed 4 years prior. He also had a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosis, aortic aneurysm, cataracts, obesity, treated hepatitis B and C, and posttraumatic stress disorder. He had no family history of cancer or AL amyloidosis; however, he noted that he was estranged from his family.

His social history was notable for active cigarette smoking up to 3 packs per day for 40 years and consuming large quantities of alcohol—at one point as many as 20 beers per day over a period of 4.5 years. He had a distant history of cocaine use but no current use, which was supported with negative urinary toxicology screens for illicit drugs over the past year.

Our patient also reported a history of Agent Orange exposure. As an artilleryman in the US Army III Corps, he was deployed for about 1 year in the most heavily sprayed regions of Vietnam, including Bien Hua, Long Binh, Xuan Loc, and Camp Zion for about 2 to 4 months at each location.

Hospital Course

The patient was treated on an inpatient basis for expedited workup and treatment for his urothelial carcinoma, NHL, and ischemic limb. His urothelial carcinoma was successfully resected, and the telangiectasias on his back were biopsied and found to be consistent with his known cutaneous large B-cell NHL, for which plans to resume outpatient chemotherapy were made. The patient’s 3 arterial grafts in his left leg were confirmed to have failed, and the patient was counseled that he would soon likely require an amputation of his ischemic leg.

Discussion

We must rely on our patient’s historical recall as there are no widely available laboratory tests or physical examination findings to confirm and/or determine the magnitude of TCDD or arsenic exposure.^9-11

Exposures

The patient was stationed in Bien Hoa, the second highest dioxin-contaminated air base in Vietnam (Figure).⁶ Dioxin also is known to be a particularly persistent environmental pollutant, such that in January 2018, Bien Hoa was found to still have dioxin levels higher than what is considered internationally acceptable. In fact, these levels were deemed significant enough to lead the United States and Vietnamese government to sign a memorandum of intent to begin cleanup of this airport.⁶ TCDD is known to have a half-life of about 7.6 years, and its long half-life is mainly attributed to its slow elimination process from its stores within the liver and fat, consisting of passive excretion through the gut wall and slow metabolism by the liver.^12,13 Thus, as an artilleryman mainly operating 105 howitzers within the foliage of Vietnam, our patient was exposed not only to high levels of this persistent environmental pollutant on a daily basis, but this toxin likely remained within his system for many years after his return from Vietnam.

Our patient also had a convincing history for potential Agent Blue exposure through both inhalation and ingestion of contaminated food and water. Additionally, his description of deforestations occurring within a matter of days increased the level of suspicion for Agent Blue exposure. This is because Agent Blue was the herbicide of choice for missions requiring rapid deforestation, achieving defoliation as quickly as 1 to 2 days.¹⁴ Additionally, our patient was stationed within cities in southern Vietnam near Agent Blue hot spots, such as Da Nang and Saigon, and Agent Blue was sprayed along the perimeter of all military bases.²

Levels of Evidence

Using the Veterans and Agent Orange Update in 2018 as our guide, we reviewed the quality of evidence suggesting an association between many of our patient’s comorbidities to Agent Orange exposure.⁵ This publication categorizes the level of evidence for association between health conditions and Agent Orange exposure in 4 main categories (Table 1).

In the Veterans and Agent Orange Update, NHL notably has a sufficient level of evidence of association with Agent Orange exposure.⁵ Although our patient’s extensive history of polysubstance use confounds the effect Agent Orange may have had on his health, cutaneous large B-cell NHL is an interesting exception as literature does not support even a correlative link between smoking and excessive alcohol use with primary cutaneous large B-cell NHL. Several case-control studies have found little to no association with cigarette smoking and the large B-cell subtype of NHL.^15,16 Moreover, several studies have found that moderate- to-heavy alcohol use, especially beer, may have a protective effect against the development of NHL.¹⁷ Of note, our patient’s alcoholic beverage of choice was beer. Regarding our patient’s distant history of cocaine use, it has been reported that cocaine use, in the absence of an HIV infection, has not been found to increase the risk of developing NHL.¹⁸ Similarly, arsenic exposure has not been associated with NHL in the literature.^19,20

The 2018 update also upgraded bladder carcinoma from having inadequate or insufficient to a limited or suggestive level of evidence for association.⁵ However, our patient’s most significant risk factor for bladder cancer was smoking, with a meta-analysis of 430,000 patients reporting a risk ratio (RR) of 3.14 for current cigarette smokers.²¹ The patient’s arsenic exposure from Agent Blue also increased his risk of developing bladder cancer. Several studies suggest a strong association between environmental arsenic exposure and bladder cancer.^22-26 A 30-year meta-analysis of 40 studies by Saint-Jacques and colleagues reported that the incidence of bladder cancer was found to increase in a dose-dependent manner, with higher concentrations of arsenic contaminated wate, with incidence rising from 2.7 to 5.8 times as the amount of arsenic contamination water increased from 10 to 150 mg/L.

Our patient’s history is concerning for higher than average Agent Blue exposure compared with that of most Vietnam War veterans. Given the dose-dependent effect of arsenic on bladder cancer risk, both our patient’s history of smoking and Agent Blue exposure are risk factors in the development of his bladder cancer.²² These likely played a more significant role in his development of bladder cancer than did his Agent Orange exposure.

Finally, smoking is the most significant risk factor in our patient’s development of anal carcinoma in situ. The 2018 Agent Orange update does report limited/suggested evidence of no association between Agent Orange and anal carcinoma.⁵ It also is unknown whether Agent Blue exposure is a contributing cause to his development of anal carcinoma in situ.²⁷ However, current smokers are at significant risk of developing anal cancer independent of age.^28-30 Given our patient’s extensive smoking history, this is the most likely contributing factor.

Conclusions

This case describes a Vietnam War veteran with significant exposure to rainbow herbicides and considerable polysubstance who developed 3 primary cancers and several chronic medical conditions. His exposure to Agents Orange and Blue likely contributed to his medical problems, but these associations are confounded by his substance use, particularly cigarette smoking. Of all his comorbidities, our patient’s NHL is the condition most likely to be associated with his history of Agent Orange exposure. His Agent Blue exposure also increased his risk for developing bladder cancer, cardiovascular disease, and PAD.

This case also highlights the importance of evaluating Vietnam War veterans for rainbow herbicide exposure and the complexity associated with attributing diseases to these exposures. All veterans who served in the inland waterways of Vietnam between 1962 and 1975; in the Korean Demilitarized Zone between April 1, 1968 and August 31, 1971; or in Thailand between February 28, 1961 and May 7, 1975 were at risk of rainbow herbicide exposure. These veterans may not only be eligible for disability compensation but also should be screened for associated comorbidities as outlined by current research.⁴² We hope that this report will serve as an aid in achieving this mission.

Known as the “6 rainbow herbicides,” based on their identifying color on storage containers, the United States widely deployed the herbicides agents orange, green, pink, purple, white, and blue during the Vietnam War to deny the enemy cover and destroy crops.¹ Unfortunately, all these herbicides were found to have contained some form of carcinogen. Agent Blue’s active ingredient consisted of sodium cacodylate trihydrate (C₂H₆AsNaO₂), a compound that is metabolized into the organic form of the carcinogen arsenic before eventually converting into its relatively less toxic inorganic form.² Agent Orange’s defoliating agent is 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD). All rainbow herbicides except Agent Blue were unintentionally contaminated with carcinogenic dioxins. Agent Blue contained the carcinogen cacodylic acid, an organoarsenic acid. Today, herbicides no longer contain polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins such as TCDD or arsenic due to strict manufacturing restrictions.^2,3 In the treatment of veteran populations, knowledge of the 6 rainbow herbicides’ carcinogenic potential is important.

Between 1962 and 1971, the United States sprayed more than 45 million liters of Agent Orange on Vietnam and at least 366 kg of TCDD on South Vietnam.^1,4 However, because Agent Orange was not a known carcinogen during the Vietnam War, records of exposure are poor. Additionally, individuals in Vietnam during this period were not the only ones exposed to this carcinogen as Agent Orange also was sprayed in Thailand and Korea.⁵ Even today there are still locations in Vietnam where Agent Orange concentrations exceed internationally acceptable levels. The Da Nang, Bien Hoa, and Phu Cat airports in Vietnam have been found to have dioxin levels exceeding 1000 ppt (parts of dioxin per trillion parts of lipid) toxicity equivalence in the soil. Although the Vietnam government is working toward decontaminating these and many other dioxin hotspots, residents in these locations are exposed to higher than internationally acceptable levels of dioxin.⁶

Despite receiving less media attention, Vietnam War veterans and Vietnamese soldiers and civilians were exposed to significant amounts of arsenic-based Agent Blue. Arsenic is a compound which has no environmental half-life and is carcinogenic humans if inhaled or ingested.² Between 1962 and 1971, the United States distributed 7.8 million liters of Agent Blue containing 1,232,400 kg of arsenic across 300,000 hectares of rice paddies, 100,000 hectares of forest, and perimeters of all military bases during the Vietnam War.^2,5 According to a review by Saha and colleagues, lower levels of arsenic exposure are associated with acute and chronic diseases, including cancers, of all organ systems.⁷

The following case presentation involves a Vietnam War veteran aged 70 years who was exposed to Agent Orange and developed 3 primary cancers, including cutaneous large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), high-grade urothelial carcinoma, and anal carcinoma in situ. Epidemiologically, this is an uncommon occurrence as only 8% of cancer survivors in the United States have been diagnosed with > 1 cancer.⁸

With no family history of cancer, the development of multiple malignancies raises concern for a history of toxin exposure. This report of a Vietnam War veteran with multiple conditions found to be associated with Agent Orange exposure provides an opportunity to discuss the role this exposure may have on the development of a comprehensive list of medical conditions as described by the literature. Additionally, the potential contributions of other confounding toxin exposures such as cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol use, and potential Agent Blue exposure on our patients’ health will be discussed.

Case Presentation

A male aged 70 years with Stage IV primary cutaneous large B-cell NHL, incompletely resected high-grade urothelial cancer, carcinoma in situ of the anal canal, and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) presented to the primary care clinic at the Washington DC Veterans Affairs Medical Center (DCVAMC) with concern for left leg ischemia. He also reported 2 large telangiectasias on his back for 6 months accompanied by lymphadenopathy and intermittent night sweats.

He was last seen at the DCVAMC 15 months prior after his twelfth dose of rituximab treatment for NHL. However, the patient failed to return for completion of his treatment due to frustration with the lengthy chemotherapy and follow-up process. Additionally, the patient's history included 3 failed arterial stents with complete nonadherence to the prescribed clopidogrel, resulting in the failure of 3 more subsequent graft placements. On presentation, the patient continued to report nonadherence with the clopidogrel.

The patient’s medical history included coronary artery disease (CAD) status after 2 stents in the left anterior descending artery and 1 stent in the proximal circumflex artery placed 4 years prior. He also had a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosis, aortic aneurysm, cataracts, obesity, treated hepatitis B and C, and posttraumatic stress disorder. He had no family history of cancer or AL amyloidosis; however, he noted that he was estranged from his family.

His social history was notable for active cigarette smoking up to 3 packs per day for 40 years and consuming large quantities of alcohol—at one point as many as 20 beers per day over a period of 4.5 years. He had a distant history of cocaine use but no current use, which was supported with negative urinary toxicology screens for illicit drugs over the past year.

Our patient also reported a history of Agent Orange exposure. As an artilleryman in the US Army III Corps, he was deployed for about 1 year in the most heavily sprayed regions of Vietnam, including Bien Hua, Long Binh, Xuan Loc, and Camp Zion for about 2 to 4 months at each location.

Hospital Course

The patient was treated on an inpatient basis for expedited workup and treatment for his urothelial carcinoma, NHL, and ischemic limb. His urothelial carcinoma was successfully resected, and the telangiectasias on his back were biopsied and found to be consistent with his known cutaneous large B-cell NHL, for which plans to resume outpatient chemotherapy were made. The patient’s 3 arterial grafts in his left leg were confirmed to have failed, and the patient was counseled that he would soon likely require an amputation of his ischemic leg.

Discussion

We must rely on our patient’s historical recall as there are no widely available laboratory tests or physical examination findings to confirm and/or determine the magnitude of TCDD or arsenic exposure.^9-11

Exposures

The patient was stationed in Bien Hoa, the second highest dioxin-contaminated air base in Vietnam (Figure).⁶ Dioxin also is known to be a particularly persistent environmental pollutant, such that in January 2018, Bien Hoa was found to still have dioxin levels higher than what is considered internationally acceptable. In fact, these levels were deemed significant enough to lead the United States and Vietnamese government to sign a memorandum of intent to begin cleanup of this airport.⁶ TCDD is known to have a half-life of about 7.6 years, and its long half-life is mainly attributed to its slow elimination process from its stores within the liver and fat, consisting of passive excretion through the gut wall and slow metabolism by the liver.^12,13 Thus, as an artilleryman mainly operating 105 howitzers within the foliage of Vietnam, our patient was exposed not only to high levels of this persistent environmental pollutant on a daily basis, but this toxin likely remained within his system for many years after his return from Vietnam.

Our patient also had a convincing history for potential Agent Blue exposure through both inhalation and ingestion of contaminated food and water. Additionally, his description of deforestations occurring within a matter of days increased the level of suspicion for Agent Blue exposure. This is because Agent Blue was the herbicide of choice for missions requiring rapid deforestation, achieving defoliation as quickly as 1 to 2 days.¹⁴ Additionally, our patient was stationed within cities in southern Vietnam near Agent Blue hot spots, such as Da Nang and Saigon, and Agent Blue was sprayed along the perimeter of all military bases.²

Levels of Evidence

Using the Veterans and Agent Orange Update in 2018 as our guide, we reviewed the quality of evidence suggesting an association between many of our patient’s comorbidities to Agent Orange exposure.⁵ This publication categorizes the level of evidence for association between health conditions and Agent Orange exposure in 4 main categories (Table 1).

In the Veterans and Agent Orange Update, NHL notably has a sufficient level of evidence of association with Agent Orange exposure.⁵ Although our patient’s extensive history of polysubstance use confounds the effect Agent Orange may have had on his health, cutaneous large B-cell NHL is an interesting exception as literature does not support even a correlative link between smoking and excessive alcohol use with primary cutaneous large B-cell NHL. Several case-control studies have found little to no association with cigarette smoking and the large B-cell subtype of NHL.^15,16 Moreover, several studies have found that moderate- to-heavy alcohol use, especially beer, may have a protective effect against the development of NHL.¹⁷ Of note, our patient’s alcoholic beverage of choice was beer. Regarding our patient’s distant history of cocaine use, it has been reported that cocaine use, in the absence of an HIV infection, has not been found to increase the risk of developing NHL.¹⁸ Similarly, arsenic exposure has not been associated with NHL in the literature.^19,20

The 2018 update also upgraded bladder carcinoma from having inadequate or insufficient to a limited or suggestive level of evidence for association.⁵ However, our patient’s most significant risk factor for bladder cancer was smoking, with a meta-analysis of 430,000 patients reporting a risk ratio (RR) of 3.14 for current cigarette smokers.²¹ The patient’s arsenic exposure from Agent Blue also increased his risk of developing bladder cancer. Several studies suggest a strong association between environmental arsenic exposure and bladder cancer.^22-26 A 30-year meta-analysis of 40 studies by Saint-Jacques and colleagues reported that the incidence of bladder cancer was found to increase in a dose-dependent manner, with higher concentrations of arsenic contaminated wate, with incidence rising from 2.7 to 5.8 times as the amount of arsenic contamination water increased from 10 to 150 mg/L.

Our patient’s history is concerning for higher than average Agent Blue exposure compared with that of most Vietnam War veterans. Given the dose-dependent effect of arsenic on bladder cancer risk, both our patient’s history of smoking and Agent Blue exposure are risk factors in the development of his bladder cancer.²² These likely played a more significant role in his development of bladder cancer than did his Agent Orange exposure.

Finally, smoking is the most significant risk factor in our patient’s development of anal carcinoma in situ. The 2018 Agent Orange update does report limited/suggested evidence of no association between Agent Orange and anal carcinoma.⁵ It also is unknown whether Agent Blue exposure is a contributing cause to his development of anal carcinoma in situ.²⁷ However, current smokers are at significant risk of developing anal cancer independent of age.^28-30 Given our patient’s extensive smoking history, this is the most likely contributing factor.

Conclusions

This case describes a Vietnam War veteran with significant exposure to rainbow herbicides and considerable polysubstance who developed 3 primary cancers and several chronic medical conditions. His exposure to Agents Orange and Blue likely contributed to his medical problems, but these associations are confounded by his substance use, particularly cigarette smoking. Of all his comorbidities, our patient’s NHL is the condition most likely to be associated with his history of Agent Orange exposure. His Agent Blue exposure also increased his risk for developing bladder cancer, cardiovascular disease, and PAD.

This case also highlights the importance of evaluating Vietnam War veterans for rainbow herbicide exposure and the complexity associated with attributing diseases to these exposures. All veterans who served in the inland waterways of Vietnam between 1962 and 1975; in the Korean Demilitarized Zone between April 1, 1968 and August 31, 1971; or in Thailand between February 28, 1961 and May 7, 1975 were at risk of rainbow herbicide exposure. These veterans may not only be eligible for disability compensation but also should be screened for associated comorbidities as outlined by current research.⁴² We hope that this report will serve as an aid in achieving this mission.

Dupilumab is a fully humanized monoclonal antibody to the α subunit of the IL-4 receptor that inhibits the action of helper T cell (T_H2)–type cytokines IL-4 and IL-13. Dupilumab was approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 2017 for the treatment of moderate to severe atopic dermatitis (AD). We report 2 patients with AD who were treated with dupilumab and subsequently developed facial flushing after consuming alcohol.

Case Report

Patient 1
A 24-year-old woman presented to the dermatology clinic with a lifelong history of moderate to severe AD. She had a medical history of asthma and seasonal allergies, which were treated with fexofenadine and an inhaler, as needed. The patient had an affected body surface area of approximately 70% and had achieved only partial relief with topical corticosteroids and topical calcineurin inhibitors.

Because her disease was severe, the patient was started on dupilumab at FDA-approved dosing for AD: a 600-mg subcutaneous (SC) loading dose, followed by 300 mg SC every 2 weeks. She reported rapid skin clearance within 2 weeks of the start of treatment. Her course was complicated by mild head and neck dermatitis.

Seven months after starting treatment, the patient began to acutely experience erythema and warmth over the entire face that was triggered by drinking alcohol (Figure). Before starting dupilumab, she had consumed alcohol on multiple occasions without a flushing effect. This new finding was distinguishable from her facial dermatitis. Onset was within a few minutes after drinking alcohol; flushing self-resolved in 15 to 30 minutes. Although diffuse, erythema and warmth were concentrated around the jawline, eyebrows, and ears and occurred every time the patient drank alcohol. Moreover, she reported that consumption of hard (ie, distilled) liquor, specifically tequila, caused a more severe presentation. She denied other symptoms associated with dupilumab.

Comment

Two other single-patient case reports have discussed similar findings of alcohol-induced flushing associated with dupilumab.^1,2 Both of those patients—a 19-year-old woman and a 26-year-old woman—had not experienced flushing before beginning treatment with dupilumab for AD. Both experienced onset of facial flushing months after beginning dupilumab even though both had consumed alcohol before starting dupilumab, similar to the cases presented here. One patient had a history of asthma; the other had a history of seasonal and environmental allergies.

Possible Mechanism of Action
Acute alcohol ingestion causes dermal vasodilation of the skin (ie, flushing).³ A proposed mechanism is that flushing results from direct action on central vascular-control mechanisms. This theory results from observations that individuals with quadriplegia lack notable ethanol-induced vasodilation, suggesting that ethanol has a central neural site of action.Although some research has indicated that ethanol might induce these effects by altering the action of certain hormones (eg, angiotensin, vasopressin, and catecholamines), the precise mechanism by which ethanol alters vascular function in humans remains unexplained.³

Deficiencies in alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH), aldehyde dehydrogenase 2, and certain cytochrome P450 enzymes also might contribute to facial flushing. People of Asian, especially East Asian, descent often respond to an acute dose of ethanol with symptoms of facial flushing—predominantly the result of an elevated blood level of acetaldehyde caused by an inherited deficiency of aldehyde dehydrogenase 2,⁴ which is downstream from ADH in the metabolic pathway of alcohol. The major enzyme system responsible for metabolism of ethanol is ADH; however, the cytochrome P450–dependent ethanol-oxidizing system—including major CYP450 isoforms CYP3A, CYP2C19, CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP2D6, as well as minor CYP450 isoforms, such as CYP2E1— also are involved, to a lesser extent.⁵

A Role for Dupilumab?
A recent pharmacokinetic study found that dupilumab appears to have little effect on the activity of the major CYP450 isoforms. However, the drug’s effect on ADH and minor CYP450 minor isoforms is unknown. Prior drug-drug interaction studies have shown that certain cytokines and cytokine modulators can markedly influence the expression, stability, and activity of specific CYP450 enzymes.⁶ For example, IL-6 causes a reduction in messenger RNA for CYP3A4 and, to a lesser extent, for other isoforms.⁷ Whether dupilumab influences enzymes involved in processing alcohol requires further study.

Conclusion

We describe 2 cases of dupilumab-induced facial flushing after alcohol consumption. The mechanism of this dupilumab-associated flushing is unknown and requires further research.

Dupilumab is a fully humanized monoclonal antibody to the α subunit of the IL-4 receptor that inhibits the action of helper T cell (T_H2)–type cytokines IL-4 and IL-13. Dupilumab was approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 2017 for the treatment of moderate to severe atopic dermatitis (AD). We report 2 patients with AD who were treated with dupilumab and subsequently developed facial flushing after consuming alcohol.

Case Report

Patient 1
A 24-year-old woman presented to the dermatology clinic with a lifelong history of moderate to severe AD. She had a medical history of asthma and seasonal allergies, which were treated with fexofenadine and an inhaler, as needed. The patient had an affected body surface area of approximately 70% and had achieved only partial relief with topical corticosteroids and topical calcineurin inhibitors.

Because her disease was severe, the patient was started on dupilumab at FDA-approved dosing for AD: a 600-mg subcutaneous (SC) loading dose, followed by 300 mg SC every 2 weeks. She reported rapid skin clearance within 2 weeks of the start of treatment. Her course was complicated by mild head and neck dermatitis.

Seven months after starting treatment, the patient began to acutely experience erythema and warmth over the entire face that was triggered by drinking alcohol (Figure). Before starting dupilumab, she had consumed alcohol on multiple occasions without a flushing effect. This new finding was distinguishable from her facial dermatitis. Onset was within a few minutes after drinking alcohol; flushing self-resolved in 15 to 30 minutes. Although diffuse, erythema and warmth were concentrated around the jawline, eyebrows, and ears and occurred every time the patient drank alcohol. Moreover, she reported that consumption of hard (ie, distilled) liquor, specifically tequila, caused a more severe presentation. She denied other symptoms associated with dupilumab.

Comment

Two other single-patient case reports have discussed similar findings of alcohol-induced flushing associated with dupilumab.^1,2 Both of those patients—a 19-year-old woman and a 26-year-old woman—had not experienced flushing before beginning treatment with dupilumab for AD. Both experienced onset of facial flushing months after beginning dupilumab even though both had consumed alcohol before starting dupilumab, similar to the cases presented here. One patient had a history of asthma; the other had a history of seasonal and environmental allergies.

Possible Mechanism of Action
Acute alcohol ingestion causes dermal vasodilation of the skin (ie, flushing).³ A proposed mechanism is that flushing results from direct action on central vascular-control mechanisms. This theory results from observations that individuals with quadriplegia lack notable ethanol-induced vasodilation, suggesting that ethanol has a central neural site of action.Although some research has indicated that ethanol might induce these effects by altering the action of certain hormones (eg, angiotensin, vasopressin, and catecholamines), the precise mechanism by which ethanol alters vascular function in humans remains unexplained.³

Deficiencies in alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH), aldehyde dehydrogenase 2, and certain cytochrome P450 enzymes also might contribute to facial flushing. People of Asian, especially East Asian, descent often respond to an acute dose of ethanol with symptoms of facial flushing—predominantly the result of an elevated blood level of acetaldehyde caused by an inherited deficiency of aldehyde dehydrogenase 2,⁴ which is downstream from ADH in the metabolic pathway of alcohol. The major enzyme system responsible for metabolism of ethanol is ADH; however, the cytochrome P450–dependent ethanol-oxidizing system—including major CYP450 isoforms CYP3A, CYP2C19, CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP2D6, as well as minor CYP450 isoforms, such as CYP2E1— also are involved, to a lesser extent.⁵

A Role for Dupilumab?
A recent pharmacokinetic study found that dupilumab appears to have little effect on the activity of the major CYP450 isoforms. However, the drug’s effect on ADH and minor CYP450 minor isoforms is unknown. Prior drug-drug interaction studies have shown that certain cytokines and cytokine modulators can markedly influence the expression, stability, and activity of specific CYP450 enzymes.⁶ For example, IL-6 causes a reduction in messenger RNA for CYP3A4 and, to a lesser extent, for other isoforms.⁷ Whether dupilumab influences enzymes involved in processing alcohol requires further study.

Conclusion

We describe 2 cases of dupilumab-induced facial flushing after alcohol consumption. The mechanism of this dupilumab-associated flushing is unknown and requires further research.

Dupilumab is a fully humanized monoclonal antibody to the α subunit of the IL-4 receptor that inhibits the action of helper T cell (T_H2)–type cytokines IL-4 and IL-13. Dupilumab was approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 2017 for the treatment of moderate to severe atopic dermatitis (AD). We report 2 patients with AD who were treated with dupilumab and subsequently developed facial flushing after consuming alcohol.

Case Report

Patient 1
A 24-year-old woman presented to the dermatology clinic with a lifelong history of moderate to severe AD. She had a medical history of asthma and seasonal allergies, which were treated with fexofenadine and an inhaler, as needed. The patient had an affected body surface area of approximately 70% and had achieved only partial relief with topical corticosteroids and topical calcineurin inhibitors.

Because her disease was severe, the patient was started on dupilumab at FDA-approved dosing for AD: a 600-mg subcutaneous (SC) loading dose, followed by 300 mg SC every 2 weeks. She reported rapid skin clearance within 2 weeks of the start of treatment. Her course was complicated by mild head and neck dermatitis.

Seven months after starting treatment, the patient began to acutely experience erythema and warmth over the entire face that was triggered by drinking alcohol (Figure). Before starting dupilumab, she had consumed alcohol on multiple occasions without a flushing effect. This new finding was distinguishable from her facial dermatitis. Onset was within a few minutes after drinking alcohol; flushing self-resolved in 15 to 30 minutes. Although diffuse, erythema and warmth were concentrated around the jawline, eyebrows, and ears and occurred every time the patient drank alcohol. Moreover, she reported that consumption of hard (ie, distilled) liquor, specifically tequila, caused a more severe presentation. She denied other symptoms associated with dupilumab.

Comment

Two other single-patient case reports have discussed similar findings of alcohol-induced flushing associated with dupilumab.^1,2 Both of those patients—a 19-year-old woman and a 26-year-old woman—had not experienced flushing before beginning treatment with dupilumab for AD. Both experienced onset of facial flushing months after beginning dupilumab even though both had consumed alcohol before starting dupilumab, similar to the cases presented here. One patient had a history of asthma; the other had a history of seasonal and environmental allergies.

Possible Mechanism of Action
Acute alcohol ingestion causes dermal vasodilation of the skin (ie, flushing).³ A proposed mechanism is that flushing results from direct action on central vascular-control mechanisms. This theory results from observations that individuals with quadriplegia lack notable ethanol-induced vasodilation, suggesting that ethanol has a central neural site of action.Although some research has indicated that ethanol might induce these effects by altering the action of certain hormones (eg, angiotensin, vasopressin, and catecholamines), the precise mechanism by which ethanol alters vascular function in humans remains unexplained.³

Deficiencies in alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH), aldehyde dehydrogenase 2, and certain cytochrome P450 enzymes also might contribute to facial flushing. People of Asian, especially East Asian, descent often respond to an acute dose of ethanol with symptoms of facial flushing—predominantly the result of an elevated blood level of acetaldehyde caused by an inherited deficiency of aldehyde dehydrogenase 2,⁴ which is downstream from ADH in the metabolic pathway of alcohol. The major enzyme system responsible for metabolism of ethanol is ADH; however, the cytochrome P450–dependent ethanol-oxidizing system—including major CYP450 isoforms CYP3A, CYP2C19, CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP2D6, as well as minor CYP450 isoforms, such as CYP2E1— also are involved, to a lesser extent.⁵

A Role for Dupilumab?
A recent pharmacokinetic study found that dupilumab appears to have little effect on the activity of the major CYP450 isoforms. However, the drug’s effect on ADH and minor CYP450 minor isoforms is unknown. Prior drug-drug interaction studies have shown that certain cytokines and cytokine modulators can markedly influence the expression, stability, and activity of specific CYP450 enzymes.⁶ For example, IL-6 causes a reduction in messenger RNA for CYP3A4 and, to a lesser extent, for other isoforms.⁷ Whether dupilumab influences enzymes involved in processing alcohol requires further study.

Conclusion

We describe 2 cases of dupilumab-induced facial flushing after alcohol consumption. The mechanism of this dupilumab-associated flushing is unknown and requires further research.

COVID-19 is still in the early stages of understanding, although it is known to be complicated by individual patient comorbidities. The management and treatment of COVID-19 continues to quickly evolve as more is discovered regarding the virus. Multiple treatments have been preliminarily tested and used under a Food and Drug Administration emergency use authorization (EUA) determination. The long-term success of these therapies, however, is yet to be determined. Additionally, if a patient has a second clinical presentation for COVID-19, it is not known whether this represents latency with subsequent reactivation from the previous infection or a second de novo infection. The uncertainty calls into question the duration of immunity, if any, following a primary infection.

COVID-19 management becomes more complicated when patients have complex medical conditions, such as myasthenia gravis (MG). This autoimmune neuromuscular disorder can present with varying weakness, and many patients are on immunomodulator medications. The weakness can worsen into a myasthenic crisis (MC), resulting in profound weakness of the respiratory muscles. Therefore, patients with MG are at increased risk for COVID-19 and may have a more complicated course when infected.

Our patient with MG presented for severe COVID-19 symptoms twice and later developed MC. He received 2 treatment modalities available under an EUA (remdesivir and convalescent plasma) for COVID-19, resulting in symptom resolution and a negative polymerize chain reaction (PCR) test result for the virus. However, after receiving his typical maintenance therapy of IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) for his MG, he again developed symptoms consistent with COVID-19 and tested positive. After recovering from the second episode of COVID-19, the patient went into MC requiring plasmapheresis.

Case Presentation

A 56-year-old male, US Army veteran presented to Carl R. Darnall Army Medical Center emergency department (ED) 6 days after testing positive for COVID-19, with worsening sputum, cough, congestion, dyspnea, and fever. Due to his MG, the patient had a home oxygen monitor and reported that his oxygenation saturation dropped below 90% with minimal exertion. His medical history was significant for MG, status postthymectomy and radiation treatment, left hemidiaphragm paralysis secondary to phrenic nerve injury, and corticosteroid-induced insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. His current home medications included pyridostigmine 60 mg 3 times a day, mycophenolate (MMF) 1500 mg twice daily, IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) every 3 weeks, insulin aspart up to 16 U per meal, insulin glargine 30 U twice a day, dulaglutide 0.75 mg every week, and metformin 1000 mg twice daily.

On initial examination, the patient’s heart rate (HR) was 111 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR), 22 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP), 138/88 mm Hg, temperature, 100.9 ^oF, and his initial pulse oximetry, 91% on room air. On physical examination, the patient was tachypneic, though without other signs of respiratory distress. Lung auscultation revealed no adventitial lung sounds. His cardiac examination was notable only for tachycardia. His neurologic examination demonstrated intact cranial nerves, with 5 out of 5 (scale 1 to 5) strength throughout the upper and lower extremities, sensation was intact to light touch, and he had normal cerebellar function. The rest of the examination was normal.

Initial laboratory investigation was notable for a white blood cell count of 14.15x10³ cells/mcL with 84% neutrophils, and 6% lymphocytes. Additional tests revealed a C-reactive protein (CRP) level, 17.97 mg/dL (reference range, 0-0.5 mg/dL), ferritin level, 647 ng/mL (reference range, 22-274 ng/mL), d-dimer, 0.64 mcg/mL (reference range, 0-0.47mcg/mL), and a repeated positive COVID-19 PCR test. A portable chest X-ray showed bibasilar opacities (Figure 1).

Discussion

Reinfection with the COVID-19 has been continuously debated with alternative explanations suggested for a positive test after a previous negative PCR test in the setting of symptom resolution.^1,2 Proposed causes include dynamic PCR results due to prolonged viral shedding and inaccurate or poorly sensitive tests. The repeat positive cases in these scenarios, however, occurred in asymptomatic patients.^1,2 COVID-19 shedding averages 20 to 22 days after symptom onset but has been seen up to 36 days after symptom resolution.^2,3 This would suggest that fluctuating results during the immediate postsymptom period may be due to variations in viral shedding load and or sampling error—especially in asymptomatic patients. On the other hand, patients who experience return of symptoms days to weeks after previous convalescence leave clinicians wondering whether this represents clinical latency with reactivation or COVID-19 reinfection. A separate case of initial COVID-19 in a patient that had subsequent clinical recovery with a negative PCR developed recurrent respiratory symptoms and had a positive PCR test only 10 days later, further highlighting the reinfection vs reactivation issue of COVID-19.² Further understanding of this issue may have implications on the extent of natural immunity following primary infection; potential vaccine dosage schedules; and global public health policies.

Although reactivation may be plausible given his immunomodulatory therapy, our patient’s second COVID-19 symptoms started 40 days after the initial symptoms, and 26 days after the initial course resolution; previous cases of return of severe symptoms occurred between 3 and 6 days.¹ Given our patient’s time course between resolution and return of symptoms, if latency is the mechanism at play, this case demonstrates an exceptionally longer latency period than the ones that have been reported. Additionally, if latency is an issue in COVID-19, using remdesivir as a treatment further complicates the understanding of this disease.

Remdesivir, a nucleoside analogue antiviral, was shown to benefit recovery in patients with severe symptoms in the Adaptive COVID-19 Treatment Trial-1 study.⁴ Our patient had originally been placed on a 10-day course; however, on treatment day 8, his symptoms resolved and the remdesivir was discontinued. This is a similar finding to half the patients in the 10-day arm of the study by McCreary and colleagues.⁵ Although our patient was asymptomatic 4 weeks after the start of remdesivir, consistent with the majority of patients in the McCreary 10-day study arm, further comparison of the presented patient is limited due to study length and follow-up considerations.⁵ No previous data exist on reactivation, reinfection, or long-term mortality after being treated with remdesivir for COVID-19 infection.

IVIG is being studied in the treatment of COVID-19 and bears consideration as it relates to our patient. There is no evidence that IVIG used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases increases the risk of infection compared with that of other medications used in the treatment of such diseases. Furthermore, the current guidance from the MG expert panel does not suggest that IVIG increases the risk of contracting COVID-19 aside from the risks of exposure to hospital infrastructure.⁶ Yet the guidance does not discuss the use of IVIG for MG in patients who are already symptomatic from COVID-19 or for patients recovering from the clinical disease or does it discuss a possible compounding risk of thromboembolic events associated with IVIG and COVID-19.^6,7 Our patient received his maintenance IVIG during his first admission without any worsening of symptoms or increased oxygen requirements. The day following our patient’s next scheduled IVIG infusion—while asymptomatic—he again developed respiratory symptoms; this could suggest that IVIG did not contribute to his second clinical course nor protect against.

CP is a treatment modality that has been used and studied in previous infectious outbreaks such as the first severe acute respiratory syndrome, and the H1N1 influenza virus.⁸ Current data on CP for COVID-19 are limited, but early descriptive studies have shown a benefit in improvement of symptoms 5 days sooner in those requiring supplemental oxygen, but no benefit for those requiring mechanical ventilation.⁹ Like patients that benefitted in these studies, our patient received CP early, 6 days after first testing positive and onset of symptoms. This patient’s reinfection or return of symptoms draws into question the hindrance or even prevention of long-term immunity from administration of CP.

COVID-19 presents many challenges when managing this patient’s coexisting MG, especially as the patient was already being treated with immunosuppressing therapies. The guidance does recommend continuation of standard MG therapies during hospitalizations, including immunosuppression medications such as MMF.⁶ Immunosuppression is associated with worsened severity of COVID-19 symptoms, although no relation exists to degree of immunosuppression and severity.^7,10 To the best of our knowledge there has been no case report of reinfection or reactivation of COVID-19 associated with immunosuppressive agents used in the treatment of MG.

Our patient also was taking pyridostigmine for the treatment of his MG. There is no evidence this medication increases the risk of infection; but the cholinergic activity can increase bronchial secretions, which could theoretically worsen the COVID-19 respiratory symptoms.^6,11 During both ICU admissions, our patient continued pyridostigmine use, observing complete return to baseline after discharge. Given the possible association with worsened respiratory outcomes after the second ICU admission, the balance between managing MG symptoms and COVID-19 symptoms needs further examination.

The patient was in MC during his third presentation to the ED. Although respiratory symptoms may be difficult to differentiate from COVID-19, the additional neurologic symptoms seen in this patient allowed for quick determination of the need for MC treatment. There are many potential etiologies contributing to the development of the MC presented here, and it was likely due to multifactorial precipitants. A common cause of MC is viral upper respiratory infections, further challenging the care of these patients during this pandemic.¹² Many medications have been cited as causing a MC, 2 of which our patient received during admission for COVID-19: azithromycin and levoquin.¹² Although the patient did not receive hydroxychloroquine, which was still being considered as an appropriate COVID-19 treatment at the time, it also is a drug known for precipitating MC and its use scrutinized in patients with MG.¹²

A key aspect to diagnosing and guiding therapies in myasthenic crisis in addition to the clinical symptoms of acute weakness is respiratory assessment through the nonaerosolizing NIF test.¹² Our patient’s NIF measured < 30 cmH₂O when in MC, while the reference range is < 75 cmH₂O, and for mechanical ventilation is recommended at 20 cmH₂O. Although the patient was maintaining O₂ saturation > 95%, his NIF value was concerning, and preparations were made in case of precipitous decline. Compounding the NIF assessment in this patient is his history of left phrenic nerve palsy. Without a documented baseline NIF, results were limited in determining his diaphragm strength.¹³ Treatment for MC includes IVIG or plasmapheresis, since this patient had failed his maintenance therapy IVIG, plasmapheresis was coordinated for definitive therapy.

Conclusions

Federal facilities have seen an increase in the amount of respiratory complaints over the past months. Although COVID-19 is a concerning diagnosis, it is crucial to consider comorbidities in the diagnostic workup of each, even with a previous recent diagnosis of COVID-19. As treatment recommendations for COVID-19 continue to fluctuate coupled with the limitations and difficulties associated with MG patients, so too treatment and evaluation must be carefully considered at each presentation.

COVID-19 is still in the early stages of understanding, although it is known to be complicated by individual patient comorbidities. The management and treatment of COVID-19 continues to quickly evolve as more is discovered regarding the virus. Multiple treatments have been preliminarily tested and used under a Food and Drug Administration emergency use authorization (EUA) determination. The long-term success of these therapies, however, is yet to be determined. Additionally, if a patient has a second clinical presentation for COVID-19, it is not known whether this represents latency with subsequent reactivation from the previous infection or a second de novo infection. The uncertainty calls into question the duration of immunity, if any, following a primary infection.

COVID-19 management becomes more complicated when patients have complex medical conditions, such as myasthenia gravis (MG). This autoimmune neuromuscular disorder can present with varying weakness, and many patients are on immunomodulator medications. The weakness can worsen into a myasthenic crisis (MC), resulting in profound weakness of the respiratory muscles. Therefore, patients with MG are at increased risk for COVID-19 and may have a more complicated course when infected.

Our patient with MG presented for severe COVID-19 symptoms twice and later developed MC. He received 2 treatment modalities available under an EUA (remdesivir and convalescent plasma) for COVID-19, resulting in symptom resolution and a negative polymerize chain reaction (PCR) test result for the virus. However, after receiving his typical maintenance therapy of IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) for his MG, he again developed symptoms consistent with COVID-19 and tested positive. After recovering from the second episode of COVID-19, the patient went into MC requiring plasmapheresis.

Case Presentation

A 56-year-old male, US Army veteran presented to Carl R. Darnall Army Medical Center emergency department (ED) 6 days after testing positive for COVID-19, with worsening sputum, cough, congestion, dyspnea, and fever. Due to his MG, the patient had a home oxygen monitor and reported that his oxygenation saturation dropped below 90% with minimal exertion. His medical history was significant for MG, status postthymectomy and radiation treatment, left hemidiaphragm paralysis secondary to phrenic nerve injury, and corticosteroid-induced insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. His current home medications included pyridostigmine 60 mg 3 times a day, mycophenolate (MMF) 1500 mg twice daily, IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) every 3 weeks, insulin aspart up to 16 U per meal, insulin glargine 30 U twice a day, dulaglutide 0.75 mg every week, and metformin 1000 mg twice daily.

On initial examination, the patient’s heart rate (HR) was 111 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR), 22 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP), 138/88 mm Hg, temperature, 100.9 ^oF, and his initial pulse oximetry, 91% on room air. On physical examination, the patient was tachypneic, though without other signs of respiratory distress. Lung auscultation revealed no adventitial lung sounds. His cardiac examination was notable only for tachycardia. His neurologic examination demonstrated intact cranial nerves, with 5 out of 5 (scale 1 to 5) strength throughout the upper and lower extremities, sensation was intact to light touch, and he had normal cerebellar function. The rest of the examination was normal.

Initial laboratory investigation was notable for a white blood cell count of 14.15x10³ cells/mcL with 84% neutrophils, and 6% lymphocytes. Additional tests revealed a C-reactive protein (CRP) level, 17.97 mg/dL (reference range, 0-0.5 mg/dL), ferritin level, 647 ng/mL (reference range, 22-274 ng/mL), d-dimer, 0.64 mcg/mL (reference range, 0-0.47mcg/mL), and a repeated positive COVID-19 PCR test. A portable chest X-ray showed bibasilar opacities (Figure 1).

Discussion

Reinfection with the COVID-19 has been continuously debated with alternative explanations suggested for a positive test after a previous negative PCR test in the setting of symptom resolution.^1,2 Proposed causes include dynamic PCR results due to prolonged viral shedding and inaccurate or poorly sensitive tests. The repeat positive cases in these scenarios, however, occurred in asymptomatic patients.^1,2 COVID-19 shedding averages 20 to 22 days after symptom onset but has been seen up to 36 days after symptom resolution.^2,3 This would suggest that fluctuating results during the immediate postsymptom period may be due to variations in viral shedding load and or sampling error—especially in asymptomatic patients. On the other hand, patients who experience return of symptoms days to weeks after previous convalescence leave clinicians wondering whether this represents clinical latency with reactivation or COVID-19 reinfection. A separate case of initial COVID-19 in a patient that had subsequent clinical recovery with a negative PCR developed recurrent respiratory symptoms and had a positive PCR test only 10 days later, further highlighting the reinfection vs reactivation issue of COVID-19.² Further understanding of this issue may have implications on the extent of natural immunity following primary infection; potential vaccine dosage schedules; and global public health policies.

Although reactivation may be plausible given his immunomodulatory therapy, our patient’s second COVID-19 symptoms started 40 days after the initial symptoms, and 26 days after the initial course resolution; previous cases of return of severe symptoms occurred between 3 and 6 days.¹ Given our patient’s time course between resolution and return of symptoms, if latency is the mechanism at play, this case demonstrates an exceptionally longer latency period than the ones that have been reported. Additionally, if latency is an issue in COVID-19, using remdesivir as a treatment further complicates the understanding of this disease.

Remdesivir, a nucleoside analogue antiviral, was shown to benefit recovery in patients with severe symptoms in the Adaptive COVID-19 Treatment Trial-1 study.⁴ Our patient had originally been placed on a 10-day course; however, on treatment day 8, his symptoms resolved and the remdesivir was discontinued. This is a similar finding to half the patients in the 10-day arm of the study by McCreary and colleagues.⁵ Although our patient was asymptomatic 4 weeks after the start of remdesivir, consistent with the majority of patients in the McCreary 10-day study arm, further comparison of the presented patient is limited due to study length and follow-up considerations.⁵ No previous data exist on reactivation, reinfection, or long-term mortality after being treated with remdesivir for COVID-19 infection.

IVIG is being studied in the treatment of COVID-19 and bears consideration as it relates to our patient. There is no evidence that IVIG used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases increases the risk of infection compared with that of other medications used in the treatment of such diseases. Furthermore, the current guidance from the MG expert panel does not suggest that IVIG increases the risk of contracting COVID-19 aside from the risks of exposure to hospital infrastructure.⁶ Yet the guidance does not discuss the use of IVIG for MG in patients who are already symptomatic from COVID-19 or for patients recovering from the clinical disease or does it discuss a possible compounding risk of thromboembolic events associated with IVIG and COVID-19.^6,7 Our patient received his maintenance IVIG during his first admission without any worsening of symptoms or increased oxygen requirements. The day following our patient’s next scheduled IVIG infusion—while asymptomatic—he again developed respiratory symptoms; this could suggest that IVIG did not contribute to his second clinical course nor protect against.

CP is a treatment modality that has been used and studied in previous infectious outbreaks such as the first severe acute respiratory syndrome, and the H1N1 influenza virus.⁸ Current data on CP for COVID-19 are limited, but early descriptive studies have shown a benefit in improvement of symptoms 5 days sooner in those requiring supplemental oxygen, but no benefit for those requiring mechanical ventilation.⁹ Like patients that benefitted in these studies, our patient received CP early, 6 days after first testing positive and onset of symptoms. This patient’s reinfection or return of symptoms draws into question the hindrance or even prevention of long-term immunity from administration of CP.

COVID-19 presents many challenges when managing this patient’s coexisting MG, especially as the patient was already being treated with immunosuppressing therapies. The guidance does recommend continuation of standard MG therapies during hospitalizations, including immunosuppression medications such as MMF.⁶ Immunosuppression is associated with worsened severity of COVID-19 symptoms, although no relation exists to degree of immunosuppression and severity.^7,10 To the best of our knowledge there has been no case report of reinfection or reactivation of COVID-19 associated with immunosuppressive agents used in the treatment of MG.

Our patient also was taking pyridostigmine for the treatment of his MG. There is no evidence this medication increases the risk of infection; but the cholinergic activity can increase bronchial secretions, which could theoretically worsen the COVID-19 respiratory symptoms.^6,11 During both ICU admissions, our patient continued pyridostigmine use, observing complete return to baseline after discharge. Given the possible association with worsened respiratory outcomes after the second ICU admission, the balance between managing MG symptoms and COVID-19 symptoms needs further examination.

The patient was in MC during his third presentation to the ED. Although respiratory symptoms may be difficult to differentiate from COVID-19, the additional neurologic symptoms seen in this patient allowed for quick determination of the need for MC treatment. There are many potential etiologies contributing to the development of the MC presented here, and it was likely due to multifactorial precipitants. A common cause of MC is viral upper respiratory infections, further challenging the care of these patients during this pandemic.¹² Many medications have been cited as causing a MC, 2 of which our patient received during admission for COVID-19: azithromycin and levoquin.¹² Although the patient did not receive hydroxychloroquine, which was still being considered as an appropriate COVID-19 treatment at the time, it also is a drug known for precipitating MC and its use scrutinized in patients with MG.¹²

A key aspect to diagnosing and guiding therapies in myasthenic crisis in addition to the clinical symptoms of acute weakness is respiratory assessment through the nonaerosolizing NIF test.¹² Our patient’s NIF measured < 30 cmH₂O when in MC, while the reference range is < 75 cmH₂O, and for mechanical ventilation is recommended at 20 cmH₂O. Although the patient was maintaining O₂ saturation > 95%, his NIF value was concerning, and preparations were made in case of precipitous decline. Compounding the NIF assessment in this patient is his history of left phrenic nerve palsy. Without a documented baseline NIF, results were limited in determining his diaphragm strength.¹³ Treatment for MC includes IVIG or plasmapheresis, since this patient had failed his maintenance therapy IVIG, plasmapheresis was coordinated for definitive therapy.

Conclusions

Federal facilities have seen an increase in the amount of respiratory complaints over the past months. Although COVID-19 is a concerning diagnosis, it is crucial to consider comorbidities in the diagnostic workup of each, even with a previous recent diagnosis of COVID-19. As treatment recommendations for COVID-19 continue to fluctuate coupled with the limitations and difficulties associated with MG patients, so too treatment and evaluation must be carefully considered at each presentation.

COVID-19 is still in the early stages of understanding, although it is known to be complicated by individual patient comorbidities. The management and treatment of COVID-19 continues to quickly evolve as more is discovered regarding the virus. Multiple treatments have been preliminarily tested and used under a Food and Drug Administration emergency use authorization (EUA) determination. The long-term success of these therapies, however, is yet to be determined. Additionally, if a patient has a second clinical presentation for COVID-19, it is not known whether this represents latency with subsequent reactivation from the previous infection or a second de novo infection. The uncertainty calls into question the duration of immunity, if any, following a primary infection.

COVID-19 management becomes more complicated when patients have complex medical conditions, such as myasthenia gravis (MG). This autoimmune neuromuscular disorder can present with varying weakness, and many patients are on immunomodulator medications. The weakness can worsen into a myasthenic crisis (MC), resulting in profound weakness of the respiratory muscles. Therefore, patients with MG are at increased risk for COVID-19 and may have a more complicated course when infected.

Our patient with MG presented for severe COVID-19 symptoms twice and later developed MC. He received 2 treatment modalities available under an EUA (remdesivir and convalescent plasma) for COVID-19, resulting in symptom resolution and a negative polymerize chain reaction (PCR) test result for the virus. However, after receiving his typical maintenance therapy of IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) for his MG, he again developed symptoms consistent with COVID-19 and tested positive. After recovering from the second episode of COVID-19, the patient went into MC requiring plasmapheresis.

Case Presentation

A 56-year-old male, US Army veteran presented to Carl R. Darnall Army Medical Center emergency department (ED) 6 days after testing positive for COVID-19, with worsening sputum, cough, congestion, dyspnea, and fever. Due to his MG, the patient had a home oxygen monitor and reported that his oxygenation saturation dropped below 90% with minimal exertion. His medical history was significant for MG, status postthymectomy and radiation treatment, left hemidiaphragm paralysis secondary to phrenic nerve injury, and corticosteroid-induced insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. His current home medications included pyridostigmine 60 mg 3 times a day, mycophenolate (MMF) 1500 mg twice daily, IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) every 3 weeks, insulin aspart up to 16 U per meal, insulin glargine 30 U twice a day, dulaglutide 0.75 mg every week, and metformin 1000 mg twice daily.

On initial examination, the patient’s heart rate (HR) was 111 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR), 22 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP), 138/88 mm Hg, temperature, 100.9 ^oF, and his initial pulse oximetry, 91% on room air. On physical examination, the patient was tachypneic, though without other signs of respiratory distress. Lung auscultation revealed no adventitial lung sounds. His cardiac examination was notable only for tachycardia. His neurologic examination demonstrated intact cranial nerves, with 5 out of 5 (scale 1 to 5) strength throughout the upper and lower extremities, sensation was intact to light touch, and he had normal cerebellar function. The rest of the examination was normal.

Initial laboratory investigation was notable for a white blood cell count of 14.15x10³ cells/mcL with 84% neutrophils, and 6% lymphocytes. Additional tests revealed a C-reactive protein (CRP) level, 17.97 mg/dL (reference range, 0-0.5 mg/dL), ferritin level, 647 ng/mL (reference range, 22-274 ng/mL), d-dimer, 0.64 mcg/mL (reference range, 0-0.47mcg/mL), and a repeated positive COVID-19 PCR test. A portable chest X-ray showed bibasilar opacities (Figure 1).

Discussion

Reinfection with the COVID-19 has been continuously debated with alternative explanations suggested for a positive test after a previous negative PCR test in the setting of symptom resolution.^1,2 Proposed causes include dynamic PCR results due to prolonged viral shedding and inaccurate or poorly sensitive tests. The repeat positive cases in these scenarios, however, occurred in asymptomatic patients.^1,2 COVID-19 shedding averages 20 to 22 days after symptom onset but has been seen up to 36 days after symptom resolution.^2,3 This would suggest that fluctuating results during the immediate postsymptom period may be due to variations in viral shedding load and or sampling error—especially in asymptomatic patients. On the other hand, patients who experience return of symptoms days to weeks after previous convalescence leave clinicians wondering whether this represents clinical latency with reactivation or COVID-19 reinfection. A separate case of initial COVID-19 in a patient that had subsequent clinical recovery with a negative PCR developed recurrent respiratory symptoms and had a positive PCR test only 10 days later, further highlighting the reinfection vs reactivation issue of COVID-19.² Further understanding of this issue may have implications on the extent of natural immunity following primary infection; potential vaccine dosage schedules; and global public health policies.

Although reactivation may be plausible given his immunomodulatory therapy, our patient’s second COVID-19 symptoms started 40 days after the initial symptoms, and 26 days after the initial course resolution; previous cases of return of severe symptoms occurred between 3 and 6 days.¹ Given our patient’s time course between resolution and return of symptoms, if latency is the mechanism at play, this case demonstrates an exceptionally longer latency period than the ones that have been reported. Additionally, if latency is an issue in COVID-19, using remdesivir as a treatment further complicates the understanding of this disease.

Remdesivir, a nucleoside analogue antiviral, was shown to benefit recovery in patients with severe symptoms in the Adaptive COVID-19 Treatment Trial-1 study.⁴ Our patient had originally been placed on a 10-day course; however, on treatment day 8, his symptoms resolved and the remdesivir was discontinued. This is a similar finding to half the patients in the 10-day arm of the study by McCreary and colleagues.⁵ Although our patient was asymptomatic 4 weeks after the start of remdesivir, consistent with the majority of patients in the McCreary 10-day study arm, further comparison of the presented patient is limited due to study length and follow-up considerations.⁵ No previous data exist on reactivation, reinfection, or long-term mortality after being treated with remdesivir for COVID-19 infection.

IVIG is being studied in the treatment of COVID-19 and bears consideration as it relates to our patient. There is no evidence that IVIG used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases increases the risk of infection compared with that of other medications used in the treatment of such diseases. Furthermore, the current guidance from the MG expert panel does not suggest that IVIG increases the risk of contracting COVID-19 aside from the risks of exposure to hospital infrastructure.⁶ Yet the guidance does not discuss the use of IVIG for MG in patients who are already symptomatic from COVID-19 or for patients recovering from the clinical disease or does it discuss a possible compounding risk of thromboembolic events associated with IVIG and COVID-19.^6,7 Our patient received his maintenance IVIG during his first admission without any worsening of symptoms or increased oxygen requirements. The day following our patient’s next scheduled IVIG infusion—while asymptomatic—he again developed respiratory symptoms; this could suggest that IVIG did not contribute to his second clinical course nor protect against.

CP is a treatment modality that has been used and studied in previous infectious outbreaks such as the first severe acute respiratory syndrome, and the H1N1 influenza virus.⁸ Current data on CP for COVID-19 are limited, but early descriptive studies have shown a benefit in improvement of symptoms 5 days sooner in those requiring supplemental oxygen, but no benefit for those requiring mechanical ventilation.⁹ Like patients that benefitted in these studies, our patient received CP early, 6 days after first testing positive and onset of symptoms. This patient’s reinfection or return of symptoms draws into question the hindrance or even prevention of long-term immunity from administration of CP.

COVID-19 presents many challenges when managing this patient’s coexisting MG, especially as the patient was already being treated with immunosuppressing therapies. The guidance does recommend continuation of standard MG therapies during hospitalizations, including immunosuppression medications such as MMF.⁶ Immunosuppression is associated with worsened severity of COVID-19 symptoms, although no relation exists to degree of immunosuppression and severity.^7,10 To the best of our knowledge there has been no case report of reinfection or reactivation of COVID-19 associated with immunosuppressive agents used in the treatment of MG.

Our patient also was taking pyridostigmine for the treatment of his MG. There is no evidence this medication increases the risk of infection; but the cholinergic activity can increase bronchial secretions, which could theoretically worsen the COVID-19 respiratory symptoms.^6,11 During both ICU admissions, our patient continued pyridostigmine use, observing complete return to baseline after discharge. Given the possible association with worsened respiratory outcomes after the second ICU admission, the balance between managing MG symptoms and COVID-19 symptoms needs further examination.

The patient was in MC during his third presentation to the ED. Although respiratory symptoms may be difficult to differentiate from COVID-19, the additional neurologic symptoms seen in this patient allowed for quick determination of the need for MC treatment. There are many potential etiologies contributing to the development of the MC presented here, and it was likely due to multifactorial precipitants. A common cause of MC is viral upper respiratory infections, further challenging the care of these patients during this pandemic.¹² Many medications have been cited as causing a MC, 2 of which our patient received during admission for COVID-19: azithromycin and levoquin.¹² Although the patient did not receive hydroxychloroquine, which was still being considered as an appropriate COVID-19 treatment at the time, it also is a drug known for precipitating MC and its use scrutinized in patients with MG.¹²

A key aspect to diagnosing and guiding therapies in myasthenic crisis in addition to the clinical symptoms of acute weakness is respiratory assessment through the nonaerosolizing NIF test.¹² Our patient’s NIF measured < 30 cmH₂O when in MC, while the reference range is < 75 cmH₂O, and for mechanical ventilation is recommended at 20 cmH₂O. Although the patient was maintaining O₂ saturation > 95%, his NIF value was concerning, and preparations were made in case of precipitous decline. Compounding the NIF assessment in this patient is his history of left phrenic nerve palsy. Without a documented baseline NIF, results were limited in determining his diaphragm strength.¹³ Treatment for MC includes IVIG or plasmapheresis, since this patient had failed his maintenance therapy IVIG, plasmapheresis was coordinated for definitive therapy.

Conclusions

Federal facilities have seen an increase in the amount of respiratory complaints over the past months. Although COVID-19 is a concerning diagnosis, it is crucial to consider comorbidities in the diagnostic workup of each, even with a previous recent diagnosis of COVID-19. As treatment recommendations for COVID-19 continue to fluctuate coupled with the limitations and difficulties associated with MG patients, so too treatment and evaluation must be carefully considered at each presentation.

THE CASE

A 27-year-old woman presented to the family medicine clinic to establish care for a recent onset of seizures, for which she had previously been admitted, 4 months after delivering her first child. Her pregnancy was complicated by type 1 diabetes and poor glycemic control. Labor was induced at 37 weeks; however, vaginal delivery was impeded by arrest of dilation. An emergency cesarean section was performed under general anesthesia, resulting in a healthy newborn male.

Six weeks after giving birth, the patient was started on sertraline 50 mg/d for postpartum depression. Her history was significant for depression 8 years prior that was controlled with psychotherapy, and treated prior to coming to our clinic. She had not experienced any depressive symptoms during pregnancy.

Three months postpartum, she was hospitalized for recurrent syncopal episodes. They lasted about 2 minutes, with prodromal generalized weakness followed by loss of consciousness. There was no post-event confusion, tongue-biting, or incontinence. Physical exam, electroencephalogram (EEG), echocardiogram, and magnetic resonance imaging of the head and neck demonstrated no acute findings.

These episodes escalated in frequency weeks after they began, involving as many as 40 daily attacks, some of which lasted up to 45 minutes. During these events, the patient was nonresponsive but reported reliving the delivery of her child. Upon initial consultation with Neurology, no cause was found, and she was advised to wear a helmet, stop driving, and refrain from carrying her son. No antiepileptic medications were initiated because there were no EEG findings that supported seizure, and her mood had not improved, despite an increase in sertraline dosage, a switch to citalopram, and the addition of bupropion. She described anxiety, nightmares, and intrusive thoughts during psychotherapy sessions. Her psychiatrist gave her an additional diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) secondary to her delivery. The family medicine clinic assisted the patient and her family throughout her care by functioning as a home base for her.

Eight months following initial symptoms, repeat evaluation with a video-EEG revealed no evidence of EEG changes during seizure-like activity.

THE DIAGNOSIS

The patient was given a diagnosis of psychogenic nonepileptic seizure (PNES) by a neurologist experienced in diagnosing both epilepsy and PNES. The physician made the diagnosis after noting that the seizures on video had no corresponding epileptiform activity on EEG. This represents a “documented” diagnosis, the highest level of confidence possible in diagnosing PNES, as reported by the International League Against Epilepsy Nonepileptic Seizures Task Force.¹

DISCUSSION

With a prevalence of 5% to 10% and 20% to 40% in outpatient and inpatient epilepsy clinics respectively, PNES events have become of increasing interest to physicians.² There are few cases of PNES in women during pregnancy reported in the literature.^3,4 This is the first case report of PNES with postpartum onset.

Continue to: Epilepsy vs psychogenic nonepileptic seizures

PNES episodes appear similar to epileptic seizures, but without a definitive neurobiologic source.^2,3 However, recent literature suggests the root cause may be found in abnormalities in neurologic networks, such as dysfunction of frontal and parietal lobe connectivity and increased communication from emotional centers of the brain.^2,5 There are no typical pathognomonic symptoms of PNES, leading to diagnostic difficulty.² A definitive diagnosis may be made when a patient experiences seizures without EEG abnormalities.² Further diagnostic brain imaging is unnecessary.

Trauma may be the underlying cause

A predominance of PNES in both women and young adults, with no definitive associated factors, has been reported in the literature.² Studies suggest childhood sexual abuse, physical abuse, traumatic brain injury, and health-related trauma, such as distressing medical experiences and surgeries, may be risk factors, while depression, misdiagnosis, and mistreatment can heighten seizure activity.^2,3

Treatment requires a multidisciplinary team

Effective management of PNES requires collaboration between the primary care physician, neurologist, psychiatrist, and psychotherapist, with an emphasis on evaluation and control of the underlying trigger(s).³ Randomized controlled trials have demonstrated the efficacy of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), supportive care, and patient education in reducing seizure frequency at the 6-month follow-up.^3,6 Additional studies have reported the best prognostic factor in PNES management is patient employment of an internal locus of control—the patient’s belief that they control life events.^7,8 Case series suggest electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is an effective alternative mood stabilization and seizure reduction therapy when tolerated.⁹

Our patient tried several combinations of treatment to manage PNES and comorbid psychiatric conditions, including CBT, antidepressants, and anxiolytics. After about 5 treatment failures, she pursued ECT for treatment-resistant depression and PNES frequency reduction but failed to tolerate therapy. Currently, her PNES has been reduced to 1 to 2 weekly episodes with a 200 mg/d dose of lamotrigine as a mood stabilizer combined with CBT.

THE TAKEAWAY

Providers should investigate a patient’s history and psychologic disposition when the patient presents with seizure-like behavior without a neurobiologic source or with a negative video-EEG study. A history of depression, traumatic experience, PTSD, or other psychosocial triggers must be noted early to prevent a delay in treatment when PNES is part of the differential. Due to a delayed diagnosis of PNES in our patient, she went without full treatment for almost 12 months and experienced worsening episodes. The primary care physician plays an integral role in early identification and intervention through anticipatory guidance, initial work-up, and support for patients with suspected PNES (TABLE).

CORRESPONDENCE
Karim Hanna, MD, 13330 USF Laurel Drive, Tampa, FL; [email protected]

THE CASE

A 27-year-old woman presented to the family medicine clinic to establish care for a recent onset of seizures, for which she had previously been admitted, 4 months after delivering her first child. Her pregnancy was complicated by type 1 diabetes and poor glycemic control. Labor was induced at 37 weeks; however, vaginal delivery was impeded by arrest of dilation. An emergency cesarean section was performed under general anesthesia, resulting in a healthy newborn male.

Six weeks after giving birth, the patient was started on sertraline 50 mg/d for postpartum depression. Her history was significant for depression 8 years prior that was controlled with psychotherapy, and treated prior to coming to our clinic. She had not experienced any depressive symptoms during pregnancy.

Three months postpartum, she was hospitalized for recurrent syncopal episodes. They lasted about 2 minutes, with prodromal generalized weakness followed by loss of consciousness. There was no post-event confusion, tongue-biting, or incontinence. Physical exam, electroencephalogram (EEG), echocardiogram, and magnetic resonance imaging of the head and neck demonstrated no acute findings.

These episodes escalated in frequency weeks after they began, involving as many as 40 daily attacks, some of which lasted up to 45 minutes. During these events, the patient was nonresponsive but reported reliving the delivery of her child. Upon initial consultation with Neurology, no cause was found, and she was advised to wear a helmet, stop driving, and refrain from carrying her son. No antiepileptic medications were initiated because there were no EEG findings that supported seizure, and her mood had not improved, despite an increase in sertraline dosage, a switch to citalopram, and the addition of bupropion. She described anxiety, nightmares, and intrusive thoughts during psychotherapy sessions. Her psychiatrist gave her an additional diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) secondary to her delivery. The family medicine clinic assisted the patient and her family throughout her care by functioning as a home base for her.

Eight months following initial symptoms, repeat evaluation with a video-EEG revealed no evidence of EEG changes during seizure-like activity.

THE DIAGNOSIS

The patient was given a diagnosis of psychogenic nonepileptic seizure (PNES) by a neurologist experienced in diagnosing both epilepsy and PNES. The physician made the diagnosis after noting that the seizures on video had no corresponding epileptiform activity on EEG. This represents a “documented” diagnosis, the highest level of confidence possible in diagnosing PNES, as reported by the International League Against Epilepsy Nonepileptic Seizures Task Force.¹

DISCUSSION

With a prevalence of 5% to 10% and 20% to 40% in outpatient and inpatient epilepsy clinics respectively, PNES events have become of increasing interest to physicians.² There are few cases of PNES in women during pregnancy reported in the literature.^3,4 This is the first case report of PNES with postpartum onset.

Continue to: Epilepsy vs psychogenic nonepileptic seizures

PNES episodes appear similar to epileptic seizures, but without a definitive neurobiologic source.^2,3 However, recent literature suggests the root cause may be found in abnormalities in neurologic networks, such as dysfunction of frontal and parietal lobe connectivity and increased communication from emotional centers of the brain.^2,5 There are no typical pathognomonic symptoms of PNES, leading to diagnostic difficulty.² A definitive diagnosis may be made when a patient experiences seizures without EEG abnormalities.² Further diagnostic brain imaging is unnecessary.

Trauma may be the underlying cause

A predominance of PNES in both women and young adults, with no definitive associated factors, has been reported in the literature.² Studies suggest childhood sexual abuse, physical abuse, traumatic brain injury, and health-related trauma, such as distressing medical experiences and surgeries, may be risk factors, while depression, misdiagnosis, and mistreatment can heighten seizure activity.^2,3

Treatment requires a multidisciplinary team

Effective management of PNES requires collaboration between the primary care physician, neurologist, psychiatrist, and psychotherapist, with an emphasis on evaluation and control of the underlying trigger(s).³ Randomized controlled trials have demonstrated the efficacy of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), supportive care, and patient education in reducing seizure frequency at the 6-month follow-up.^3,6 Additional studies have reported the best prognostic factor in PNES management is patient employment of an internal locus of control—the patient’s belief that they control life events.^7,8 Case series suggest electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is an effective alternative mood stabilization and seizure reduction therapy when tolerated.⁹

Our patient tried several combinations of treatment to manage PNES and comorbid psychiatric conditions, including CBT, antidepressants, and anxiolytics. After about 5 treatment failures, she pursued ECT for treatment-resistant depression and PNES frequency reduction but failed to tolerate therapy. Currently, her PNES has been reduced to 1 to 2 weekly episodes with a 200 mg/d dose of lamotrigine as a mood stabilizer combined with CBT.

THE TAKEAWAY

Providers should investigate a patient’s history and psychologic disposition when the patient presents with seizure-like behavior without a neurobiologic source or with a negative video-EEG study. A history of depression, traumatic experience, PTSD, or other psychosocial triggers must be noted early to prevent a delay in treatment when PNES is part of the differential. Due to a delayed diagnosis of PNES in our patient, she went without full treatment for almost 12 months and experienced worsening episodes. The primary care physician plays an integral role in early identification and intervention through anticipatory guidance, initial work-up, and support for patients with suspected PNES (TABLE).

CORRESPONDENCE
Karim Hanna, MD, 13330 USF Laurel Drive, Tampa, FL; [email protected]

THE CASE

A 27-year-old woman presented to the family medicine clinic to establish care for a recent onset of seizures, for which she had previously been admitted, 4 months after delivering her first child. Her pregnancy was complicated by type 1 diabetes and poor glycemic control. Labor was induced at 37 weeks; however, vaginal delivery was impeded by arrest of dilation. An emergency cesarean section was performed under general anesthesia, resulting in a healthy newborn male.

Six weeks after giving birth, the patient was started on sertraline 50 mg/d for postpartum depression. Her history was significant for depression 8 years prior that was controlled with psychotherapy, and treated prior to coming to our clinic. She had not experienced any depressive symptoms during pregnancy.

Three months postpartum, she was hospitalized for recurrent syncopal episodes. They lasted about 2 minutes, with prodromal generalized weakness followed by loss of consciousness. There was no post-event confusion, tongue-biting, or incontinence. Physical exam, electroencephalogram (EEG), echocardiogram, and magnetic resonance imaging of the head and neck demonstrated no acute findings.

These episodes escalated in frequency weeks after they began, involving as many as 40 daily attacks, some of which lasted up to 45 minutes. During these events, the patient was nonresponsive but reported reliving the delivery of her child. Upon initial consultation with Neurology, no cause was found, and she was advised to wear a helmet, stop driving, and refrain from carrying her son. No antiepileptic medications were initiated because there were no EEG findings that supported seizure, and her mood had not improved, despite an increase in sertraline dosage, a switch to citalopram, and the addition of bupropion. She described anxiety, nightmares, and intrusive thoughts during psychotherapy sessions. Her psychiatrist gave her an additional diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) secondary to her delivery. The family medicine clinic assisted the patient and her family throughout her care by functioning as a home base for her.

Eight months following initial symptoms, repeat evaluation with a video-EEG revealed no evidence of EEG changes during seizure-like activity.

THE DIAGNOSIS

The patient was given a diagnosis of psychogenic nonepileptic seizure (PNES) by a neurologist experienced in diagnosing both epilepsy and PNES. The physician made the diagnosis after noting that the seizures on video had no corresponding epileptiform activity on EEG. This represents a “documented” diagnosis, the highest level of confidence possible in diagnosing PNES, as reported by the International League Against Epilepsy Nonepileptic Seizures Task Force.¹

DISCUSSION

With a prevalence of 5% to 10% and 20% to 40% in outpatient and inpatient epilepsy clinics respectively, PNES events have become of increasing interest to physicians.² There are few cases of PNES in women during pregnancy reported in the literature.^3,4 This is the first case report of PNES with postpartum onset.

Continue to: Epilepsy vs psychogenic nonepileptic seizures

PNES episodes appear similar to epileptic seizures, but without a definitive neurobiologic source.^2,3 However, recent literature suggests the root cause may be found in abnormalities in neurologic networks, such as dysfunction of frontal and parietal lobe connectivity and increased communication from emotional centers of the brain.^2,5 There are no typical pathognomonic symptoms of PNES, leading to diagnostic difficulty.² A definitive diagnosis may be made when a patient experiences seizures without EEG abnormalities.² Further diagnostic brain imaging is unnecessary.

Trauma may be the underlying cause

A predominance of PNES in both women and young adults, with no definitive associated factors, has been reported in the literature.² Studies suggest childhood sexual abuse, physical abuse, traumatic brain injury, and health-related trauma, such as distressing medical experiences and surgeries, may be risk factors, while depression, misdiagnosis, and mistreatment can heighten seizure activity.^2,3

Treatment requires a multidisciplinary team

Effective management of PNES requires collaboration between the primary care physician, neurologist, psychiatrist, and psychotherapist, with an emphasis on evaluation and control of the underlying trigger(s).³ Randomized controlled trials have demonstrated the efficacy of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), supportive care, and patient education in reducing seizure frequency at the 6-month follow-up.^3,6 Additional studies have reported the best prognostic factor in PNES management is patient employment of an internal locus of control—the patient’s belief that they control life events.^7,8 Case series suggest electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is an effective alternative mood stabilization and seizure reduction therapy when tolerated.⁹

Our patient tried several combinations of treatment to manage PNES and comorbid psychiatric conditions, including CBT, antidepressants, and anxiolytics. After about 5 treatment failures, she pursued ECT for treatment-resistant depression and PNES frequency reduction but failed to tolerate therapy. Currently, her PNES has been reduced to 1 to 2 weekly episodes with a 200 mg/d dose of lamotrigine as a mood stabilizer combined with CBT.

THE TAKEAWAY

Providers should investigate a patient’s history and psychologic disposition when the patient presents with seizure-like behavior without a neurobiologic source or with a negative video-EEG study. A history of depression, traumatic experience, PTSD, or other psychosocial triggers must be noted early to prevent a delay in treatment when PNES is part of the differential. Due to a delayed diagnosis of PNES in our patient, she went without full treatment for almost 12 months and experienced worsening episodes. The primary care physician plays an integral role in early identification and intervention through anticipatory guidance, initial work-up, and support for patients with suspected PNES (TABLE).

CORRESPONDENCE
Karim Hanna, MD, 13330 USF Laurel Drive, Tampa, FL; [email protected]