TORONTO – Uptake of the meningococcal B vaccine among 16- to 18-year-olds in Philadelphia County, Pa., varied by provider type and by sociodemographic characteristics, results from a large analysis showed.

“In 2015, two meningococcal B (MenB) vaccines were given a Category B recommendation by the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices with a preferred vaccination window of 16-18 years,” researchers led by Kristen A. Feemster, MD, MPH, wrote in an abstract presented at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting. “Factors that may influence provider recommendation and subsequent uptake of a Category B vaccine are unknown.”

In an effort to identify sociodemographic and provider factors associated with MenB vaccine receipt, Dr. Feemster and her associates conducted a cross-sectional study of 85,789 Philadelphia youth aged 16-18 years who had a record in the KIDS Plus II Philadelphia database between Oct. 31, 2015 and July 31, 2017. They acquired neighborhood-level data from the 2016 U.S. Census American Community Survey. Next, the researchers used multivariate logistic regression to assess the association between MenB series initiation and individual- and neighborhood-level sociodemographic, clinical, and provider characteristics.

Of the 85,789 youth, only 16% received at least one MenB dose, while just 5% completed the series, reported Dr. Feemster, who is medical director of the Immunization Program and Acute Communicable Diseases at the Philadelphia department of public health in the division of disease control. Nearly half of youth (49%) were black or African-American, 25% were white, 5.5% were Asian, while the remainder were from “other” or “unknown” races. A private pediatrician was listed as the provider for 70% of the youth, followed by a community health center (11%), the Philadelphia District Center (7%), and hospitals (2%), while the remaining providers were “other” or “unknown.” The proportion of MenB recipients varied significantly by provider type, from 0.67% to 20%.

On multivariate logistic regression, MenB recipients were more likely to be female (adjusted odds ratio, 1.07; P = .0006); they were also more likely to be up-to-date on human papillomavirus vaccines (AOR, 1.65; P less than .0001) and measles-containing vaccines (AOR, 9.90; P less than .0001).

MenB recipients were more likely to be of “unknown” or “other” reported race, compared with those who were Black/African-American (AOR, 1.36 and 1.24, respectively; P less than .0001) or non-Hispanic/Latino (AOR, 1.21; P less than .0001); they were also more likely to reside in a neighborhood with median household income of greater than $100,000, compared with those who lived in a neighborhood where the median household income is less than $20,000 (AOR, 1.63; P less than .0001). Asian teens (AOR, 0.87; P = .0062) and teens who received care in community (AOR, 0.52; P less than .0001) or district health centers (AOR, 0.03; P less than .0001) also were less likely to receive the MenB vaccine, reported Dr. Feemster, who is also director of research for Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia’s Vaccine Education Center, and her colleagues.

“Variation in uptake by race, ethnicity, and neighborhood socioeconomic status suggest potential sociodemographic disparities in MenB receipt, [while] variation by neighborhood socioeconomic status may also suggest financial barriers related to access to care,” the researchers wrote in their abstract. They also speculated that variation in MenB receipt across different providers “may reflect different recommendation practices, perceived need for MenB vaccines in a provider’s patient population, or clinic-level purchasing decisions.”

The next steps in their research, they wrote, are to “investigate factors associated with provider recommendation of MenB vaccine to identify targets for initiatives to ensure equitable vaccine access.”

The researchers reported having no financial disclosures.

[email protected]
 

TORONTO – Uptake of the meningococcal B vaccine among 16- to 18-year-olds in Philadelphia County, Pa., varied by provider type and by sociodemographic characteristics, results from a large analysis showed.

“In 2015, two meningococcal B (MenB) vaccines were given a Category B recommendation by the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices with a preferred vaccination window of 16-18 years,” researchers led by Kristen A. Feemster, MD, MPH, wrote in an abstract presented at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting. “Factors that may influence provider recommendation and subsequent uptake of a Category B vaccine are unknown.”

In an effort to identify sociodemographic and provider factors associated with MenB vaccine receipt, Dr. Feemster and her associates conducted a cross-sectional study of 85,789 Philadelphia youth aged 16-18 years who had a record in the KIDS Plus II Philadelphia database between Oct. 31, 2015 and July 31, 2017. They acquired neighborhood-level data from the 2016 U.S. Census American Community Survey. Next, the researchers used multivariate logistic regression to assess the association between MenB series initiation and individual- and neighborhood-level sociodemographic, clinical, and provider characteristics.

Of the 85,789 youth, only 16% received at least one MenB dose, while just 5% completed the series, reported Dr. Feemster, who is medical director of the Immunization Program and Acute Communicable Diseases at the Philadelphia department of public health in the division of disease control. Nearly half of youth (49%) were black or African-American, 25% were white, 5.5% were Asian, while the remainder were from “other” or “unknown” races. A private pediatrician was listed as the provider for 70% of the youth, followed by a community health center (11%), the Philadelphia District Center (7%), and hospitals (2%), while the remaining providers were “other” or “unknown.” The proportion of MenB recipients varied significantly by provider type, from 0.67% to 20%.

On multivariate logistic regression, MenB recipients were more likely to be female (adjusted odds ratio, 1.07; P = .0006); they were also more likely to be up-to-date on human papillomavirus vaccines (AOR, 1.65; P less than .0001) and measles-containing vaccines (AOR, 9.90; P less than .0001).

MenB recipients were more likely to be of “unknown” or “other” reported race, compared with those who were Black/African-American (AOR, 1.36 and 1.24, respectively; P less than .0001) or non-Hispanic/Latino (AOR, 1.21; P less than .0001); they were also more likely to reside in a neighborhood with median household income of greater than $100,000, compared with those who lived in a neighborhood where the median household income is less than $20,000 (AOR, 1.63; P less than .0001). Asian teens (AOR, 0.87; P = .0062) and teens who received care in community (AOR, 0.52; P less than .0001) or district health centers (AOR, 0.03; P less than .0001) also were less likely to receive the MenB vaccine, reported Dr. Feemster, who is also director of research for Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia’s Vaccine Education Center, and her colleagues.

“Variation in uptake by race, ethnicity, and neighborhood socioeconomic status suggest potential sociodemographic disparities in MenB receipt, [while] variation by neighborhood socioeconomic status may also suggest financial barriers related to access to care,” the researchers wrote in their abstract. They also speculated that variation in MenB receipt across different providers “may reflect different recommendation practices, perceived need for MenB vaccines in a provider’s patient population, or clinic-level purchasing decisions.”

The next steps in their research, they wrote, are to “investigate factors associated with provider recommendation of MenB vaccine to identify targets for initiatives to ensure equitable vaccine access.”

The researchers reported having no financial disclosures.

[email protected]
 

TORONTO – Uptake of the meningococcal B vaccine among 16- to 18-year-olds in Philadelphia County, Pa., varied by provider type and by sociodemographic characteristics, results from a large analysis showed.

“In 2015, two meningococcal B (MenB) vaccines were given a Category B recommendation by the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices with a preferred vaccination window of 16-18 years,” researchers led by Kristen A. Feemster, MD, MPH, wrote in an abstract presented at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting. “Factors that may influence provider recommendation and subsequent uptake of a Category B vaccine are unknown.”

In an effort to identify sociodemographic and provider factors associated with MenB vaccine receipt, Dr. Feemster and her associates conducted a cross-sectional study of 85,789 Philadelphia youth aged 16-18 years who had a record in the KIDS Plus II Philadelphia database between Oct. 31, 2015 and July 31, 2017. They acquired neighborhood-level data from the 2016 U.S. Census American Community Survey. Next, the researchers used multivariate logistic regression to assess the association between MenB series initiation and individual- and neighborhood-level sociodemographic, clinical, and provider characteristics.

Of the 85,789 youth, only 16% received at least one MenB dose, while just 5% completed the series, reported Dr. Feemster, who is medical director of the Immunization Program and Acute Communicable Diseases at the Philadelphia department of public health in the division of disease control. Nearly half of youth (49%) were black or African-American, 25% were white, 5.5% were Asian, while the remainder were from “other” or “unknown” races. A private pediatrician was listed as the provider for 70% of the youth, followed by a community health center (11%), the Philadelphia District Center (7%), and hospitals (2%), while the remaining providers were “other” or “unknown.” The proportion of MenB recipients varied significantly by provider type, from 0.67% to 20%.

On multivariate logistic regression, MenB recipients were more likely to be female (adjusted odds ratio, 1.07; P = .0006); they were also more likely to be up-to-date on human papillomavirus vaccines (AOR, 1.65; P less than .0001) and measles-containing vaccines (AOR, 9.90; P less than .0001).

MenB recipients were more likely to be of “unknown” or “other” reported race, compared with those who were Black/African-American (AOR, 1.36 and 1.24, respectively; P less than .0001) or non-Hispanic/Latino (AOR, 1.21; P less than .0001); they were also more likely to reside in a neighborhood with median household income of greater than $100,000, compared with those who lived in a neighborhood where the median household income is less than $20,000 (AOR, 1.63; P less than .0001). Asian teens (AOR, 0.87; P = .0062) and teens who received care in community (AOR, 0.52; P less than .0001) or district health centers (AOR, 0.03; P less than .0001) also were less likely to receive the MenB vaccine, reported Dr. Feemster, who is also director of research for Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia’s Vaccine Education Center, and her colleagues.

“Variation in uptake by race, ethnicity, and neighborhood socioeconomic status suggest potential sociodemographic disparities in MenB receipt, [while] variation by neighborhood socioeconomic status may also suggest financial barriers related to access to care,” the researchers wrote in their abstract. They also speculated that variation in MenB receipt across different providers “may reflect different recommendation practices, perceived need for MenB vaccines in a provider’s patient population, or clinic-level purchasing decisions.”

The next steps in their research, they wrote, are to “investigate factors associated with provider recommendation of MenB vaccine to identify targets for initiatives to ensure equitable vaccine access.”

The researchers reported having no financial disclosures.

[email protected]
 

Clinicians in the cardiology, obstetrics, and gynecology specialties should collaborate and use a woman’s annual visit to her ob.gyn. to promote healthy lifestyle choices, screen for signs of cardiovascular disease and risk factors, and improve her overall cardiovascular health, according to a joint advisory released by the presidents of the American Heart Association and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.

“Ob.gyns. are primary care providers for many women, and the annual ‘well woman’ visit provides a powerful opportunity to counsel patients about achieving and maintaining a heart-healthy lifestyle, which is a cornerstone of maintaining heart health,” John Warner, MD, president of the AHA and executive vice president for Health System Affairs at University of Texas Southwestern Medical Center in Dallas, said in a press release.

javi_indy/ Thinkstock

“Pregnancy is essentially a ‘stress test’ for women, and these adverse pregnancy outcomes can be used to identify women who are at an increased risk for ASCVD, even in those for whom the conditions resolve after delivery,” the authors said.

To reduce or prevent these issues, the authors recommended ob.gyn. clinicians perform a “thorough family history, screening for and targeted review of cardiovascular risk factors (including those unique to women), and lifestyle counseling to improve cardiovascular risk factors with the goal of preventing future cardiovascular events.”

“The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association guidelines for the assessment of cardiovascular risk find it reasonable to screen adults free of cardiovascular disease for risk factors such as smoking, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, total cholesterol, and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol every 4-6 years between the ages of 20 and 79 years to calculate their 10-year cardiovascular risk,” they wrote.

Regarding diabetes care, clinicians should screen for abnormal glucose levels in overweight or obese patients aged between 40 and 70 years and schedule lifestyle counseling for any patients with prediabetes (HbA_1c = 5.7%-6.4%), diabetes mellitus (HbA_1c greater than 6.4%), gestational diabetes, or metabolic syndrome.

Cholesterol and other traditional risk factors associated with hyperlipidemia should be checked every 4-6 years and patients with elevated lipids should receive counseling on lowering their saturated fat intake and adding more dietary fiber. Statins are also an option for patients where diet does not lower lipids to appropriate levels, but authors noted “women of childbearing age need to be specifically counseled to not become pregnant while taking a statin.” The advisory also recommended speaking with patients about engaging in “150 min/wk of moderate-intensity physical activity, 75 min/wk of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity, or an equivalent combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity” as well as offering counseling and options for women who want to quit smoking.

The authors noted that only 45% of women consider heart disease a “leading cause of death” and most primary care providers do not see cardiovascular disease as a top health concern for women, focusing on risk factors such as weight and breast health.

“As the leading health care providers for women, ob.gyns. provide care that goes far beyond reproductive health and are in a unique position to screen, counsel, and educate patients on heart health. By acknowledging and discussing the risks and communicating steps women can take to reduce their odds of developing heart disease, ob.gyns. have a powerful opportunity to be the secret weapon in the fight against heart disease,” Haywood L. Brown, MD, past president of the ACOG and F. Bayard Carter Professor in the department of obstetrics and gynecology at Duke University, Durham, N.C., said in a press release.

Dr. Gianos is a consultant and/or on the advisory board for Regeneron. Dr. Wenger reports research grants from Gilead Sciences, the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute, Pfizer, and the Society for Women’s Health Research and is a consultant and/or on the advisory board for Amgen, AstraZeneca, Gilead Sciences, Janssen, and Merck.

SOURCE: Brown HL et al. Circulation. 2018 May 10. doi: 10.1161/CIR.0000000000000582.

Clinicians in the cardiology, obstetrics, and gynecology specialties should collaborate and use a woman’s annual visit to her ob.gyn. to promote healthy lifestyle choices, screen for signs of cardiovascular disease and risk factors, and improve her overall cardiovascular health, according to a joint advisory released by the presidents of the American Heart Association and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.

“Ob.gyns. are primary care providers for many women, and the annual ‘well woman’ visit provides a powerful opportunity to counsel patients about achieving and maintaining a heart-healthy lifestyle, which is a cornerstone of maintaining heart health,” John Warner, MD, president of the AHA and executive vice president for Health System Affairs at University of Texas Southwestern Medical Center in Dallas, said in a press release.

javi_indy/ Thinkstock

“Pregnancy is essentially a ‘stress test’ for women, and these adverse pregnancy outcomes can be used to identify women who are at an increased risk for ASCVD, even in those for whom the conditions resolve after delivery,” the authors said.

To reduce or prevent these issues, the authors recommended ob.gyn. clinicians perform a “thorough family history, screening for and targeted review of cardiovascular risk factors (including those unique to women), and lifestyle counseling to improve cardiovascular risk factors with the goal of preventing future cardiovascular events.”

“The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association guidelines for the assessment of cardiovascular risk find it reasonable to screen adults free of cardiovascular disease for risk factors such as smoking, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, total cholesterol, and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol every 4-6 years between the ages of 20 and 79 years to calculate their 10-year cardiovascular risk,” they wrote.

Regarding diabetes care, clinicians should screen for abnormal glucose levels in overweight or obese patients aged between 40 and 70 years and schedule lifestyle counseling for any patients with prediabetes (HbA_1c = 5.7%-6.4%), diabetes mellitus (HbA_1c greater than 6.4%), gestational diabetes, or metabolic syndrome.

Cholesterol and other traditional risk factors associated with hyperlipidemia should be checked every 4-6 years and patients with elevated lipids should receive counseling on lowering their saturated fat intake and adding more dietary fiber. Statins are also an option for patients where diet does not lower lipids to appropriate levels, but authors noted “women of childbearing age need to be specifically counseled to not become pregnant while taking a statin.” The advisory also recommended speaking with patients about engaging in “150 min/wk of moderate-intensity physical activity, 75 min/wk of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity, or an equivalent combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity” as well as offering counseling and options for women who want to quit smoking.

The authors noted that only 45% of women consider heart disease a “leading cause of death” and most primary care providers do not see cardiovascular disease as a top health concern for women, focusing on risk factors such as weight and breast health.

“As the leading health care providers for women, ob.gyns. provide care that goes far beyond reproductive health and are in a unique position to screen, counsel, and educate patients on heart health. By acknowledging and discussing the risks and communicating steps women can take to reduce their odds of developing heart disease, ob.gyns. have a powerful opportunity to be the secret weapon in the fight against heart disease,” Haywood L. Brown, MD, past president of the ACOG and F. Bayard Carter Professor in the department of obstetrics and gynecology at Duke University, Durham, N.C., said in a press release.

Dr. Gianos is a consultant and/or on the advisory board for Regeneron. Dr. Wenger reports research grants from Gilead Sciences, the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute, Pfizer, and the Society for Women’s Health Research and is a consultant and/or on the advisory board for Amgen, AstraZeneca, Gilead Sciences, Janssen, and Merck.

SOURCE: Brown HL et al. Circulation. 2018 May 10. doi: 10.1161/CIR.0000000000000582.

Clinicians in the cardiology, obstetrics, and gynecology specialties should collaborate and use a woman’s annual visit to her ob.gyn. to promote healthy lifestyle choices, screen for signs of cardiovascular disease and risk factors, and improve her overall cardiovascular health, according to a joint advisory released by the presidents of the American Heart Association and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.

“Ob.gyns. are primary care providers for many women, and the annual ‘well woman’ visit provides a powerful opportunity to counsel patients about achieving and maintaining a heart-healthy lifestyle, which is a cornerstone of maintaining heart health,” John Warner, MD, president of the AHA and executive vice president for Health System Affairs at University of Texas Southwestern Medical Center in Dallas, said in a press release.

javi_indy/ Thinkstock

“Pregnancy is essentially a ‘stress test’ for women, and these adverse pregnancy outcomes can be used to identify women who are at an increased risk for ASCVD, even in those for whom the conditions resolve after delivery,” the authors said.

To reduce or prevent these issues, the authors recommended ob.gyn. clinicians perform a “thorough family history, screening for and targeted review of cardiovascular risk factors (including those unique to women), and lifestyle counseling to improve cardiovascular risk factors with the goal of preventing future cardiovascular events.”

“The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association guidelines for the assessment of cardiovascular risk find it reasonable to screen adults free of cardiovascular disease for risk factors such as smoking, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, total cholesterol, and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol every 4-6 years between the ages of 20 and 79 years to calculate their 10-year cardiovascular risk,” they wrote.

Regarding diabetes care, clinicians should screen for abnormal glucose levels in overweight or obese patients aged between 40 and 70 years and schedule lifestyle counseling for any patients with prediabetes (HbA_1c = 5.7%-6.4%), diabetes mellitus (HbA_1c greater than 6.4%), gestational diabetes, or metabolic syndrome.

Cholesterol and other traditional risk factors associated with hyperlipidemia should be checked every 4-6 years and patients with elevated lipids should receive counseling on lowering their saturated fat intake and adding more dietary fiber. Statins are also an option for patients where diet does not lower lipids to appropriate levels, but authors noted “women of childbearing age need to be specifically counseled to not become pregnant while taking a statin.” The advisory also recommended speaking with patients about engaging in “150 min/wk of moderate-intensity physical activity, 75 min/wk of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity, or an equivalent combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity” as well as offering counseling and options for women who want to quit smoking.

The authors noted that only 45% of women consider heart disease a “leading cause of death” and most primary care providers do not see cardiovascular disease as a top health concern for women, focusing on risk factors such as weight and breast health.

“As the leading health care providers for women, ob.gyns. provide care that goes far beyond reproductive health and are in a unique position to screen, counsel, and educate patients on heart health. By acknowledging and discussing the risks and communicating steps women can take to reduce their odds of developing heart disease, ob.gyns. have a powerful opportunity to be the secret weapon in the fight against heart disease,” Haywood L. Brown, MD, past president of the ACOG and F. Bayard Carter Professor in the department of obstetrics and gynecology at Duke University, Durham, N.C., said in a press release.

Dr. Gianos is a consultant and/or on the advisory board for Regeneron. Dr. Wenger reports research grants from Gilead Sciences, the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute, Pfizer, and the Society for Women’s Health Research and is a consultant and/or on the advisory board for Amgen, AstraZeneca, Gilead Sciences, Janssen, and Merck.

SOURCE: Brown HL et al. Circulation. 2018 May 10. doi: 10.1161/CIR.0000000000000582.

DALLAS – Use of a newly designed pulsed-dye laser with a 15-mm diameter beam was safe and effective for treating rosacea, in a single-center study of 20 patients.

“Recent advances in pulsed-dye laser technology enable 50% higher output energies and much longer dye life,” lead study author Eric F. Bernstein, MD, said at the annual conference of the American Society for Laser Medicine and Surgery. “A 15-mm treatment diameter is now possible, which makes treatment faster and possibly more effective due to increased penetration of laser energy. Compared with a 10-mm spot size, which most of us use, a 15 mm is a 125% larger beam diameter, so it’s a big difference in treatment area.”

The average pain score was 5.6 on a 0-10 scale, while common side effects that resolved within 1-3 days without intervention included mild edema, mild to moderate erythema, and mild to moderate bruising. No cases of hyperpigmentation, hypopigmentation, blistering, or scarring occurred.

“The newly designed pulsed-dye laser is a major change in a device that has performed for over 10 years with wide acceptance,” Dr. Bernstein said. In addition to a longer-lasting dye kit, he said that new features include 50% more total energy enabling clinically relevant fluences to be delivered using a 15-mm diameter treatment beam, once-daily calibration instead of after every energy or spot size change, “both contact and dynamic spray cooling, and an Nd:YAG wavelength for treating larger vessels.”

Dr. Bernstein reported having received grant funding from Syneron Candela and Zeltiq. He also has received consulting fees from and holds ownership interest in Syneron Candela, and has served on the advisory board for Novoxel, Solta, Syneron Candela, and Zeltiq.

[email protected]

DALLAS – Use of a newly designed pulsed-dye laser with a 15-mm diameter beam was safe and effective for treating rosacea, in a single-center study of 20 patients.

“Recent advances in pulsed-dye laser technology enable 50% higher output energies and much longer dye life,” lead study author Eric F. Bernstein, MD, said at the annual conference of the American Society for Laser Medicine and Surgery. “A 15-mm treatment diameter is now possible, which makes treatment faster and possibly more effective due to increased penetration of laser energy. Compared with a 10-mm spot size, which most of us use, a 15 mm is a 125% larger beam diameter, so it’s a big difference in treatment area.”

The average pain score was 5.6 on a 0-10 scale, while common side effects that resolved within 1-3 days without intervention included mild edema, mild to moderate erythema, and mild to moderate bruising. No cases of hyperpigmentation, hypopigmentation, blistering, or scarring occurred.

“The newly designed pulsed-dye laser is a major change in a device that has performed for over 10 years with wide acceptance,” Dr. Bernstein said. In addition to a longer-lasting dye kit, he said that new features include 50% more total energy enabling clinically relevant fluences to be delivered using a 15-mm diameter treatment beam, once-daily calibration instead of after every energy or spot size change, “both contact and dynamic spray cooling, and an Nd:YAG wavelength for treating larger vessels.”

Dr. Bernstein reported having received grant funding from Syneron Candela and Zeltiq. He also has received consulting fees from and holds ownership interest in Syneron Candela, and has served on the advisory board for Novoxel, Solta, Syneron Candela, and Zeltiq.

[email protected]

DALLAS – Use of a newly designed pulsed-dye laser with a 15-mm diameter beam was safe and effective for treating rosacea, in a single-center study of 20 patients.

“Recent advances in pulsed-dye laser technology enable 50% higher output energies and much longer dye life,” lead study author Eric F. Bernstein, MD, said at the annual conference of the American Society for Laser Medicine and Surgery. “A 15-mm treatment diameter is now possible, which makes treatment faster and possibly more effective due to increased penetration of laser energy. Compared with a 10-mm spot size, which most of us use, a 15 mm is a 125% larger beam diameter, so it’s a big difference in treatment area.”

The average pain score was 5.6 on a 0-10 scale, while common side effects that resolved within 1-3 days without intervention included mild edema, mild to moderate erythema, and mild to moderate bruising. No cases of hyperpigmentation, hypopigmentation, blistering, or scarring occurred.

“The newly designed pulsed-dye laser is a major change in a device that has performed for over 10 years with wide acceptance,” Dr. Bernstein said. In addition to a longer-lasting dye kit, he said that new features include 50% more total energy enabling clinically relevant fluences to be delivered using a 15-mm diameter treatment beam, once-daily calibration instead of after every energy or spot size change, “both contact and dynamic spray cooling, and an Nd:YAG wavelength for treating larger vessels.”

Dr. Bernstein reported having received grant funding from Syneron Candela and Zeltiq. He also has received consulting fees from and holds ownership interest in Syneron Candela, and has served on the advisory board for Novoxel, Solta, Syneron Candela, and Zeltiq.

[email protected]

CHICAGO – Routine use of an N95 mask during electrocautery is an effective and inexpensive way for dermatologic surgeons to protect themselves from toxic, airborne particulate matter in the smoke generated during the procedure, Emily de Golian, MD, said at the annual meeting of the American College of Mohs Surgery.

“Our data suggest clear dominance of N95 masks at filtering electrocautery particulate matter over commonly utilized basic procedural masks, as well as superiority to the laser masks that are used in hair removal procedures and ablative procedures in cosmetic clinics,” commented Dr. de Golian, a Mohs micrographic surgery fellow at the University of California, San Diego.

Bruce Jancin/MDedge News

ninuns/iStock/Getty Images Plus

[email protected]

CHICAGO – Routine use of an N95 mask during electrocautery is an effective and inexpensive way for dermatologic surgeons to protect themselves from toxic, airborne particulate matter in the smoke generated during the procedure, Emily de Golian, MD, said at the annual meeting of the American College of Mohs Surgery.

“Our data suggest clear dominance of N95 masks at filtering electrocautery particulate matter over commonly utilized basic procedural masks, as well as superiority to the laser masks that are used in hair removal procedures and ablative procedures in cosmetic clinics,” commented Dr. de Golian, a Mohs micrographic surgery fellow at the University of California, San Diego.

Bruce Jancin/MDedge News

ninuns/iStock/Getty Images Plus

[email protected]

CHICAGO – Routine use of an N95 mask during electrocautery is an effective and inexpensive way for dermatologic surgeons to protect themselves from toxic, airborne particulate matter in the smoke generated during the procedure, Emily de Golian, MD, said at the annual meeting of the American College of Mohs Surgery.

“Our data suggest clear dominance of N95 masks at filtering electrocautery particulate matter over commonly utilized basic procedural masks, as well as superiority to the laser masks that are used in hair removal procedures and ablative procedures in cosmetic clinics,” commented Dr. de Golian, a Mohs micrographic surgery fellow at the University of California, San Diego.

Bruce Jancin/MDedge News

ninuns/iStock/Getty Images Plus

[email protected]

A 38-year-old Latino man self-refers to dermatology for evaluation of a mass on his back that first appeared three years ago. Since then, it has grown steadily. There is no pain or discomfort associated with the lesion, and the patient claims to be quite healthy otherwise. There is no antecedent history for the affected area.

EXAMINATION
There is a subcutaneous, rubbery mass in the left infrascapular area. It measures 11 x 6 cm. Palpation reveals the lesion to be uniformly smooth and readily mobile. The overlying skin is free of abnormalities and increased warmth.

What is the diagnosis?

Lipomas are actual tumors, composed completely of adipose tissue contained in a thin, fragile, membranous capsule. Their tendency to develop can be hereditary, though most are spontaneous. They can manifest internally as well.

Superficial lipomas, which often manifest as multiple lesions on the arms and trunk, are usually easy to remove surgically. Lesions that are deeper and older or that appear on the face, however, often require considerable dissection to be freed from surrounding tissue. When excision is attempted, it is essential to remove the entire lesion to prevent recurrence. And, as always, the specimen must be sent for pathologic examination.

Patients often decide against surgery once they understand the issues. This is acceptable, but any deviation from the norm—such as pain, irregular surface texture, change in overlying skin, lack of mobility, or rapid growth—would constitute reasonable grounds for excision.

This man’s lesion likely extended down to the muscle fascia if not into the muscle itself. As a result, surgery would require general anesthesia and placement of a drain in the inferior portion of the wound, since such a large defect would likely invite a collection of blood and serum. For these reasons, he was referred to a general surgeon.

The differential for lipoma includes liposarcoma and angiolipoma. The latter are common and benign but become painful and are often more firm than normal. Histologically, they’re often indistinguishable from ordinary lipomas. Liposarcomas, when superficial, can imitate ordinary lipomas, but their surfaces tend to be more irregular and firm and the lesions themselves less mobile.

TAKE-HOME LEARNING POINTS

• Lipomas are the most common soft-tissue tumor encountered in outpatient practices.
• While the vast majority are benign and easy to remove surgically, most lipomas can be safely left alone.
• When excision is attempted, the entire lesion must be removed lest it regrow.
• Patients with larger, deeper lesions, or those in busy anatomical areas, should be referred to a general surgeon.

A 38-year-old Latino man self-refers to dermatology for evaluation of a mass on his back that first appeared three years ago. Since then, it has grown steadily. There is no pain or discomfort associated with the lesion, and the patient claims to be quite healthy otherwise. There is no antecedent history for the affected area.

EXAMINATION
There is a subcutaneous, rubbery mass in the left infrascapular area. It measures 11 x 6 cm. Palpation reveals the lesion to be uniformly smooth and readily mobile. The overlying skin is free of abnormalities and increased warmth.

What is the diagnosis?

Lipomas are actual tumors, composed completely of adipose tissue contained in a thin, fragile, membranous capsule. Their tendency to develop can be hereditary, though most are spontaneous. They can manifest internally as well.

Superficial lipomas, which often manifest as multiple lesions on the arms and trunk, are usually easy to remove surgically. Lesions that are deeper and older or that appear on the face, however, often require considerable dissection to be freed from surrounding tissue. When excision is attempted, it is essential to remove the entire lesion to prevent recurrence. And, as always, the specimen must be sent for pathologic examination.

Patients often decide against surgery once they understand the issues. This is acceptable, but any deviation from the norm—such as pain, irregular surface texture, change in overlying skin, lack of mobility, or rapid growth—would constitute reasonable grounds for excision.

This man’s lesion likely extended down to the muscle fascia if not into the muscle itself. As a result, surgery would require general anesthesia and placement of a drain in the inferior portion of the wound, since such a large defect would likely invite a collection of blood and serum. For these reasons, he was referred to a general surgeon.

The differential for lipoma includes liposarcoma and angiolipoma. The latter are common and benign but become painful and are often more firm than normal. Histologically, they’re often indistinguishable from ordinary lipomas. Liposarcomas, when superficial, can imitate ordinary lipomas, but their surfaces tend to be more irregular and firm and the lesions themselves less mobile.

TAKE-HOME LEARNING POINTS

• Lipomas are the most common soft-tissue tumor encountered in outpatient practices.
• While the vast majority are benign and easy to remove surgically, most lipomas can be safely left alone.
• When excision is attempted, the entire lesion must be removed lest it regrow.
• Patients with larger, deeper lesions, or those in busy anatomical areas, should be referred to a general surgeon.

A 38-year-old Latino man self-refers to dermatology for evaluation of a mass on his back that first appeared three years ago. Since then, it has grown steadily. There is no pain or discomfort associated with the lesion, and the patient claims to be quite healthy otherwise. There is no antecedent history for the affected area.

EXAMINATION
There is a subcutaneous, rubbery mass in the left infrascapular area. It measures 11 x 6 cm. Palpation reveals the lesion to be uniformly smooth and readily mobile. The overlying skin is free of abnormalities and increased warmth.

What is the diagnosis?

Lipomas are actual tumors, composed completely of adipose tissue contained in a thin, fragile, membranous capsule. Their tendency to develop can be hereditary, though most are spontaneous. They can manifest internally as well.

Superficial lipomas, which often manifest as multiple lesions on the arms and trunk, are usually easy to remove surgically. Lesions that are deeper and older or that appear on the face, however, often require considerable dissection to be freed from surrounding tissue. When excision is attempted, it is essential to remove the entire lesion to prevent recurrence. And, as always, the specimen must be sent for pathologic examination.

Patients often decide against surgery once they understand the issues. This is acceptable, but any deviation from the norm—such as pain, irregular surface texture, change in overlying skin, lack of mobility, or rapid growth—would constitute reasonable grounds for excision.

This man’s lesion likely extended down to the muscle fascia if not into the muscle itself. As a result, surgery would require general anesthesia and placement of a drain in the inferior portion of the wound, since such a large defect would likely invite a collection of blood and serum. For these reasons, he was referred to a general surgeon.

The differential for lipoma includes liposarcoma and angiolipoma. The latter are common and benign but become painful and are often more firm than normal. Histologically, they’re often indistinguishable from ordinary lipomas. Liposarcomas, when superficial, can imitate ordinary lipomas, but their surfaces tend to be more irregular and firm and the lesions themselves less mobile.

TAKE-HOME LEARNING POINTS

• Lipomas are the most common soft-tissue tumor encountered in outpatient practices.
• While the vast majority are benign and easy to remove surgically, most lipomas can be safely left alone.
• When excision is attempted, the entire lesion must be removed lest it regrow.
• Patients with larger, deeper lesions, or those in busy anatomical areas, should be referred to a general surgeon.

Checkpoint inhibitors got to melanoma, non–small cell lung cancer, and renal cell carcinoma patients quickly in clinical practice after Food and Drug Administration approval – usually within 4 months – but the patients treated in clinical settings tended to be older than those treated in trials, which has caused concern about whether real-world efficacy will prove to be the same, according to a study in JAMA Oncology.

“Such rapid adoption stands in contrast to older estimates that suggest it takes years or even decades for new treatments to be adopted,” wrote lead author Cary Gross, MD, professor of medicine at Yale University, New Haven, and his coauthors. “We found significant differences in age between patients treated in practice and those treated in trials, which highlights the need to clarify the risks and benefits of checkpoint inhibitors in general populations of patients.”

Researchers drew data on nivolumab and pembrolizumab use from the Flatiron Health longitudinal EHR database, which included 233 academic and community oncology practices. In each of the three disease cohorts, adoption was seen within 4 months for at least 60% of patients. Uptake was quickest for the melanoma patients, 76% of whom received a checkpoint inhibitor within 4 months, investigators wrote. Factors for the fast adoption could include high disease severity, a preference for novelty, perceived gains over existing treatments, and promotional activities, such as media reports and advertising directly to consumers, they wrote.

More patients in real-world practice were aged 65 years or older, ranging from as little as 61% at the lowest end of the range at one center to as much as 64% at the highest end at another. In the clinical trials, the percentage of patients aged 65 years or older ranged from 32% in one trial to 41% in another. Researchers wrote that these higher real-world rates are concerning because there are still questions regarding whether differences in immune responses will cause differences in efficacy between older and younger patients, as well as safety considerations among different age groups.

“Although data suggest that outcomes are similar between older and younger patients receiving anti–PD-1 agents for melanoma, there is little evidence to guide anti–PD-1 treatment of older patients with NSCLC [non–small cell lung cancer],” Dr. Gross and his coinvestigators wrote.

Investigators wrote that the findings are cause for caution.

“As FDA officials develop more flexible standards for approval, which the 21st Century Cures Act requires them to do, it is possible that many patients will receive drugs before much is known about clinical outcomes,” Dr. Gross said. “Further integrations of real-world evidence might allow the FDA to better assess the drugs that they approve on the basis of nonrepresentative trial participants.”

SOURCE: Gross C et al. JAMA Oncol. 2018 May 10. doi: 10.1001/jamaoncol.2018.0798.






 

Checkpoint inhibitors got to melanoma, non–small cell lung cancer, and renal cell carcinoma patients quickly in clinical practice after Food and Drug Administration approval – usually within 4 months – but the patients treated in clinical settings tended to be older than those treated in trials, which has caused concern about whether real-world efficacy will prove to be the same, according to a study in JAMA Oncology.

“Such rapid adoption stands in contrast to older estimates that suggest it takes years or even decades for new treatments to be adopted,” wrote lead author Cary Gross, MD, professor of medicine at Yale University, New Haven, and his coauthors. “We found significant differences in age between patients treated in practice and those treated in trials, which highlights the need to clarify the risks and benefits of checkpoint inhibitors in general populations of patients.”

Researchers drew data on nivolumab and pembrolizumab use from the Flatiron Health longitudinal EHR database, which included 233 academic and community oncology practices. In each of the three disease cohorts, adoption was seen within 4 months for at least 60% of patients. Uptake was quickest for the melanoma patients, 76% of whom received a checkpoint inhibitor within 4 months, investigators wrote. Factors for the fast adoption could include high disease severity, a preference for novelty, perceived gains over existing treatments, and promotional activities, such as media reports and advertising directly to consumers, they wrote.

More patients in real-world practice were aged 65 years or older, ranging from as little as 61% at the lowest end of the range at one center to as much as 64% at the highest end at another. In the clinical trials, the percentage of patients aged 65 years or older ranged from 32% in one trial to 41% in another. Researchers wrote that these higher real-world rates are concerning because there are still questions regarding whether differences in immune responses will cause differences in efficacy between older and younger patients, as well as safety considerations among different age groups.

“Although data suggest that outcomes are similar between older and younger patients receiving anti–PD-1 agents for melanoma, there is little evidence to guide anti–PD-1 treatment of older patients with NSCLC [non–small cell lung cancer],” Dr. Gross and his coinvestigators wrote.

Investigators wrote that the findings are cause for caution.

“As FDA officials develop more flexible standards for approval, which the 21st Century Cures Act requires them to do, it is possible that many patients will receive drugs before much is known about clinical outcomes,” Dr. Gross said. “Further integrations of real-world evidence might allow the FDA to better assess the drugs that they approve on the basis of nonrepresentative trial participants.”

SOURCE: Gross C et al. JAMA Oncol. 2018 May 10. doi: 10.1001/jamaoncol.2018.0798.






 

Checkpoint inhibitors got to melanoma, non–small cell lung cancer, and renal cell carcinoma patients quickly in clinical practice after Food and Drug Administration approval – usually within 4 months – but the patients treated in clinical settings tended to be older than those treated in trials, which has caused concern about whether real-world efficacy will prove to be the same, according to a study in JAMA Oncology.

“Such rapid adoption stands in contrast to older estimates that suggest it takes years or even decades for new treatments to be adopted,” wrote lead author Cary Gross, MD, professor of medicine at Yale University, New Haven, and his coauthors. “We found significant differences in age between patients treated in practice and those treated in trials, which highlights the need to clarify the risks and benefits of checkpoint inhibitors in general populations of patients.”

Researchers drew data on nivolumab and pembrolizumab use from the Flatiron Health longitudinal EHR database, which included 233 academic and community oncology practices. In each of the three disease cohorts, adoption was seen within 4 months for at least 60% of patients. Uptake was quickest for the melanoma patients, 76% of whom received a checkpoint inhibitor within 4 months, investigators wrote. Factors for the fast adoption could include high disease severity, a preference for novelty, perceived gains over existing treatments, and promotional activities, such as media reports and advertising directly to consumers, they wrote.

More patients in real-world practice were aged 65 years or older, ranging from as little as 61% at the lowest end of the range at one center to as much as 64% at the highest end at another. In the clinical trials, the percentage of patients aged 65 years or older ranged from 32% in one trial to 41% in another. Researchers wrote that these higher real-world rates are concerning because there are still questions regarding whether differences in immune responses will cause differences in efficacy between older and younger patients, as well as safety considerations among different age groups.

“Although data suggest that outcomes are similar between older and younger patients receiving anti–PD-1 agents for melanoma, there is little evidence to guide anti–PD-1 treatment of older patients with NSCLC [non–small cell lung cancer],” Dr. Gross and his coinvestigators wrote.

Investigators wrote that the findings are cause for caution.

“As FDA officials develop more flexible standards for approval, which the 21st Century Cures Act requires them to do, it is possible that many patients will receive drugs before much is known about clinical outcomes,” Dr. Gross said. “Further integrations of real-world evidence might allow the FDA to better assess the drugs that they approve on the basis of nonrepresentative trial participants.”

SOURCE: Gross C et al. JAMA Oncol. 2018 May 10. doi: 10.1001/jamaoncol.2018.0798.






 

TORONTO – Fewer than 10% of women who screened positive for postpartum depression (PPD) in a pediatric setting received mental health services in the following 6 months, according to results of a retrospective study that used linked data from children’s EHRs and maternal Medicaid claims.

“My big takeaway from all of this is, if as pediatricians we’re committed to screening for postpartum depression, which we are – it’s in our Bright Futures guidelines – then we also need to focus on that next step and make sure that the mothers we find actually get services,” Stacey Kallem, MD, a pediatrician at Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia, reported at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting.

monkeybusinessimages/Thinkstock

Debra L. Beck/MDedge News

TORONTO – Fewer than 10% of women who screened positive for postpartum depression (PPD) in a pediatric setting received mental health services in the following 6 months, according to results of a retrospective study that used linked data from children’s EHRs and maternal Medicaid claims.

“My big takeaway from all of this is, if as pediatricians we’re committed to screening for postpartum depression, which we are – it’s in our Bright Futures guidelines – then we also need to focus on that next step and make sure that the mothers we find actually get services,” Stacey Kallem, MD, a pediatrician at Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia, reported at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting.

monkeybusinessimages/Thinkstock

Debra L. Beck/MDedge News

TORONTO – Fewer than 10% of women who screened positive for postpartum depression (PPD) in a pediatric setting received mental health services in the following 6 months, according to results of a retrospective study that used linked data from children’s EHRs and maternal Medicaid claims.

“My big takeaway from all of this is, if as pediatricians we’re committed to screening for postpartum depression, which we are – it’s in our Bright Futures guidelines – then we also need to focus on that next step and make sure that the mothers we find actually get services,” Stacey Kallem, MD, a pediatrician at Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia, reported at the Pediatric Academic Societies meeting.

monkeybusinessimages/Thinkstock

Debra L. Beck/MDedge News

ABSTRACT

A central distal femoral physeal bone bridge in a boy aged 5 years and 7 months was resected with a fluoroscopically guided core reamer placed through a lateral parapatellar approach. At 3-year follow-up, the boy’s leg-length discrepancy was 3.0 cm (3.9 cm preoperatively), and the physeal bone bridge did not recur. The patient had full function and no pain or other patellofemoral complaints. This technique provided direct access to the physeal bone bridge, and complete resection was performed without injury to the adjacent physeal cartilage in the medial and lateral columns of the distal femur, which is expected to grow normally in the absence of the bridge.

A physeal bone bridge is an osseous connection that forms across a physis. It may cause partial premature physeal arrest. Angular deformity and limb-length discrepancy are the main complications caused by physeal bone bridges.^1-4 The indications for the treatment of physeal bridges are well documented.^1-5 Trauma and infection are common causes of distal femoral physeal bone bridges. Arkader and colleagues⁶ showed that among different types of physeal bridges, the Salter-Harris type is significantly associated with complications, among which growth arrest is the most common and occurs in 27.4% of all patients.

The treatment of distal femoral physeal bone bridges is technically difficult and provides variable results. Poor results are reported in 13% to 40% of patients.^7-10 Procedure failure has been attributed to incomplete resection with the persistent tethering and dislodgement of the graft.¹¹ Methods with improved efficacy for the removal of central physeal bridges will help prevent reformation after treatment. We have used a novel technique that allows the direct resection of a central physeal bone bridge in the distal femur through the use of a fluoroscopically guided core reamer. This technique enables the complete removal of the bone bridge and the direct visual assessment of the remaining physis. The patient’s parents provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE

A 3-year-old boy with a history of hemifacial microsomia presented for the evaluation of genu valgum and leg-length discrepancy. His intermalleolar distance at that time was 8 cm. A standing radiograph of his lower extremities demonstrated changes consistent with physiologic genu valgum. He had no history of knee trauma, infection, or pain.

At the age of 5 years and 7 months, the patient returned for a repeat evaluation and was noted to exhibit the progressive valgus deformity of the right leg and a leg-length discrepancy of 3.9 cm (Figure 1). 

Continue to: With the patient supine on the operating...

OPERATIVE TECHNIQUE

With the patient supine on the operating table and after the administration of general anesthesia, 3-dimensional (3-D) fluoroscopy was used to localize the bone bridge, which confirmed the fluoroscopic location that was previously visualized through preoperative 3-D imaging. The leg was elevated, and a tourniquet was applied and inflated. A lateral parapatellar approach was used to isolate the distal femoral physis anteriorly because the bone bridge was centered just lateral to the central portion of the distal femoral physis. A Kirschner wire was placed in the center of the bridge under anteroposterior and lateral fluoroscopic imaging (Figures 3A-3E). 

OUTCOME

The patient healed uneventfully, and early range-of-motion exercises were started 6 weeks postoperatively. At 6-month follow-up, his leg-length discrepancy was 2.7 cm, and the bone bridge did not recur. At 3-year follow-up, his leg-length discrepancy was 3.0 cm, and the bone bridge did not recur. Over the 3 years postoperatively, the patient exhibited 9.8 cm of growth on his operative side and 9.5 cm on his nonoperative side (Figure 5). 

DISCUSSION

Given the considerable growth potential of the distal femoral physis,^1,14-16 an injury to the distal femoral physis and the formation of a physeal bone bridge can have a profound effect on a young patient in terms of leg-length discrepancy and angular deformity. Fracture from trauma or infection is a common cause of physeal bone bridges.^6,17-19 The etiology of our patient’s distal femoral physeal bone bridge is idiopathic, which is considerably less common than other etiologies, and the incidence of idiopathic physeal bone bridge formation is not well established in the literature. Hresko and Kasser²¹ identified atraumatic physeal bone bridge formations in 7 patients. Among the 13 patients with physeal bone bridges described by Broughton and colleagues,²⁰ the cause of bridge formation is unknown in 1.

Physeal bone bridges that form centrally are particularly challenging because they are difficult to visualize through a peripheral approach. A number of methods for resecting central physeal bone bridges have been described. These methods have varying degrees of success. In 1981, Langenskiöld⁷ first described the creation of a metaphyseal mirror and the use of a dental mirror for visualization. This technique, however, yielded unfavorable results in 16% of patients. Williamson and Staheli⁹ reported poor results in 23% of patients. Loraas and Schmale⁴ described the use of an endoscope, termed an osteoscope, for visualization, citing advantages of superior illumination and potential for image magnification and capture. Marsh and Polzhofer⁸ also showed this technique to have low morbidity but poor results in 13% of patients, whereas Moreta and colleagues¹⁰ reported poor results in 2 out of 5 patients. The rate of poor results of these methods may be related to the technical difficulty of using dental mirrors and arthroscopes and can be improved by highly efficient direct methods with improved visualization, such as the method described in this article.

Continue to: Proper imaging is necessary for...

Proper imaging is necessary for the accurate quantification of bone bridges to determine resectability and to identify the best surgical approach to resection. MRI with software for the generation of 3-D physeal maps is a reproducible method with good interobserver reliability.^22,23 Intraoperative computer-assisted imaging also is beneficial for determining the extent and location of the resection to ensure complete bone bridge removal.²⁴

To our knowledge, a direct approach through parapatellar arthrotomy for the resection of a centrally located distal femoral physeal bone bridge has not been previously described. This novel technique provided direct access to the physeal bone bridge and was performed without injuring the adjacent physeal cartilage in the medial and lateral columns of the distal femur, which may grow normally in the absence of the bridge. Instead of using a lateral or medial approach with a metaphyseal window,⁴ we directly approached this central bar through a parapatellar approach and were able to completely resect it under direct visualization. This obviated the need for an arthroscope or dental mirror. To remove the entire physeal bone bridge, we needed to resect completely from the anterior cortex to the posterior cortex. Although this technique potentially increased the risk of iatrogenic fracture, we believed that this risk would not differ greatly from that of disrupting the medial or lateral metaphysis and would be more stable with either axial and torsion load. At 3-year follow-up, the patient exhibited restored normal growth in his operative limb relative to that in his nonoperative limb, had not developed angular deformity, and had maintained his previously developed limb-length discrepancy that could be corrected with the epiphysiodesis of his opposite limb at a later date.

The limitations to this technique include the fact that it may be most effective with small-to moderate-sized central physeal bone bridges, although resection has shown good results with up to 70% physeal involvement.⁸ In this patient, the bone bridge was moderately sized (30% of the physis), centrally located, and clearly visible on fluoroscopy. These characteristics increased the technical safety and ease of the procedure. The resection of large, peripheral bridges may destabilize the distal femur. The destabilization of the distal femur, in turn, can lead to fracture. Patellofemoral mechanics may also be affected during the treatment of distal femoral physeal bone bridges. This patient has not experienced any patellofemoral dysfunction or symptoms. Given the patient’s age and significant amount of remaining growth, he will need close monitoring until he reaches skeletal maturity.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.

ABSTRACT

A central distal femoral physeal bone bridge in a boy aged 5 years and 7 months was resected with a fluoroscopically guided core reamer placed through a lateral parapatellar approach. At 3-year follow-up, the boy’s leg-length discrepancy was 3.0 cm (3.9 cm preoperatively), and the physeal bone bridge did not recur. The patient had full function and no pain or other patellofemoral complaints. This technique provided direct access to the physeal bone bridge, and complete resection was performed without injury to the adjacent physeal cartilage in the medial and lateral columns of the distal femur, which is expected to grow normally in the absence of the bridge.

A physeal bone bridge is an osseous connection that forms across a physis. It may cause partial premature physeal arrest. Angular deformity and limb-length discrepancy are the main complications caused by physeal bone bridges.^1-4 The indications for the treatment of physeal bridges are well documented.^1-5 Trauma and infection are common causes of distal femoral physeal bone bridges. Arkader and colleagues⁶ showed that among different types of physeal bridges, the Salter-Harris type is significantly associated with complications, among which growth arrest is the most common and occurs in 27.4% of all patients.

The treatment of distal femoral physeal bone bridges is technically difficult and provides variable results. Poor results are reported in 13% to 40% of patients.^7-10 Procedure failure has been attributed to incomplete resection with the persistent tethering and dislodgement of the graft.¹¹ Methods with improved efficacy for the removal of central physeal bridges will help prevent reformation after treatment. We have used a novel technique that allows the direct resection of a central physeal bone bridge in the distal femur through the use of a fluoroscopically guided core reamer. This technique enables the complete removal of the bone bridge and the direct visual assessment of the remaining physis. The patient’s parents provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE

A 3-year-old boy with a history of hemifacial microsomia presented for the evaluation of genu valgum and leg-length discrepancy. His intermalleolar distance at that time was 8 cm. A standing radiograph of his lower extremities demonstrated changes consistent with physiologic genu valgum. He had no history of knee trauma, infection, or pain.

At the age of 5 years and 7 months, the patient returned for a repeat evaluation and was noted to exhibit the progressive valgus deformity of the right leg and a leg-length discrepancy of 3.9 cm (Figure 1). 

Continue to: With the patient supine on the operating...

OPERATIVE TECHNIQUE

With the patient supine on the operating table and after the administration of general anesthesia, 3-dimensional (3-D) fluoroscopy was used to localize the bone bridge, which confirmed the fluoroscopic location that was previously visualized through preoperative 3-D imaging. The leg was elevated, and a tourniquet was applied and inflated. A lateral parapatellar approach was used to isolate the distal femoral physis anteriorly because the bone bridge was centered just lateral to the central portion of the distal femoral physis. A Kirschner wire was placed in the center of the bridge under anteroposterior and lateral fluoroscopic imaging (Figures 3A-3E). 

OUTCOME

The patient healed uneventfully, and early range-of-motion exercises were started 6 weeks postoperatively. At 6-month follow-up, his leg-length discrepancy was 2.7 cm, and the bone bridge did not recur. At 3-year follow-up, his leg-length discrepancy was 3.0 cm, and the bone bridge did not recur. Over the 3 years postoperatively, the patient exhibited 9.8 cm of growth on his operative side and 9.5 cm on his nonoperative side (Figure 5). 

DISCUSSION

Given the considerable growth potential of the distal femoral physis,^1,14-16 an injury to the distal femoral physis and the formation of a physeal bone bridge can have a profound effect on a young patient in terms of leg-length discrepancy and angular deformity. Fracture from trauma or infection is a common cause of physeal bone bridges.^6,17-19 The etiology of our patient’s distal femoral physeal bone bridge is idiopathic, which is considerably less common than other etiologies, and the incidence of idiopathic physeal bone bridge formation is not well established in the literature. Hresko and Kasser²¹ identified atraumatic physeal bone bridge formations in 7 patients. Among the 13 patients with physeal bone bridges described by Broughton and colleagues,²⁰ the cause of bridge formation is unknown in 1.

Physeal bone bridges that form centrally are particularly challenging because they are difficult to visualize through a peripheral approach. A number of methods for resecting central physeal bone bridges have been described. These methods have varying degrees of success. In 1981, Langenskiöld⁷ first described the creation of a metaphyseal mirror and the use of a dental mirror for visualization. This technique, however, yielded unfavorable results in 16% of patients. Williamson and Staheli⁹ reported poor results in 23% of patients. Loraas and Schmale⁴ described the use of an endoscope, termed an osteoscope, for visualization, citing advantages of superior illumination and potential for image magnification and capture. Marsh and Polzhofer⁸ also showed this technique to have low morbidity but poor results in 13% of patients, whereas Moreta and colleagues¹⁰ reported poor results in 2 out of 5 patients. The rate of poor results of these methods may be related to the technical difficulty of using dental mirrors and arthroscopes and can be improved by highly efficient direct methods with improved visualization, such as the method described in this article.

Continue to: Proper imaging is necessary for...

Proper imaging is necessary for the accurate quantification of bone bridges to determine resectability and to identify the best surgical approach to resection. MRI with software for the generation of 3-D physeal maps is a reproducible method with good interobserver reliability.^22,23 Intraoperative computer-assisted imaging also is beneficial for determining the extent and location of the resection to ensure complete bone bridge removal.²⁴

To our knowledge, a direct approach through parapatellar arthrotomy for the resection of a centrally located distal femoral physeal bone bridge has not been previously described. This novel technique provided direct access to the physeal bone bridge and was performed without injuring the adjacent physeal cartilage in the medial and lateral columns of the distal femur, which may grow normally in the absence of the bridge. Instead of using a lateral or medial approach with a metaphyseal window,⁴ we directly approached this central bar through a parapatellar approach and were able to completely resect it under direct visualization. This obviated the need for an arthroscope or dental mirror. To remove the entire physeal bone bridge, we needed to resect completely from the anterior cortex to the posterior cortex. Although this technique potentially increased the risk of iatrogenic fracture, we believed that this risk would not differ greatly from that of disrupting the medial or lateral metaphysis and would be more stable with either axial and torsion load. At 3-year follow-up, the patient exhibited restored normal growth in his operative limb relative to that in his nonoperative limb, had not developed angular deformity, and had maintained his previously developed limb-length discrepancy that could be corrected with the epiphysiodesis of his opposite limb at a later date.

The limitations to this technique include the fact that it may be most effective with small-to moderate-sized central physeal bone bridges, although resection has shown good results with up to 70% physeal involvement.⁸ In this patient, the bone bridge was moderately sized (30% of the physis), centrally located, and clearly visible on fluoroscopy. These characteristics increased the technical safety and ease of the procedure. The resection of large, peripheral bridges may destabilize the distal femur. The destabilization of the distal femur, in turn, can lead to fracture. Patellofemoral mechanics may also be affected during the treatment of distal femoral physeal bone bridges. This patient has not experienced any patellofemoral dysfunction or symptoms. Given the patient’s age and significant amount of remaining growth, he will need close monitoring until he reaches skeletal maturity.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.

ABSTRACT

A central distal femoral physeal bone bridge in a boy aged 5 years and 7 months was resected with a fluoroscopically guided core reamer placed through a lateral parapatellar approach. At 3-year follow-up, the boy’s leg-length discrepancy was 3.0 cm (3.9 cm preoperatively), and the physeal bone bridge did not recur. The patient had full function and no pain or other patellofemoral complaints. This technique provided direct access to the physeal bone bridge, and complete resection was performed without injury to the adjacent physeal cartilage in the medial and lateral columns of the distal femur, which is expected to grow normally in the absence of the bridge.

A physeal bone bridge is an osseous connection that forms across a physis. It may cause partial premature physeal arrest. Angular deformity and limb-length discrepancy are the main complications caused by physeal bone bridges.^1-4 The indications for the treatment of physeal bridges are well documented.^1-5 Trauma and infection are common causes of distal femoral physeal bone bridges. Arkader and colleagues⁶ showed that among different types of physeal bridges, the Salter-Harris type is significantly associated with complications, among which growth arrest is the most common and occurs in 27.4% of all patients.

The treatment of distal femoral physeal bone bridges is technically difficult and provides variable results. Poor results are reported in 13% to 40% of patients.^7-10 Procedure failure has been attributed to incomplete resection with the persistent tethering and dislodgement of the graft.¹¹ Methods with improved efficacy for the removal of central physeal bridges will help prevent reformation after treatment. We have used a novel technique that allows the direct resection of a central physeal bone bridge in the distal femur through the use of a fluoroscopically guided core reamer. This technique enables the complete removal of the bone bridge and the direct visual assessment of the remaining physis. The patient’s parents provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE

A 3-year-old boy with a history of hemifacial microsomia presented for the evaluation of genu valgum and leg-length discrepancy. His intermalleolar distance at that time was 8 cm. A standing radiograph of his lower extremities demonstrated changes consistent with physiologic genu valgum. He had no history of knee trauma, infection, or pain.

At the age of 5 years and 7 months, the patient returned for a repeat evaluation and was noted to exhibit the progressive valgus deformity of the right leg and a leg-length discrepancy of 3.9 cm (Figure 1). 

Continue to: With the patient supine on the operating...

OPERATIVE TECHNIQUE

With the patient supine on the operating table and after the administration of general anesthesia, 3-dimensional (3-D) fluoroscopy was used to localize the bone bridge, which confirmed the fluoroscopic location that was previously visualized through preoperative 3-D imaging. The leg was elevated, and a tourniquet was applied and inflated. A lateral parapatellar approach was used to isolate the distal femoral physis anteriorly because the bone bridge was centered just lateral to the central portion of the distal femoral physis. A Kirschner wire was placed in the center of the bridge under anteroposterior and lateral fluoroscopic imaging (Figures 3A-3E). 

OUTCOME

The patient healed uneventfully, and early range-of-motion exercises were started 6 weeks postoperatively. At 6-month follow-up, his leg-length discrepancy was 2.7 cm, and the bone bridge did not recur. At 3-year follow-up, his leg-length discrepancy was 3.0 cm, and the bone bridge did not recur. Over the 3 years postoperatively, the patient exhibited 9.8 cm of growth on his operative side and 9.5 cm on his nonoperative side (Figure 5). 

DISCUSSION

Given the considerable growth potential of the distal femoral physis,^1,14-16 an injury to the distal femoral physis and the formation of a physeal bone bridge can have a profound effect on a young patient in terms of leg-length discrepancy and angular deformity. Fracture from trauma or infection is a common cause of physeal bone bridges.^6,17-19 The etiology of our patient’s distal femoral physeal bone bridge is idiopathic, which is considerably less common than other etiologies, and the incidence of idiopathic physeal bone bridge formation is not well established in the literature. Hresko and Kasser²¹ identified atraumatic physeal bone bridge formations in 7 patients. Among the 13 patients with physeal bone bridges described by Broughton and colleagues,²⁰ the cause of bridge formation is unknown in 1.

Physeal bone bridges that form centrally are particularly challenging because they are difficult to visualize through a peripheral approach. A number of methods for resecting central physeal bone bridges have been described. These methods have varying degrees of success. In 1981, Langenskiöld⁷ first described the creation of a metaphyseal mirror and the use of a dental mirror for visualization. This technique, however, yielded unfavorable results in 16% of patients. Williamson and Staheli⁹ reported poor results in 23% of patients. Loraas and Schmale⁴ described the use of an endoscope, termed an osteoscope, for visualization, citing advantages of superior illumination and potential for image magnification and capture. Marsh and Polzhofer⁸ also showed this technique to have low morbidity but poor results in 13% of patients, whereas Moreta and colleagues¹⁰ reported poor results in 2 out of 5 patients. The rate of poor results of these methods may be related to the technical difficulty of using dental mirrors and arthroscopes and can be improved by highly efficient direct methods with improved visualization, such as the method described in this article.

Continue to: Proper imaging is necessary for...

Proper imaging is necessary for the accurate quantification of bone bridges to determine resectability and to identify the best surgical approach to resection. MRI with software for the generation of 3-D physeal maps is a reproducible method with good interobserver reliability.^22,23 Intraoperative computer-assisted imaging also is beneficial for determining the extent and location of the resection to ensure complete bone bridge removal.²⁴

To our knowledge, a direct approach through parapatellar arthrotomy for the resection of a centrally located distal femoral physeal bone bridge has not been previously described. This novel technique provided direct access to the physeal bone bridge and was performed without injuring the adjacent physeal cartilage in the medial and lateral columns of the distal femur, which may grow normally in the absence of the bridge. Instead of using a lateral or medial approach with a metaphyseal window,⁴ we directly approached this central bar through a parapatellar approach and were able to completely resect it under direct visualization. This obviated the need for an arthroscope or dental mirror. To remove the entire physeal bone bridge, we needed to resect completely from the anterior cortex to the posterior cortex. Although this technique potentially increased the risk of iatrogenic fracture, we believed that this risk would not differ greatly from that of disrupting the medial or lateral metaphysis and would be more stable with either axial and torsion load. At 3-year follow-up, the patient exhibited restored normal growth in his operative limb relative to that in his nonoperative limb, had not developed angular deformity, and had maintained his previously developed limb-length discrepancy that could be corrected with the epiphysiodesis of his opposite limb at a later date.

The limitations to this technique include the fact that it may be most effective with small-to moderate-sized central physeal bone bridges, although resection has shown good results with up to 70% physeal involvement.⁸ In this patient, the bone bridge was moderately sized (30% of the physis), centrally located, and clearly visible on fluoroscopy. These characteristics increased the technical safety and ease of the procedure. The resection of large, peripheral bridges may destabilize the distal femur. The destabilization of the distal femur, in turn, can lead to fracture. Patellofemoral mechanics may also be affected during the treatment of distal femoral physeal bone bridges. This patient has not experienced any patellofemoral dysfunction or symptoms. Given the patient’s age and significant amount of remaining growth, he will need close monitoring until he reaches skeletal maturity.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.

BOSTON – The standard definition of an episode of atrial fibrillation is a fibrillation event that lasts at least 30 seconds, but a new analysis of monitoring data collected from 615 patients showed that this threshold can label many patients as having atrial fibrillation despite an extremely low disease burden.

A more clinically relevant definition of atrial fibrillation (AF) might be a patient with at least one episode that persists for at least 3.8 hours, because this threshold identified people with a median AF burden of just under 10%, Jonathan S. Steinberg, MD, said while presenting a poster at the annual scientific sessions of the Heart Rhythm Society.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

He and his associates used data collected by Medtronic from 1,040 patients enrolled in a company registry during 2005-2016 with an implanted dual-chamber pacemaker able to detect atrial arrhythmias. The researchers focused on the 615 patients who had AF detected during at least 30 days of monitoring. These 615 patients averaged 72 years of age, 54% were men, and 599 had at least one AF episode of at least 30 seconds duration. Each patient had an average 3.7-year accumulated archive of atrial rhythm data.

The analysis showed a close association between the longest AF episode detected and overall AF burden. Among patients with a longest episode of 30-119 seconds, the median burden was 0.1%. Among patients with a maximum duration of anywhere from 30 seconds to 3.7 hours, the median burden was 0.2%. But among people with a longest episode of 3.8 hours to 5.4 hours, the median burden was 1.2%. In those with a longest episode of at least 24 hours, the median burden was 25%. Finally, in those who had a longest AF episode that lasted at least 3.8 hours, the median AF burden was 9.5%.

Dr. Steinberg acknowledged that a very important additional step needed in this analysis is examining the correlations among AF burden, longest AF episode, and stroke incidence, something he and his associates are now doing. He expressed hope that these data will spur the cardiac electrophysiology community to rethink its AF definition.

The study was funded by Medtronic. Dr. Steinberg has been a consultant and/or has received research funding from Medtronic, AliveCor, Allergen, Atricure, Biosense Webster, G Medical, and National Cardiac. Several of his coauthors were Medtronic employees.

[email protected]

SOURCE: Steinberg J et al. Heart Rhythm Society scientific sessions, B-P001-062.

BOSTON – The standard definition of an episode of atrial fibrillation is a fibrillation event that lasts at least 30 seconds, but a new analysis of monitoring data collected from 615 patients showed that this threshold can label many patients as having atrial fibrillation despite an extremely low disease burden.

A more clinically relevant definition of atrial fibrillation (AF) might be a patient with at least one episode that persists for at least 3.8 hours, because this threshold identified people with a median AF burden of just under 10%, Jonathan S. Steinberg, MD, said while presenting a poster at the annual scientific sessions of the Heart Rhythm Society.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

He and his associates used data collected by Medtronic from 1,040 patients enrolled in a company registry during 2005-2016 with an implanted dual-chamber pacemaker able to detect atrial arrhythmias. The researchers focused on the 615 patients who had AF detected during at least 30 days of monitoring. These 615 patients averaged 72 years of age, 54% were men, and 599 had at least one AF episode of at least 30 seconds duration. Each patient had an average 3.7-year accumulated archive of atrial rhythm data.

The analysis showed a close association between the longest AF episode detected and overall AF burden. Among patients with a longest episode of 30-119 seconds, the median burden was 0.1%. Among patients with a maximum duration of anywhere from 30 seconds to 3.7 hours, the median burden was 0.2%. But among people with a longest episode of 3.8 hours to 5.4 hours, the median burden was 1.2%. In those with a longest episode of at least 24 hours, the median burden was 25%. Finally, in those who had a longest AF episode that lasted at least 3.8 hours, the median AF burden was 9.5%.

Dr. Steinberg acknowledged that a very important additional step needed in this analysis is examining the correlations among AF burden, longest AF episode, and stroke incidence, something he and his associates are now doing. He expressed hope that these data will spur the cardiac electrophysiology community to rethink its AF definition.

The study was funded by Medtronic. Dr. Steinberg has been a consultant and/or has received research funding from Medtronic, AliveCor, Allergen, Atricure, Biosense Webster, G Medical, and National Cardiac. Several of his coauthors were Medtronic employees.

[email protected]

SOURCE: Steinberg J et al. Heart Rhythm Society scientific sessions, B-P001-062.

BOSTON – The standard definition of an episode of atrial fibrillation is a fibrillation event that lasts at least 30 seconds, but a new analysis of monitoring data collected from 615 patients showed that this threshold can label many patients as having atrial fibrillation despite an extremely low disease burden.

A more clinically relevant definition of atrial fibrillation (AF) might be a patient with at least one episode that persists for at least 3.8 hours, because this threshold identified people with a median AF burden of just under 10%, Jonathan S. Steinberg, MD, said while presenting a poster at the annual scientific sessions of the Heart Rhythm Society.

Mitchel L. Zoler/MDedge News

He and his associates used data collected by Medtronic from 1,040 patients enrolled in a company registry during 2005-2016 with an implanted dual-chamber pacemaker able to detect atrial arrhythmias. The researchers focused on the 615 patients who had AF detected during at least 30 days of monitoring. These 615 patients averaged 72 years of age, 54% were men, and 599 had at least one AF episode of at least 30 seconds duration. Each patient had an average 3.7-year accumulated archive of atrial rhythm data.

The analysis showed a close association between the longest AF episode detected and overall AF burden. Among patients with a longest episode of 30-119 seconds, the median burden was 0.1%. Among patients with a maximum duration of anywhere from 30 seconds to 3.7 hours, the median burden was 0.2%. But among people with a longest episode of 3.8 hours to 5.4 hours, the median burden was 1.2%. In those with a longest episode of at least 24 hours, the median burden was 25%. Finally, in those who had a longest AF episode that lasted at least 3.8 hours, the median AF burden was 9.5%.

Dr. Steinberg acknowledged that a very important additional step needed in this analysis is examining the correlations among AF burden, longest AF episode, and stroke incidence, something he and his associates are now doing. He expressed hope that these data will spur the cardiac electrophysiology community to rethink its AF definition.

The study was funded by Medtronic. Dr. Steinberg has been a consultant and/or has received research funding from Medtronic, AliveCor, Allergen, Atricure, Biosense Webster, G Medical, and National Cardiac. Several of his coauthors were Medtronic employees.

[email protected]

SOURCE: Steinberg J et al. Heart Rhythm Society scientific sessions, B-P001-062.